Peptic Ulcer Disease and GI Drugs Lecture

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What is the major defensive factor that protects the stomach and duodenum from self-digestion?

Mucus

Where is ulceration most common in cases of peptic ulcer disease?

In the lesser curvature of the stomach and the duodenum

What bacterium is primarily responsible for causing most cases of peptic ulcer disease?

Helicobacter pylori

Which condition can severe ulcers from peptic ulcer disease be complicated by?

Hemorrhage

What serves the physiologic role of neutralizing any hydrogen ions that penetrate the mucus in the stomach and duodenum?

Bicarbonate

What promotes healing and greatly reduces the chance of recurrence in peptic ulcer disease when eradicated?

Helicobacter pylori

Which of the following is NOT considered a major aggressive factor in peptic ulcer disease?

Mucus

What is the role of prostaglandins in the gastrointestinal mucosa?

Promote vasodilation to maintain submucosal blood flow

Why is acid necessary for peptic ulcer formation?

Acid directly injures cells of the GI mucosa

What is the primary cause of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

Tumor secreting gastrin

What effect does smoking have on ulcer healing and recurrence?

Delays healing and increases recurrence risk

What is the primary goal of drug therapy for peptic ulcers?

Relieve symptoms and prevent complications

Why are antibiotics essential in the treatment of peptic ulcers with H.pylori infection?

To eradicate H.pylori and prevent recurrence

What role do PPIs play in the treatment of PUD?

Reduce gastric acidity

How do NSAIDs contribute to ulcer formation?

Inhibit prostaglandin biosynthesis and suppress mucosal defenses

Why is eradication of H.pylori important for ulcer healing?

To minimize ulcer recurrence

How do drugs promote ulcer healing?

By simply creating conditions conducive to healing

What is the recommended treatment for NSAID-induced ulcers?

Any ulcer medication

Which medication is preferred for treating NSAID-induced ulcers when the offending NSAID cannot be discontinued?

PPIs

What is a method to evaluate ulcer healing according to the text?

Monitoring for relief of pain

What is a non-optimal measure for antiulcer therapy based on the text?

Including dietary changes

Which statement is true regarding alcohol consumption and peptic ulcers according to the text?

Alcohol has no effect on peptic ulcers

Which antibiotic is mentioned as highly sensitive to H.pylori in the text?

Amoxicillin

What is a potential side effect of bismuth therapy mentioned in the text?

Black coloration of the tongue and stool

What is the primary cause of changes in the esophageal mucosa in gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Contact of acid stomach contents with the esophageal mucosa

Which factor is NOT mentioned as contributing to transient lower esophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation in severe GERD?

Acid indigestion

What effect does a hiatal hernia have on the occurrence of transient lower esophageal sphincter (LES) relaxations?

Impairs acid emptying from the hernia sack

Which symptom is often associated with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Barrett's esophagitis

Why is referral considered for patients with esophageal reflux who do not respond to medications?

To rule out cancer and Barrett's esophagitis

Which aspect is NOT considered when determining the severity of reflux in gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Eating habits

What is the principal function of the colon?

Absorb water and electrolytes

What is one symptom that helps define constipation?

Excessive straining

What is a common cause of constipation according to the text?

Dysfunction of the pelvic floor

How do laxatives help patients with cardiovascular diseases?

By reducing the need for strain during defecation

What is a contraindication for using laxatives according to the text?

Fecal impaction or bowel obstruction

How can laxatives be beneficial as an adjunct to anthelmintic therapy?

By helping with stool sample analysis

What is the first-line intervention in the management of GERD according to the text?

Elevating the head of the bed and avoiding meals before bedtime

Why was ranitidine taken off the market in April 2020 as mentioned in the text?

Presence of cancer-causing substances in the tablet

What is the next step in pharmacologic management for GERD patients after lifestyle and diet modifications with antacids?

Starting PPI therapy

What is the main concern with prolonged use of PPIs for treating GERD as mentioned in the text?

Risk of hypomagnesemia and community-acquired pneumonia

In pediatric patients with GERD, which medication types are available for treatment according to the text?

Antacids and PPIs

What distinguishes a cathartic effect from a laxative effect as mentioned in the text?

Laxative effect refers to prompt bowel evacuation while catharsis is stool softening

Which group of laxatives is especially useful when the bowel is being prepared for diagnostic procedures or surgery?

Group I

Which laxative group consists of agents that produce a soft but formed stool within 1 to 3 days?

Osmotic laxatives

Which laxative group widely used in patients with diverticulosis and irritable bowel syndrome consists of natural or semisynthetic polysaccharides and celluloses derived from grains and plant materials?

Surfactant laxatives

Which category of laxatives is associated with the potential side effect of esophageal obstruction if swallowed without sufficient fluid?

