Pharmacology Basics for Nurses
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Questions and Answers

What is the MOST critical reason for nurses to possess a strong understanding of basic math in pharmacology?

  • To accurately manage and update patient medical records.
  • To prevent medication errors and ensure precise dosage calculations. (correct)
  • To convert temperature readings between Celsius and Fahrenheit effectively.
  • To avoid making errors in patient charting and documentation.

Which factor has the LEAST influence on drug absorption within the body?

  • The rate at which the drug is eliminated from the body. (correct)
  • The age and physiological condition of the patient.
  • The presence of an intact blood-brain barrier.
  • The specific route of drug administration chosen.

In pharmacology, what does the 'first pass effect' specifically describe?

  • The removal of medications through renal excretion pathways.
  • The metabolism of a drug after subcutaneous administration.
  • The liver and intestines metabolizing orally administered drugs prior to systemic circulation. (correct)
  • The drug's initial distribution phase as it travels through the bloodstream to reach its target cells.

Why is a solid understanding of fractions, decimals, and ratios MOST important in healthcare, particularly for dosage calculations?

<p>To interpret medication orders, as doses are often expressed in fractional or decimal formats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement BEST defines the term 'bioavailability' in the context of pharmacology?

<p>The proportion of a drug that enters the circulation in an active form after administration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which principle is NOT included in the '10 Rights of Medication Administration'?

<p>Verifying the 'right diagnosis' before administering the medication. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the term 'polypharmacy'?

<p>The administration of multiple medications simultaneously, primarily to manage complex medical conditions without regard to potential interactions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering medication safety, which drug is classified as a 'high-alert medication' due to the increased risk of significant patient harm if it is used incorrectly?

<p>Insulin, a hormone used to manage blood glucose levels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing medication dosage calculations, which term correctly identifies the first decimal place to the right of the decimal point?

<p>Tenths (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When modifying medication dosages for older adult patients, which factor is LEAST likely to be considered?

<p>An elevated metabolic rate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'pharmacodynamics' specifically refer to in the context of drug administration?

<p>The physiological effects of drugs on the body and their mechanisms of action. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes a 'prodrug'?

<p>It is converted within the body into its active form through metabolic processes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of drugs that target the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

<p>To regulate involuntary bodily functions, such as heart rate and digestion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is most directly associated with the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)?

<p>Acetylcholine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological effect does a cholinergic agonist have on the body?

<p>It mimics the action of acetylcholine, triggering a 'rest and digest' response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of a beta-adrenergic blocker medication?

<p>Metoprolol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the action of adrenergic agonists?

<p>They stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, inducing a 'fight or flight' response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is specifically used to treat bradycardia by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system?

<p>Atropine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of drug calculations, what does the term 'desired dose' mean?

<p>The quantity of medication that the patient is prescribed to receive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of error is the MOST frequently encountered in medication orders?

<p>Mistakes made when transcribing medication orders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do adrenergic antagonists exert their effects on the body?

<p>By blocking adrenergic receptors, thereby preventing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is classified as a cholinergic agonist?

<p>Bethanechol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Administration of which drug class is MOST likely to result in side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?

<p>Anticholinergic drugs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When managing a severe anaphylactic reaction, which medication is the MOST appropriate first-line treatment?

<p>Epinephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client has been prescribed Metoprolol 50 mg PO BID. How should you interpret the abbreviation 'BID'?

<p>The medication should be taken twice a day. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does acetylcholine play in the autonomic nervous system?

<p>It affects nicotinic and muscarinic receptors, activating the parasympathetic nervous system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs is capable of producing a 'fight or flight' response by activating adrenergic receptors?

<p>Adrenergic agonists (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which adrenergic receptor is MOST responsible for increasing heart rate?

<p>Beta-1 receptor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When calculating a dosage using the formula method, what parameter does 'Q' typically represent?

<p>The concentration of the medication available. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main mechanism of action for anticholinergic drugs?

<p>They prevent acetylcholine receptor activation, reducing parasympathetic activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol to a client diagnosed with hypertension. Which vital sign reading would necessitate holding the medication?

<p>Heart rate of 58 bpm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition commonly occurs as a side effect of beta-adrenergic blockers?

<p>Bradycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In antimicrobial therapy, what is the principal role of antibiotics?

