Pharmacodynamics: Agonists and Antagonists

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following best describes the action of an agonist?

  • Binds to a receptor and produces a signal that opposes the normal response.
  • Inhibits the production of receptors.
  • Binds to a receptor and produces a strong signal transduction, leading to a maximum response. (correct)
  • Binds to a receptor but produces no signal, leading to no response.

A drug that binds to a receptor but produces a weaker signal transduction and a submaximal response is known as what?

  • Antagonist
  • Partial agonist (correct)
  • Agonist
  • Inverse agonist

What is the primary action of an antagonist?

  • To bind to a receptor without producing a signal or response. (correct)
  • To bind to a receptor and trigger a response.
  • To increase the number of available receptors.
  • To cause the receptor to produce an opposite effect.

An inverse agonist has what effect?

<p>It binds to the receptor and causes an opposite effect. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes pharmacodynamics?

<p>What the drug does to the body, including the drug's mechanism of action and effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What determines the 'affinity' in the context of drug-receptor interactions?

<p>The strength of attraction between a ligand and its receptor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following directly interacts with GABAa receptors to enhance sedation?

<p>Benzodiazepine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does flumazenil have on sedation related to benzodiazepines?

<p>Stops sedation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do antacids work to neutralize stomach acid?

<p>Through chemical reactions that neutralize gastric acid. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of Lactulose in treating constipation?

<p>It works through a physical means, drawing water into the intestine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of receptor is known for being the fastest-acting?

<p>Ligand-gated ion channels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are intracellular receptors typically located?

<p>Within the cytoplasm or nucleus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)?

<p>They activate intracellular signaling pathways through G proteins. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of GTP in the activation of G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)?

<p>It binds to the G protein, causing it to dissociate and activate downstream effectors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the enzyme phosphodiesterase play in GPCR signaling?

<p>It breaks down cAMP, reducing its concentration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which second messenger is produced by adenylyl cyclase?

<p>cAMP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Gq protein primarily activates which enzyme?

<p>Phospholipase C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What second messengers are generated when Phospholipase C (PLC) acts on PIP2?

<p>IP3 and DAG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of IP3 in cellular signaling?

<p>To trigger the release of calcium from intracellular stores (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does bicuculline act on GABAa receptors?

<p>As a competitive antagonist. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antagonism is exemplified by using protamine sulfate to counteract heparin toxicity?

<p>Chemical antagonism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of antagonism best describes the use of activated charcoal in the treatment of heavy metal poisoning?

<p>Physical antagonism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of antagonism is observed when adrenaline counters the effects of histamine?

<p>Physiological antagonism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct outcome of JAK-STAT pathway activation?

<p>Activation of transcription and modulation of the immune response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The activation of RTKs (Receptor Tyrosine Kinases) typically leads to:

<p>Phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on intracellular proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of HSP90 in the context of intracellular receptors?

<p>It maintains the receptor in an inactive state until a ligand binds. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Dose-Response Curve (DRC) illustrate?

<p>The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between graded and quantal dose-response curves?

<p>Graded responses are continuous, while quantal responses are all-or-nothing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a steep slope in a Dose-Response Curve (DRC) typically indicate?

<p>A small increase in dose can cause a large change in response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a drug has a high Therapeutic Index (TI), what does that imply?

<p>The drug is safe because there is a large difference between effective and toxic doses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does flumazenil act as an antagonist to diazepam?

<p>By competing with diazepam for the same binding site on the GABAa receptor. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Type A Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) from Type B ADRs?

<p>Type A ADRs are predictable and dose-dependent, while Type B ADRs are unpredictable and not dose-dependent. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of adverse drug reaction is often associated with withdrawal symptoms upon cessation of the drug?

<p>Type E (End of treatment) ADR (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by an 'iatrogenic' adverse drug reaction?

<p>An adverse reaction caused by a medical examination or treatment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pregnancy categories, what does Category X indicate?

<p>The drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to significant risks. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pharmacological effect describes the combined effect of two drugs that is greater than the sum of their individual effects?

<p>Synergistic effect (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the term for a rapid decrease in response to a drug after repeated administration over a short period?

<p>Tachyphylaxis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does 'downregulation' of receptors affect the cell's response to a drug?

<p>It decreases the cell's sensitivity to the drug. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of clinical trials is the drug tested in a small group of healthy volunteers to evaluate its safety, dosage range, and side effects?

<p>Phase I (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In clinical trials, what is the primary goal of Phase II?

<p>To evaluate the drug's efficacy and side effects in a larger group of patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs in Phase IV of clinical trials?

<p>Post-market surveillance to monitor for rare or long-term adverse effects. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is pharmacogenetics?