Bulk-forming laxatives

Laxative salts like sodium phosphate and magnesium hydroxide belong to which group of laxatives that draw water into the intestinal lumen to soften the fecal mass and stimulate peristalsis?

Group III

Which laxative group, acting on the colon to produce a semifluid stool within 6 to 12 hours, is widely used yet has few legitimate applications?

Group II

What is the primary mechanism of action of lubiprostone in promoting bowel movement?

Activating chloride channels

Why are magnesium salts contraindicated in patients with kidney disease?

Magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels

How does sodium phosphate contribute to acute renal failure in some patients?

Causing dehydration and lowering potassium levels

What is the primary function of plecanatide in regulating intestinal fluid secretion?

Activating guanylate cyclase-C

How do PEG-ELS bowel-cleansing solutions differ from sodium phosphate-based ones?

Do not alter water or electrolyte balance

Why are sodium phosphate cleansers contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disease?

They exacerbate heart failure and hypertension

What is the mechanism of action of sodium phosphate as an osmotic laxative?

It softens and swells the fecal mass in the colon.

How do sodium phosphate laxatives differ from PEG-ELS products in terms of adverse effects?

Sodium phosphate products can cause electrolyte imbalances and kidney damage.

What is the purpose of drinking a large volume of clear fluid before, during, and after dosing with sodium phosphate products?

To prevent dehydration caused by the laxative.

What is a potential severe adverse effect associated with sodium phosphate products?

Hyperphosphatemia leading to renal damage

How does Prepopik differ from PEG-ELS products in preparing for colonoscopy?

Prepopik showed superior results in colon preparation compared to PEG-ELS.

What caution should be taken with people using Prepopik or sodium phosphate products?

Use cautiously in individuals with reduced renal function.

What misconception about bowel movements is highlighted in the text?

A daily bowel movement is necessary for good health.

Why do people sometimes habitually self-prescribe laxatives according to the text?

'Tradition supported by advertising' has led to this habit.

What can strong laxatives potentially do to the entire bowel?

Purge it completely

What is one of the potential serious pathologic changes that can result from laxative abuse?

Electrolyte imbalance

Why might a laxative user think that constipation has returned after taking strong laxatives?

As a result of the inability to replenish the bowel content immediately

What is the recommended initial step to break the laxative habit?

Abrupt cessation of laxative use

What effect can chronic exposure to laxatives have on defecatory reflexes?

Decrease in defecatory reflexes

What should patients be informed about regarding bowel movements after abrupt cessation of laxative use?

Bowel movements will be absent for several days

How does strong laxative use set the stage for a repeating cycle of purging according to the text?

By leading to the belief that constipation has returned

What is a consequence of chronic exposure to laxatives in terms of reliance on them?

Increased reliance on laxatives for normal bowel function

What is the primary function of the vomiting center located in the medulla oblongata?

To coordinate the expulsion of gastric contents during emesis

Which neurotransmitter receptor type is NOT mentioned as a target for antiemetic drugs in the text?

Endorphin receptors

Which drug is specifically noted as the first serotonin receptor antagonist approved for Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea and Vomiting (CINV)?

Ondansetron

What is the primary effect of serotonin antagonists like ondansetron on the body?

To suppress nausea and vomiting

What is the mechanism of action of aprepitant in preventing CINV?

Blockade of neurokinin-1 type receptors

Why are serotonin receptor antagonists considered effective against nausea and vomiting induced by radiation therapy?

By blocking specific receptors involved in the emetic response triggered by radiation therapy

Why should ondansetron not be given to patients with long QT syndrome?

It prolongs the QT interval

Which group of drugs is mentioned as effective for treating both inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

Serotonin antagonists

How do glucocorticoids like dexamethasone suppress CINV?

Mechanism is unknown

What is the primary application of lorazepam in CINV suppression?

Sedation and anterograde amnesia

What is the main concern when using promethazine as an antiemetic in young children?

Respiratory depression

How does metoclopramide suppress emesis?

Through the blockade of dopamine receptors

Which drug, related to marijuana, is a synthetic derivative of dronabinol?

Nabilone

What is the primary psychoactive agent in cannabinoids used for medical purposes?

Dronabinol

For treating highly emetogenic drugs, what is the recommended antiemetic regimen?

Aprepitant plus dexamethasone plus a 5-HT3 antagonist

What is the most effective drug for preventing and treating motion sickness?

Scopolamine

What is the severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy characterized by dehydration and weight loss?

Hyperemesis gravidarum

Why may methylprednisolone be considered a last resort for managing nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?

It causes cleft lip with or without cleft palate

What is the potential consequence of using loperamide to manage mild infectious diarrhea?