<p>To target bacterial infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which diagnostic test is MOST instrumental in determining the specific antibiotic that will be effective for treating an infection?

<p>Culture and Sensitivity Test (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What range of bacteria does a broad-spectrum antibiotic target?

<p>Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key risk associated with the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

<p>Increased risk of superinfection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a COMMON consequence of a patient failing to complete the full course of antibiotics?

<p>Development of drug-resistant bacteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterium is commonly linked to antibiotic resistance?

<p>Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism defines how penicillin works to inhibit bacterial growth?

<p>It inhibits cell wall synthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of a bactericidal antibiotic?

<p>It kills the bacteria. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among the listed antibiotic classes, which should be avoided in a patient with a documented penicillin allergy?

<p>Cephalosporins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do aminoglycosides exert their antibacterial effects?

<p>By inhibiting ribosomal function (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a known allergy to penicillin is prescribed an antibiotic. Which antibiotic class would demonstrate the MOST cross-reactivity, necessitating extreme caution?

<p>Cephalosporins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient is prescribed Metformin for newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. Which consideration is MOST critical to prevent adverse effects related to decreased renal function common in this population?

<p>Ensuring adequate hydration and monitoring kidney function closely (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed Warfarin and reports regularly consuming large quantities of green leafy vegetables. How does consistent, high intake of Vitamin K-rich foods impact Warfarin's effectiveness?

<p>Reduces the anticoagulant effect, potentially leading to clot formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is started on Levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. After several weeks, the patient reports persistent symptoms of fatigue and constipation. Which factor should be evaluated FIRST to establish a therapeutic dosage?

<p>Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving aminoglycoside antibiotics develops increasing tinnitus and changes in hearing. Which IMMEDIATE action is required to minimize permanent damage?

<p>Discontinue the aminoglycoside (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Why do nurses need strong math skills in pharmacology?

Prevent medication errors and ensure correct dosing.

What is NOT a factor influencing drug absorption?

Excretion of the drug.

What is the 'first pass effect'?

Metabolism of orally administered drugs by the liver before systemic circulation.

Why understand fractions, decimals, ratios in dosage calculations?

Many medications are dosed in fractional or decimal formats.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What describes 'bioavailability'?

Amount of drug that remains active in the bloodstream after administration.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which is NOT one of the 10 Rights of Medication Administration?

The right diagnosis

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What does polypharmacy refer to?

Simultaneous use of multiple medications, often causing adverse effects.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which drug is a 'high-alert medication'?

Insulin.

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First decimal place called when calculating dosages?

Tenths.

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What's NOT typically considered when adjusting medication dosages for older adults?

Increased metabolic rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is the role of 'pharmacodynamics'?

Involves the physiological effects of the drug on the body.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is a 'prodrug'?

Is metabolized into an active form once inside the body.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary function of autonomic nervous system (ANS) drugs?

To regulate involuntary body functions like heart rate and digestion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Neurotransmitter primarily associated with parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)?

Acetylcholine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Effect of a cholinergic agonist on the body?

It mimics the effects of acetylcholine, triggering a 'rest and digest' response

Signup and view all the flashcards

Example of a beta-adrenergic blocker?

Metoprolol

Signup and view all the flashcards

True statement about adrenergic agonists?

They stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, causing a 'fight or flight' response

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medication to treat bradycardia by blocking parasympathetic nervous system?

Atropine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

"Desired dose" refers to what in drug calculations?

The amount of medication the patient is supposed to receive

Signup and view all the flashcards

Most common error with medication orders?

Incorrect transcription

Signup and view all the flashcards

How does an adrenergic antagonist work?

It blocks adrenergic receptors, preventing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which drug classified as a cholinergic agonist?

Bethanechol.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which drug class results in side effects like dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?

Anticholinergic drugs

Signup and view all the flashcards

Most appropriate first-line drug treats severe anaphylactic reaction?

Epinephrine

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What does 'BID' mean?

Take medication twice a day

Signup and view all the flashcards

Role of acetylcholine in the autonomic nervous system?

Acts on nicotinic and muscarinic receptors to activate the parasympathetic nervous system

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which drug classification can stimulate a "fight or flight" response by activating adrenergic receptors?

Adrenergic agonists

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which adrenergic receptor responsible for increasing heart rate?

Beta-1 receptor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Calculating a dosage use formula, what does "Q" represent?

