Personal and Subject Matter Jurisdiction

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Questions and Answers

The concept of fairness for the exercise of jurisdiction over a defendant is the core concept.

True (A)

What are the two types of personal jurisdiction?

  • In rem and In personam (correct)
  • Limited and Unlimited
  • Federal and State
  • General and Specific

Which of these is NOT a factor considered in fairness when determining whether personal jurisdiction is reasonable?

  • The defendant's ability to exercise control over someone or something? (correct)
  • The forum state's interest in providing redress for its residents
  • The plaintiff's interest in obtaining convenient and fair relief
  • The defendant's interest in being able to defend the case in the forum state

What is the primary purpose of a long-arm statute?

<p>To allow a court to exercise jurisdiction over a defendant who does not reside in the forum state, but has certain minimum contacts with the state.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the minimum contacts test, what are the two main factors to consider when deciding if personal jurisdiction is appropriate?

<p>The level of purposeful availment and the relatedness of the defendant's contacts to the claim (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant's level of purposeful availment is considered when evaluating both general and specific personal jurisdiction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant who is 'at home' in the forum state can be sued there for any claim, even if it arises outside the state.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The stream of commerce test is a method for establishing general personal jurisdiction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating foreseeability in determining personal jurisdiction, a defendant merely needs to be aware that being sued in a specific state was possible.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A court can exercise personal jurisdiction over a defendant based solely on the quality of their contacts with the forum state, even if they are not sufficiently related to the plaintiff's claim.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor considered when determining whether a court's exercise of personal jurisdiction is fair?

<p>The defendant's ability to serve as a juror in the forum state (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant can waive personal jurisdiction even if they would not otherwise be subject to it.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant can only challenge a lack of personal jurisdiction by filing a motion to dismiss.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the court's authority to hear a particular type of case.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Federal courts have unlimited subject matter jurisdiction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of subject matter jurisdiction?

<p>International jurisdiction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under federal question jurisdiction, what must the plaintiff's claim clearly raise?

<p>A claim arising under the Constitution, a U.S. treaty, or federal law (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Mottley case established that a federal question cannot arise out of a predicted defense or counterclaim.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A substantial federal issue always requires resolution of a major issue of federal law.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Diversity jurisdiction is the primary basis for federal court jurisdiction over cases involving claims arising under state law.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Complete diversity requires that no plaintiff and defendant share the same citizenship.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A plaintiff's citizenship is determined at the time they file their lawsuit.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person's citizenship for diversity jurisdiction is determined by their residence, regardless of their intent to remain.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A corporation's citizenship for diversity jurisdiction purposes is limited to the state of incorporation.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Supplemental jurisdiction allows federal courts to hear claims that are not independently based on federal question or diversity jurisdiction, as long as they arise out of the same transaction or occurrence as a claim that does have federal jurisdiction.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Removal jurisdiction allows a defendant to move a case from state court to federal court, as long as the case could have been originally filed in federal court.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant can only remove a case to federal court if it involves a federal question, not diversity jurisdiction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A plaintiff can always challenge subject matter jurisdiction by filing a motion to dismiss.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Erie Doctrine primarily applies to cases involving federal question jurisdiction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Federal courts generally apply state substantive law in diversity cases.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Procedural law dictates how a case will be interpreted, while substantive law dictates how the case will be heard.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Erie Doctrine applies to cases involving the following: international relations, admiralty and maritime claims, and federal questions.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The guided Erie track applies when there is a direct conflict between federal and state law, while the unguided Erie track applies when there is no clear conflict or doubt.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key consideration in the outcome determinative test under the Erie Doctrine?

<p>Whether the application of federal law would significantly affect the outcome of the case (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two prongs of the twin aims of Erie, which guide federal courts when applying state law?

<p>The outcome determinative effect and the balance of interests (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Venue is primarily about the geographic location of a lawsuit.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A plaintiff can only bring a case in a district where the defendant resides.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Convenience is the main factor considered when determining the most appropriate venue.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A corporation can be sued in any federal district where it has a registered agent.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant can only waive venue if they consent to it in writing.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Forum non conveniens allows a court to dismiss a case if there is a more convenient forum for the lawsuit, even if the court has proper personal jurisdiction over the parties.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Service of process involves the delivery of a summons and a complaint to the defendant.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Actual notice, where the defendant receives direct personal service of process, is always the only acceptable method of service.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Sniadach case established that the government can never deprive a person of property without due process of law.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor considered in the Matthew's balancing test for evaluating due process?