Prolonging the infection

In the management of traveler's diarrhea caused by E.coli, when is treatment typically considered unnecessary?

When symptoms are mild and self-limited

Which drug is preferred for the prophylaxis of traveler's diarrhea due to E.coli and Vibrio cholerae?

Dukoral

What is the primary symptom that characterizes irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) according to the Rome IV criteria?

Abdominal pain or discomfort

Which drug class has been employed for years to provide symptomatic relief in patients with IBS?

Antispasmodics

What is a common nondrug measure employed in the management of IBS?

Keeping a log to identify trigger foods and stressors

What is the primary purpose of atropine in the combination with diphenoxylate (Lomotil)?

To discourage diphenoxylate abuse

Which symptom results from activation of opioid receptors in the GI tract by opioids?

Reduced frequency of defecation

What is the primary role of diphenoxylate (Lomotil) when used as an antidiarrheal agent?

To provide symptomatic relief without influencing the underlying cause

Why are antihistamines like dimenhydrinate and meclizine less effective than scopolamine for treating motion sickness?

They lead to sedation as a prominent side effect

What distinguishes nonspecific antidiarrheals from specific agents in terms of treating diarrhea?

Nonspecific antidiarrheals act on or within the bowel to provide symptomatic relief

Why are transdermal anticholinergic side effects generally less intense than with oral or subcutaneous dosing?

Transdermal dosing bypasses the blood-brain barrier

What is the main concern when prescribing alosetron for IBS-D in women?

Gastrointestinal toxicity

What qualifies an IBS case as severe according to the text?

Abdominal pain or discomfort causing disability

Which enzyme is involved in the metabolism of alosetron?

Cytochrome P450

Why is alosetron approved only for women with severe IBS-D?

Safety and efficacy have not been demonstrated in men

What is a notable risk associated with the use of alosetron?

Constipation and its complications

Which drugs are specifically approved for IBS according to the text?

Alosetron, eluxadoline, and linaclotide

In what circumstance should prescribers consider a strict risk management program for patients using alosetron?

When patients are non-responsive to conventional treatment

Why is bacterial colonization reduced when patients with concomitant IBS and SIBO are treated with antibiotics?

Antibiotics reduce harmful bacteria

"Less than 5% of IBS cases qualify as severe" implies that most cases of IBS are:

Mild or moderate

Why are safety and efficacy of alosetron not demonstrated in men according to the text?

Lack of pharmacokinetic studies in men

Which part of the GI tract is usually affected by Crohn disease?

Transmural

What is the main difference in the location of inflammation between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis?

Crohn disease affects the transmural layers, while ulcerative colitis affects the mucosa and submucosa.

Which of the following drugs is NOT employed in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

Antifungals

What is the main approved indication for using sulfasalazine?

IBD and rheumatoid arthritis

Which of the following symptoms is common in patients with ulcerative colitis but not in Crohn disease?

Rectal bleeding

Which type of ulcers is sulfasalazine most effective against?

Ulcerative colitis ulcers

What is a potential consequence of long-term high-dose therapy with intravenous metoclopramide?

Tardive dyskinesia

How does nitroglycerin ointment relieve pain caused by chronic anal fissures?

By relaxing the internal anal sphincter

What is the main purpose of pancreatic enzymes secreted into the duodenum?

To digest carbohydrates

Which trade name does NOT refer to a preparation of pancreatic enzymes?

Rectiv

What is the primary purpose of emollients in anorectal preparations?

To reduce irritation

Which compound is NOT a common ingredient in anorectal preparations?

Aspirin

How does bicarbonate secretion by the pancreas help protect digestive enzymes?

By neutralizing stomach acid

What symptom is characteristic of deficiency in pancreatic enzymes?

'Fatty stools'

What is a severe adverse effect associated with prolonged use of glucocorticoids in the treatment of ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

Adrenal suppression

'Rectiv' is primarily used for relief from which condition?

'Hemorrhoids'

'Preparation H', 'Rectagene', and 'Anusol' are commonly associated with the treatment of which condition?

'Hemorrhoids'

Which immunosuppressant acts faster and is stronger than azathioprine or mercaptopurine in inducing remission for acute, severe ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease?

Cyclosporine

Which drug, a monoclonal antibody designed to neutralize TNF-α, is indicated for moderate to severe Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis but has potential serious adverse effects like infections and infusion reactions?

Infliximab

Thiopurines, such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine, are generally reserved for patients with ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease who...

fail to respond to glucocorticoids.

Which oral glucocorticoid is specifically approved for mild to moderate Crohn disease that involves the ileum and ascending colon?

Budesonide

What are the major adverse effects associated with thiopurines, such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine?

Pancreatitis and neutropenia

Which medication can promote short-term remission in patients with Crohn disease, reducing the need for glucocorticoids?