<p>The study of how genetic variations affect an individual's response to drugs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

People with a deficiency in Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) are at risk of hemolytic anemia when exposed to which drug?

<p>Chloroquine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Pharmacodynamics

The study of what the drug does to the body, including drug-receptor interactions, signal transduction, and effects.

Agonist

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a strong signal, leading to a maximal response.

Partial Agonist

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a comparatively weak signal, leading to a submaximal response.

Antagonist

A drug that binds to a receptor but produces no signal and no response.

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Inverse Agonist

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces an opposite signal and an opposite response.

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Receptor

A protein that binds to ligands, initiating a biological response.

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Ligand Binding Site

The site on a receptor where a ligand binds.

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Affinity

Attraction between a ligand and a receptor.

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Antacids

Drug action without receptor interaction; produces a chemical reaction.

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Lactulose

Drug action without receptor interaction, acts by physical means.

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Cell Surface Receptor

Receptors located on the cell membrane or cell surface.

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Intracellular Receptor

Receptors located inside the cell.

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Cytoplasmic Receptor

Receptors located in the cytoplasm.

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Nuclear Receptor

Receptors located in the nucleus.

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Ligand Gated Ion Channel

Receptors that are ion channels, activated by ligand binding; fastest acting.

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GPCR

Receptors that are metabotropic, spanning the membrane seven times; also known as serpentine receptors.

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Enzyme Linked Receptor

Receptors linked to enzymes, such as receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK).

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Dose-Response Curve

A dose-response curve with a hyperbolic or sigmoidal shape

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Adverse Reaction

A reaction from the body to a drug that is harmful and unwanted

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Type A ADR

Adverse drug reactions that depend on dose and are predictable.

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Type B ADR

Adverse drug reactions that are dose-independent and not predictable..

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Chronic Drug Use

Using a drug for a long time, but the treatment isn't finished yet.

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Delayed Drug Effect

Using a drug for a long time may cause cancer.

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End of Treatment Effects

Stopping a drug suddenly after long use can cause adverse effects.

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Tolerance

Decreased response to a drug after repeated use.

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Resistance

Loss of drug effectiveness due to improper use.

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Iatrogenic cause

Drug induced by doctor.

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Dependdence

Cause deprivation of response.

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Addiction

Dependence with withdrawal symptoms.

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Synergistic Drug Interaction

Combination drug action where the total effect is greater than the sum of individual effects.

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Supra-additive

Combination drug action where one drug enhances the effect of another.

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Antidote

A drug that binds to a receptor, prevent it from signaling, used to treat Heparin toxicity

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Tachyphylaxis

Reduction in drug response after repeated doses over a short time.

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Tolerance

Decreased drug response due to long term exposure.

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Down Regulation

Receptors become less responsive due to prolonged exposure to an agonist.

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Up Regulation

Receptors become more responsive due to prolonged absence of agonist stimulation.

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Clinical Trials

Animal studies, review, application.

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Clinical Trials - Phase 1

Tests medicine saftey and side effects and the number of patients are between 20-80.

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Clinical Trials - Phase 2

Tests the effectivness and the number of patients ranges between 50-500.

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Clinical Trials - Phase 3

Tests medicine effectivness and moniters side and the sample size it is between 500-300.

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Study Notes

Pharmacodynamics

  • Concerns what a drug does to the body.

Agonist

  • A drug plus a receptor results in the drug-receptor complex, which leads to strong signal transduction and a maximum response.

Partial Agonist

  • A drug plus a receptor results in the drug-receptor complex, leading to comparatively weak signal transduction and a submaximal response.

Antagonist

  • A drug plus a receptor results in the drug-receptor complex, leading to no signal and no response.

Inverse Agonist

  • A drug plus a receptor results in the drug-receptor complex, leading to an opposite signal and an opposite response.

Receptor Definition

  • A receptor is a protein with a ligand-binding site.
  • Affinity is the attraction between a ligand and a receptor.

Drug Examples

  • Benzodiazepine plus GABA-A results in 100% sedation.
  • Pipenidine-4-sulphonic acid plus GABA-A results in approximately 15-70% sedation.
  • Flumazenil plus GABA-A stops sedation.
  • B-carboline plus GABA-A causes awakening.
  • GABA stands for gamma-amino-butyric acid.