The quantity available on hand

Signup and view all the flashcards

Main action of anticholinergic drugs?

Block acetylcholine receptors, inhibiting parasympathetic activity

Signup and view all the flashcards

Nurse administering atenolol for hypertension, which vital sign indicates to hold?

HR of 58 bpm

Signup and view all the flashcards

Side effect of beta-adrenergic blockers?

Bradycardia

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Primary function of antibiotics in antimicrobial therapy?

Target bacterial infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which test helps determine the most effective antibiotic for an infection?

Culture and sensitivity test.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What does a broad-spectrum antibiotic target?

Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Key risk associated with broad antibiotics?

Increased risk of superinfection

Signup and view all the flashcards

Common side effect of antibiotics when full course not completed?

Development of drug-resistant bacteria

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Bacteria associated with antibiotic resistance?

Escherichia coli

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Antibiotic mechanism inhibits cell wall synthesis?

Penicillin

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Action of bactericidal antibiotic

It kills the bacteria

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Which antibiotics should be avoided if allergic to penicillin?

Cephalosporins

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How do aminoglycosides affect?

By inhibiting ribosomal function

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Role of "culture" in diagnosing bacterial infections?

It identifies the type of bacteria causing the infection

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Type of bacteria likely cause skin infections?

Gram-positive

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Antibiotic type disrupts bacterial DNA synthesis?

Fluoroquinolones

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Study Notes

Module 1

  • Nurses require a strong understanding of basic math in pharmacology to prevent medication errors and ensure safe dosage calculations
  • Excretion of a drug is not a factor influencing drug absorption
  • The 'first pass effect' refers to the metabolism of orally administered drugs by the liver and intestines before reaching systemic circulation
  • Understanding fractions, decimals, and ratios is crucial in healthcare, especially for dosage calculations because many medications/dosages use fractional or decimal formats
  • Bioavailability is the amount of drug that remains active and circulates in the bloodstream after administration
  • The "right diagnosis" is not one of the 10 Rights of Medication Administration
  • Polypharmacy refers to the simultaneous use of multiple medications by a patient, often leading to adverse effects
  • Insulin is considered a high-alert medication due to the significant risk of patient harm if used in error
  • When calculating medication dosages, the first decimal place to the right of the decimal point is called "Tenths"
  • Increased metabolic rate is not typically considered when adjusting medication dosages for older adults
  • Pharmacodynamics involves the physiological effects of a drug on the body
  • A 'prodrug' is a medication that is metabolized into an active form once inside the body

Module 3

  • The primary function of autonomic nervous system (ANS) drugs is to regulate involuntary body functions such as heart rate and digestion
  • Acetylcholine is primarily associated with the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)
  • A cholinergic agonist mimics the effects of acetylcholine, triggering a "rest and digest" response
  • Metoprolol is an example of a beta-adrenergic blocker
  • Adrenergic agonists stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, causing a "fight or flight" response
  • Atropine is used to treat bradycardia and works by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system
  • In drug calculations, "desired dose" refers to the amount of medication the patient is supposed to receive
  • The most common error associated with medication orders is incorrect transcription
  • An adrenergic antagonist blocks adrenergic receptors, preventing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
  • Bethanechol is classified as a cholinergic agonist
  • The administration of anticholinergic drugs can result in side effects like dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention
  • Epinephrine is the most appropriate first-line drug for treating a severe anaphylactic reaction
  • "BID" means take medication twice a day, in the context of a prescription for Metoprolol 50 mg PO BID
  • Acetylcholine activates the parasympathetic nervous system by acting on nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
  • Adrenergic agonists can stimulate a "fight or flight" response by activating adrenergic receptors
  • The beta-1 adrenergic receptor is primarily responsible for increasing heart rate
  • When calculating a dosage using the formula method, "Q" represents the quantity available on hand
  • Anticholinergic drugs mainly block acetylcholine receptors, inhibiting parasympathetic activity
  • A nurse administering atenolol should hold the medication if the patient's heart rate is 58 bpm
  • Bradycardia is a side effect of beta-adrenergic blockers