<p>The defendant's financial resources (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A complaint is the initial pleading filed by the plaintiff, outlining the case.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Twombly and Iqbal cases established the plausibility standard for pleading.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Swanson case established the requirement for pleading facts with particularity in cases involving fraud.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A defendant's answer can only admit, deny, or assert a counterclaim.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A plaintiff can only amend their complaint once.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rule 11 sanctions are intended to punish parties who bring frivolous claims.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Zielinski case demonstrates that defendants are never held liable for mistakes made by the plaintiff in naming the wrong defendant, even if the right defendant had reason to know about the lawsuit.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Ingraham case stands for the principle that defendants cannot introduce unexpected defenses in their answer, and they must raise all possible defenses in their initial pleading.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Kraemer case demonstrates that attorneys are always subject to sanctions if their conduct in filing a lawsuit is later deemed sanctionable after discovery.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The King case highlights the importance of carefully researching and scrutinizing any allegations before filing a lawsuit, to avoid sanctionable actions.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Joinder allows parties to join two or more claims or parties together in a lawsuit.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A counterclaim is considered compulsory if it arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the original claim, meaning it must always be asserted, or else the defendant waives the right to bring it later.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A permissive counterclaim allows the defendant to bring any claim against the plaintiff, even if it's unrelated to the main claim.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A cross-claim is a claim brought by one defendant against another defendant in the same lawsuit, but only if it arises from the same transaction or occurrence.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A plaintiff can only join another plaintiff if they are both involved in the same transaction.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compulsory joinder requires a plaintiff to join any necessary or indispensable party to the lawsuit.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Temple case demonstrates that a court must always proceed with a lawsuit, even if a necessary party cannot be joined.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Impleader allows a defendant to bring in a third party who may be liable to the defendant, but not to the plaintiff.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Impleader is generally used when the defendant seeks to recover money from the third party.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Intervention allows a third party to join a lawsuit as a plaintiff, claiming that they have a legal interest that will be harmed if they are not joined.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Interpleader allows a plaintiff to deposit a fund or asset with the court, which is then distributed to the rightful claimants.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Rule 42 allows courts to separate a lawsuit into multiple trials, if it becomes too confusing to handle them at once.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Discovery is the process where parties exchange information to prepare for trial.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The work product doctrine only applies to materials prepared by the client.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Hickman case demonstrates that an attorney's mental impressions are never discoverable under the work product doctrine.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Upjohn case established that the work product doctrine does not protect materials prepared by employees of a corporation, only those prepared by the corporation's officers.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A party can only seek discovery of materials that are relevant to the claims or defenses in the lawsuit.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A court will always compel discovery, as long as the information requested is proportional to the needs of the case.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A protective order prevents the disclosure of otherwise discoverable information, to protect a party from harm.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Personal Jurisdiction

A court's power to exercise control over a person or thing.

In Rem Jurisdiction

Jurisdiction over property itself. The lawsuit focuses on the property.

In Personam Jurisdiction

Jurisdiction over a person or company. The lawsuit targets the individual.

Domicile

A defendant has a permanent home in the state where the lawsuit is filed. This gives the court jurisdiction.

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Tag Jurisdiction (Burnham v. Superior Court)

A court has jurisdiction over a defendant if they are physically present in the state and served with legal papers.

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Consent Jurisdiction

A defendant consents to jurisdiction by agreeing to do business in the state or appearing in court without objection.

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Long Arm Statute

A state law that allows courts to exercise jurisdiction over certain non-residents if they have minimum contacts with the state.

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Minimum Contacts

A defendant must have sufficient minimum contacts with the state to justify the court's jurisdiction.

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Purposeful Availment

Did the defendant intentionally benefit from the state's laws, resources, or advantages?

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Foreseeability

A defendant must have reasonably anticipated that they could be sued in the state.

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Relatedness

The defendant's contacts with the state must be related to the lawsuit. This is a key factor in determining General vs. Specific jurisdiction.

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General Jurisdiction

Jurisdiction over a defendant for all types of lawsuits, even those unrelated to their contacts with the state. Requires substantial and continuous contacts within the state.

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Specific Jurisdiction

Jurisdiction over a defendant limited to specific lawsuits related to their contacts with the state. Requires less of a connection to the state.

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Fairness

The exercise of jurisdiction must be fair. Courts consider several factors to determine fairness.

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Subject Matter Jurisdiction

A court's power to hear a specific type of case.

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Federal Court Jurisdiction

Federal courts are limited to certain types of claims, while state courts have broader jurisdiction.

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Federal Question Jurisdiction

A federal court has jurisdiction over cases that involve a violation of the US Constitution, federal law, or treaties.

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Well-Pleaded Complaint Rule

A claim must clearly arise from a federal issue for the court to have federal question jurisdiction.

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Diversity Jurisdiction

Federal courts have jurisdiction over lawsuits between citizens of different states if the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000.

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Supplemental Jurisdiction

Allows federal courts to hear additional claims related to the main claim, even if those claims wouldn't normally be heard in federal court.

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Removal Jurisdiction

Allows a defendant to move a lawsuit from state court to federal court if it could have originally been filed in federal court.

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Erie Doctrine

The doctrine that determines whether federal courts should apply state law or federal law in diversity cases.

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Procedural Law

The rules by which a case is heard, like deadlines and procedures for filing documents.

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Substantive Law

Rules about legal rights and obligations, like elements of a crime or a contract.