Drugs Producing Effects Without Receptor Interaction

  • Antacids cause a chemical reaction.
  • Lactulose causes a physical reaction and is a purgative.
  • Hydrochloric acid (HCl) + Al(OH)3 combines to create AlCl3 + H2O
  • Hydrochloric acid (HCl) + NaOH combines to create NaCl + H2O

Receptor Types

  • Location determines receptor type.
  • Cell membrane or cell surface receptors exist.
  • Intracellular receptors are either cytoplasmic or nuclear.
  • Ligand-gated ion channels or ionotropic receptors exist and are the fastest-acting receptors.
  • Examples of ligand-gated ion channels include GABA-A and Nicotinic-R.
  • GPCRs (Metabotropic or 7-pass transmembrane or serpentine receptors) exist.
  • Enzyme-linked receptors exist.
  • RTKs (Receptor Tyrosine Kinase) is an enzyme-linked receptor.
  • Jak-stat (Janus kinase) is an enzyme-linked receptor and is a signal transducer and activator of transcription.

GPCR Details

  • GTP becomes GTP-ase (phosphatase).
  • Phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP.
  • Pka is deactivated by protein phosphatase.
  • Gs = *B1-adrenergic-R (Heart)
  • Gi = *M2-cholinergic-R

Ga Details

  • PIP2 is phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate.
  • DAG is diacylglycerol.
  • IP3 is inositol triphosphate.
  • M3-cholinergic-R is found in the lungs.
  • Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist.
  • Bicuculline is a non-competitive antagonist.
  • Heparin toxicity can be treated with protamine sulfate (a chemical antagonist).
  • Heavy metal poisoning can be treated with activated charcoal (a physical antagonist and physiological antagonist).
  • H1 + Histamine
  • X1 + Adrenaline (physiological antagonist)

JAK-Stat Cascade

  • Begins with P-JAK adding a P to Stat
  • Separated P-Stat molecules bind and form P-S-S-P
  • P-S-S-P activates transcription and causes a cell to elicit a response, such as cell growth or repair.

Enzyme-Linked Receptors (RTK)

  • PIP adding a P becomes PIP3
  • PIP3 activates P13K (-SH2)
  • Activates DNA functions, such as cell growth, proliferation, or cell repair.
  • Activation of PDK-1 results in response.
  • GBR2 + P (-SH2) -> SOS
  • Activation of cytoskeletal protein
  • Results in translocation of transporter and activation of glycogen synthase

Intracellular Receptors

  • Inactive intracellular is bound by HSP-90
  • Active intracellular receptor travels to the nucleus

DRC (Dose Response Curve)

  • Sigmoid Curve
  • Hyperbola shape DRC

Response Types

  • There is Graded Response
  • There is Quantal Response
  • Lethal response
  • Toxic response
  • Therapeutic Response
  • Sub therapeutic Response

Therapeutic Index

  • Measured as ED, TD, or LD.
  • A higher therapeutic index results in a safer drug.
  • A lower therapeutic index results in a less safe drug.
  • TI (Human) = TD50 / ED50
  • TI (Animal) = LD50 / ED50

Dose-Response Curve Slopes

  • Flat DRC indicates Benzodiazepine
  • Steep DRC indicates Barbiturates

Diazepam

  • Potency = A=C>B, Efficacy = A = B > C
  • Flumazenil is a competetive antagonist of Diazepam.
    • Blocks same site.
  • Bicuculline is a non-competitive antagonist of Diazepam
    • Binds a different site.

Adverse Drug Reactions (ADR)

  • Harmful effects of drugs that are unwanted.
  • Type A (Augmented) ADRs are dose-dependent and predictable.
  • Antihypertensives can cause hypotension when an increased dose is taken.
  • Type B (Bizzaine) ADRs are dose-independent and not predictable.
  • Penicillin or Sulfonamide allergies occur.
  • Type C (Chronic) ADRs occur when using a drug for a long time, and the course of treatment is not finished.
    • Glucocorticoids can cause immunosuppression.
  • Type D (Delayed) ADRs occur when using a drug for a long time, and the course of treatment is finished
  • Anticancer therapy can cause cancer.
  • Cisplatin is carcinogenic or mutagenic.
  • Type E (End of treatment) ADRs occur when a drug is used for a long time and then stopped, and immediately after the treatment, can cause adverse effects.
    • PPI can cause rebound hyperacidity.
    • Withdrawal symptoms are observed.
  • Type F (Failure of treatment) ADRs are tolerance on resistance of a drug because of improper use or abuse.
    • Antibiotic resistance or Drug tolerance occurs.
  • Iatrogenic ADRs are drug-induced by a doctor.
    • NSAIDs cause gastric Acidity.
  • Chronic or End of Treatment ADRs
    • Dependence is caused by deprivation of response
      • Sleeping pills
    • Addiction is dependence with withdrawl symptoms
      • Narcotics Cocaine, pethidine, Morphine