Module 4

  • The primary function of antibiotics in antimicrobial therapy is to target bacterial infections
  • A Culture and sensitivity test helps determine the most effective antibiotic for an infection
  • A broad-spectrum antibiotic targets both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • A key risk associated with broad-spectrum antibiotics is an increased risk of superinfection
  • A common side effect of antibiotics, when a patient does not complete the full course, is the development of drug-resistant bacteria
  • Escherichia coli is a bacteria commonly associated with antibiotic resistance
  • Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis as the antibiotic's mechanism of action
  • A bactericidal antibiotic kills the bacteria
  • Cephalosporins should be avoided if a patient is allergic to penicillin
  • Aminoglycosides affect bacteria by inhibiting ribosomal function
  • A "culture" identifies the type of bacteria causing the infection in diagnosing bacterial infections
  • Gram-positive bacteria are most likely to cause skin infections
  • Bactericidal drugs kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic drugs inhibit bacterial growth
  • Penicillin is classified as a beta-lactam antibiotic
  • Completing a full course of antibiotics is important to avoid developing antibiotic resistance
  • Diarrhea is associated with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection and can occur after antibiotic use
  • A "narrow-spectrum" antibiotic targets a specific subset of bacterial pathogens
  • An important nursing consideration for a patient on antibiotics is monitoring for allergic reactions, such as hives and anaphylaxis
  • Fluoroquinolones disrupt bacterial DNA synthesis
  • A tuberculin syringe should be used for administering a small dose of an antibiotic less than 1 mL

Module 5

  • Biguanides (Metformin) are the preferred first-line treatment for Type 2 Diabetes
  • Insulin promotes the uptake of glucose into cells
  • Rapid-acting insulin (Lispro) has the fastest onset of action
  • Regular insulin can be administered intravenously in emergency situations
  • Using tuberculin syringes instead of insulin syringes is a common medication error related to insulin administration
  • A key nursing consideration when administering metformin in clients undergoing imaging with contrast media is to hold metformin on the day of the test and for 48 hours afterward
  • Regular Insulin is clear and should appear colorless upon inspection before administration
  • The peak action time for short-acting insulin is 2-3 hours
  • A sliding scale insulin regimen typically uses rapid-acting or short-acting insulin
  • Glucagon stimulates the liver to release glucose to treat hypoglycemia
  • Levothyroxine is commonly used for thyroid hormone replacement in clients with hypothyroidism
  • Propylthiouracil (PTU) is primarily indicated for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
  • Tachycardia is a key symptom of hyperthyroidism
  • When administering antithyroid medications like Propylthiouracil (PTU), it is important to monitor for signs of liver dysfunction
  • Cold intolerance and weight gain are clinical signs of hypothyroidism
  • Iodine is a necessary dietary element for the synthesis of thyroid hormones T3 and T4
  • A major complication of untreated hypothyroidism during pregnancy is fetal developmental issues
  • Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
  • It typically takes 3-6 weeks for Levothyroxine to show full effects in treating hypothyroidism
  • The negative feedback loop in thyroid hormone regulation inhibits further secretion of thyroid hormones when levels are adequate

Module 6

  • Heparin inhibits clotting factors Xa and IIa
  • Heparin is classified as an anticoagulant
  • A situation for heparin use is to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
  • A serious adverse effect of heparin is thrombocytopenia
  • Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose
  • Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the most commonly monitored lab test on heparin therapy
  • A history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is a contraindication when administering heparin
  • 10,000 units/mL is the strength of heparin used for subcutaneous administration to prevent DVT
  • Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) has a longer half-life and fewer dosing errors compared to unfractionated heparin
  • Heparin is classified as a "high-alert" medication because it carries a significant risk of causing serious harm or death

Routine Immunizations

  • Acquired (adaptive) immunity is developed through vaccination
  • A live attenuated vaccine uses a weakened form of the pathogen
  • Transfer of antibodies from mother to child through breast milk is an example of passive immunity
  • Booster vaccinations prolong immunity by increasing antibody titers
  • Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis (Tdap) vaccine is safe to administer during pregnancy
  • Elderly individuals require more frequent vaccinations to boost immunity
  • An antigen triggers the body's immune response within a vaccine
  • Immunocompromised conditions is a contraindication for the administration of live attenuated vaccines
  • Toxoid is composed of a toxin produced by a bacterium
  • Recording the lot number of a vaccine when administering it is important for safety tracking in case of a recall or adverse event

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Description

Important pharmacology concepts for nurses, including drug absorption, bioavailability, and the 'first pass effect'. Covers essential math skills like fractions, decimals, and dosage calculations. Also covers the concept of polypharmacy and high-alert medications.

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