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State Substantive Law

A federal court should apply state substantive law when the law is related to the elements of the claim, statute of limitations, choice of law, or tolling.

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Federal Substantive Law

A federal court should apply federal substantive law when the case involves federal questions, the government is a party, or international relations, maritime, or admiralty issues.

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Venue

The geographical location where a lawsuit can be filed.

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Venue Transfer

If a case is filed in a venue that is not proper, it can be transferred to a more appropriate court.

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Forum Non Conveniens

A doctrine that allows a court to dismiss a case if there is a more appropriate court to hear it, even if the current court has jurisdiction.

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Service of Process

The means by which a defendant is officially notified of a lawsuit.

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Complaint

The initial pleading filed by the plaintiff, laying out the basis of the lawsuit.

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Answer

The defendant's response to the complaint, admitting or denying the allegations and raising any defenses.

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Counterclaim

A claim filed by a defendant against the plaintiff.

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Crossclaim

A claim by a party against a co-party in the same lawsuit.

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Motion to Dismiss (Rule 12(b)(6))

A motion to dismiss a case because the plaintiff does not state a claim upon which relief can be granted.

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Motion for Summary Judgment

A motion asking the court to enter judgment in favor of the moving party based on a lack of genuine dispute as to material facts.

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Study Notes

Personal Jurisdiction

  • Courts ability to exert control over someone or something
  • Core concept is fairness for a court to exercise jurisdiction over a defendant
  • Types:
    • In rem: Property is the subject
    • In personam:
      • Domicile: Defendant maintains permanent residence in the forum state
      • Tag: Defendant consents by appearing in court and not objecting to jurisdiction
      • Consent: Defendant agrees to do business within the state (Mallory v. Norfolk Southern, Burger King)
      • Long Arm Statute: Allows jurisdiction over defendants if other methods don't apply
        • Requirements must satisfy due process:
          • Minimum contacts with the forum state, continuous and systematic
            • Factors: defendant's purposeful availment, benefits of forum state
  • Unlimited Jurisdiction: Follows constitutional requirements for due process
  • Limited Jurisdiction: More restricted

Subject Matter Jurisdiction

  • Courts authority to hear a specific type of claim
  • Types of subject matter jurisdiction:
    • Federal question jurisdiction: Claim arises from the U.S. Constitution, treaty, or federal law
      • Plaintiff's claim must clearly establish a federal question
      • Federal issue is substantial, not just a predicted defense or counterclaim
    • Diversity jurisdiction: Complete diversity between parties, minimum amount in controversy
      • Complete diversity: Plaintiffs and defendants must be from different states
      • Minimum amount in controversy: Must be more than $75,000

Supplemental Jurisdiction

  • Allows courts to hear claims that don't independently meet subject matter jurisdiction requirements, if they share a common nucleus of operative fact with the original claim

Removal Jurisdiction

  • Moving a case from state court to federal court
  • Defendant can remove if: -Federal court has original jurisdiction -There is a federal question or diversity jurisdiction established
  • Defendant is agreeable to removal

Erie Doctrine

  • In diversity cases, federal courts must apply state substantive law, and federal procedural law
  • Exceptions: Federal law directly conflicts with state law, then federal law applies

Venue

  • Determining the proper federal judicial district for a lawsuit
  • Proper venue considerations: Defendant's residence, substantial part of the claim arose, plaintiff's subject to personal jurisdiction
  • Venue in corporations is determined by the corporation's presence in a particular district

Service of Process

  • Delivery of summons and complaint to the defendant
  • Must be reasonable calculated to notify the defendant

Pleadings

  • Formal statements of the claims and defenses
  • Complaint: Initial pleading by plaintiff, states the grounds for jurisdiction and claim
  • Answer: Defendant's response to the complaint, states defenses

Discovery

  • Process for parties to exchange information, such as depositions, interrogatories, requests for production, and requests for admission
  • Scope: Material is discoverable if it's not privileged and is relevant

Motion for Summary Judgment

  • Requests the court to enter judgment without a trial
  • Burden is on the moving party to show no genuine dispute of material fact exists
  • Court views facts in the light most favorable to the non-moving party

Preclusion (Res Judicata)

  • Claim Preclusion: Prevents relitigation of a claim already litigated and resolved
    • Valid and final judgment on the merits
    • Same parties
    • Same claim (arising from same transaction or occurrence)
  • Issue Preclusion: Prevents relitigation of an issue of fact or law
    • Actually litigated and essential to the judgment
    • Same parties
    • Full and fair opportunity to litigate

Impleader

  • Allows defendant to bring in a third party to be liable
    • Based on derivative liability between two parties
    • Requirements: Must have subject matter jurisdiction

Intervention

  • Third party may seek to join a lawsuit

Interpleader

  • Parties with competing claims can settle in one proceeding

Jury Trial

  • Seventh Amendment: Right to a jury trial in civil cases for legal claims;
  • Jury trials on equitable issues at the discretion of the court

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