Drug Pregnancy Categories

  • Category A Drugs are completely safe when tested in studies.
    • Levothyroxine, Paracetamol, vitamin-E, Folic Acid
  • Category B Drugs are safe from animal testin studies only.
    • Pantoprazole, a-Methyldopa (Antihypertensive)
  • Category C drugs pose more Benefits than Risks
    • Omeprazole, Nifedipine, domperidone
  • Category D drugs pose more risks than benefits.
    • Lisinopril, Losartan, valporic Acid
  • Category X drugs are contraindicated, possess the highest risks
    • Anticancer drugs, Thalidomide (most risky)

Topics

  • Combination of drugs synergistics (Additives, supradditives)
    • Antagonistic
  • Clinical trials (Phases)
  • Tolerance
    • Tachyphylaxis
  • Receptor up-regulation, down-regulation
    • Sensitization, (desensitization, Resensitization Supersentization).
  • Pharmacogenetics

Drug Combinations

  • Synergistic:
    • Additive: 1+1=2
      • Amlopidine + Atenolol = Antihypertensive Action
      • Aspirin + Paracetamol = Analgesic & Antipyretics
    • Supra-additive (Potentiation): 1+1 = 3
      • Penicillin + streptomycin = More strong Antibacterial Action
      • Levodopa + Carbidopa/Berseride = Better anti parkinson Management
  • Antagonistic 1+1>1 - Calcium + Tetracycline = Chetation - Absorption (↓)

Tolerance + Tachyphylaxis

  • Development of counter regulatory Mechanisms Subtherapeutic Action.
  • Tolerance in case of AMA is known as resistance.
    • Acquired:
      • Pharmacokinetics tolerance
      • Pharmacodynamics tolranc
      • Phenobarbital Induce the microsomal enzyme:
        • Decreases Inactivate Fast
  • Cross tolerance:
    • Chronic Alcoholic persons can't - get proper effect of general Anasthirsia, sleeping Pills. - Ex:- Partial - Morphine & Barbiturates. - Complete - Morphine & Pethidine

Down regulation

Arrestine

  • Agonist = Longer time High Dose
  • Down Regulation: - Receptor endocytosis (Internalization)
  • Up Regulation Supersentization
  • Antagonist = Longer time High Dose

Drug Responses

  • Tolerance Response: - Dose Required - Is Normal - Duration of Drug is Longer - Lower Pharamacological Action - To Reverse/ Restore Require - Higher Drug Dosage

  • Tachyphylaxixs Repsonse: - Dose Required: - High Dose -Duration - Short Peroid - Lower Pharamacological Action

Clinical Trials:

  • IND application
    • New Drug Submission - Approval of submission for new study - Done by animal studies (3-4 years, with good results) - Application for NDA/BLA licensing - Phase Zero - (Micro-Dose levels for effects) - Phase 1 - (To Phase Infinity)

Drug Phase Tests:

  • Drug Testing Type: - I Phase Test: - Sample Sizes = 10-100, or 20-80 tests (asian) - Type of Sample = Healthy People - Objective: saftey tolerability - Types of Study = open table - Duration: month - 1 year - Success Rate: ~50% - II Phase Test: -Sample Sizees: = 50-500 -Type of Samples: = Patients -Objective = Proof of Concept -Type of Sutdy = open/blind/single/double/ etc. -Duration - 1-2 years -Success Rate - ~25-30% - III Phase Test - Samples Size = 500-3000 - Types of Samples = Many Patients -Objectives = Efficacy + Conformation - Types of Studies - open + Blind - Duration = 3-5 years - Success Rate = ~50% - IV Phase Test: - Samples: patients on markets - Samples Types: Patients - Objectives - Long term side effects, rare of side effects - Types = Opento patients - Duration = continous porcess - SR =N/A

Pharmacogenitics:

   - Asian
   - Found in: South East Regions, Africans Regions, Areas people generally lack
           - G6PD - GLucose -6- phosphate dehydrogenase
    - Result
            - High Amounts of Free Radicals
           - Not Chloroquinine
           -  If drugs are taken (that cause this) -> hemolytic anemia 
                   - quinidine nitrofurantoin
                   - Sulfonamide - Dapsone
                   - Chloroquinolone - ciprofloxacine

Respitory Test:

   - 2 Endo trancheal:
           - Intubation - Succinly Choline Used
           - Pseudo
                   → Not Motabolized
                            → Apnea

Acteyl tests

    - Acetyl conjucation:
            - Testing For -> ACTEYL TRANSFERASE &  NAT2
             - If more Active
                 --> faster aceltater
                          --> Therapeutuic Faliure
             - IF Less ACtive :
                 --> slower Acetloter
                         -> results in Toxicity

Muscle Tests

     - Halothone is an test (inhilation = Anasethitics)
      - Abnormal
            - Ryonide Test ->Active(DAPR)
            -Increase to cause + Cat Realease
                   -- Rigity Muscule
                           --> Malignant Hypothermia
       -Antidote for test
            -. Dantrolene

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