Methotrexate

What is the primary purpose of sulfasalazine during pregnancy and lactation?

Relieve symptoms of ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease.

What is the indicated use of oral metoclopramide for diabetic gastroparesis?

Suppress emesis and increase upper GI motility.

Which protein is used to store iron within mucosal cells of the small intestine?

Ferritin

What is the primary impact of iron deficiency on red blood cells?

They become microcytic and hypochromic

Where does most transferrin-bound iron go for incorporation into hemoglobin?

Bone Marrow

What is the main regulator of body iron content through control of intestinal absorption?

Iron uptake levels

In what condition do adults have relatively low daily iron needs compared to infants and children?

Adulthood

What is the daily dietary iron requirement for adult women to replace iron lost through menstruation?

15-18 mg/day

What is the primary role of erythropoietin in the development of red blood cells?

Inducing reticulocyte maturation

Which iron-containing molecule stores oxygen in muscle?

Myoglobin

What is the primary function of reticulocytes in the process of red blood cell development?

Maturing into erythrocytes

Which factors are essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

Vitamin B12 and folic acid

In what stage do circulating red blood cells reach full maturity?

Erythrocyte stage

Which component of red blood cells constitutes a smaller amount compared to hemoglobin but is essential for various iron-containing enzymes?

Myoglobin

Which iron salt is recommended as the treatment of choice for iron deficiency anemia?

Ferrous sulfate

What is the primary adverse effect associated with all four types of ferrous iron salts mentioned in the text?

Gastrointestinal disturbances

Which additional laboratory data can help confirm a diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia?

Decreased serum iron content

What is the primary reason for using oral iron over parenteral iron according to the text?

Reduced toxicity risk

Which iron supplement is mentioned in the text as having a reduced risk of toxicity in case of accidental ingestion by children?

Carbonyl iron

What is the objective of iron deficiency anemia therapy according to the text?

To improve hemoglobin and erythrocyte production

Which therapy is indicated for patients with severe neurologic deficits caused by B12 deficiency?

Parenteral cyanocobalamin

What is the primary manifestation of moderate B12 deficiency?

Megaloblasts in the bone marrow

Why is folic acid alone not recommended for the treatment of B12 deficiency?

It can mask the existence of B12 deficiency

What is the primary function of intrinsic factor in the absorption of vitamin B12?

Assisting in the transport of vitamin B12 to tissues

What can happen if folic acid intake ceases suddenly?

Megaloblastic anemia develops rapidly

What is the main consequence of vitamin B12 deficiency on DNA synthesis?

Stops cell growth and division

What is the enterohepatic recirculation responsible for in relation to folate?

Returning folate to the liver for reuse

What is one potential cause of impaired absorption of vitamin B12?

Development of antibodies against the vitamin B12–intrinsic factor complex

How does folic acid differ from vitamin B12 in terms of DNA synthesis?

Folic acid can be activated independently of vitamin B12

Which specific characteristic distinguishes pernicious anemia from other types of anemia?

Large red blood cells

What is the main role of transcobalamin II in the process of vitamin B12 absorption?

Transporting free B12 to tissues

How does vitamin B12 deficiency impact the cells that form the epithelial lining of the mouth, stomach, and intestine?

Inhibits DNA synthesis

Why is it recommended that all women of reproductive age consume 400 to 800 µg of supplemental folic acid daily?

To avoid neural tube defects in early pregnancy

What is the most common cause of folate deficiency according to the text?

Alcohol use disorder

What is the effect of poor diet on correcting folate deficiency according to the text?

Ingestion of fresh vegetables and fruit juices is sufficient

What is the consequence of indiscriminate use of folic acid according to the text?

Risk of masking vitamin B12 deficiency

Why is oral administration preferred for most patients when treating folic acid deficiency?

It is more effective in correcting malabsorption

What is the primary difference between correcting folate deficiency due to poor diet and malabsorption?

'Ingestion of one serving of a fresh vegetable or one glass of fruit juice a day will often suffice' in poor diet cases

What is a potential consequence of folic acid deficiency other than megaloblastic anemia?

'Injury to oral and GI mucosa'

Why should prophylactic folate be taken only when clearly appropriate according to the text?

'Folic acid may mask vitamin B12 deficiency'

'The modality for treating folic acid deficiency should be matched with the cause.' What does this mean when addressing poor diet as a cause?

'Diet alone can correct the deficiency'

What is the recommended initial therapy for folic acid deficiency?

IM injection of folic acid and vitamin B12

How is therapy for folic acid deficiency evaluated according to the text?

Measuring Hgb, Hct, and reticulocyte count

What can be expected within 48 hours if treatment for folic acid deficiency has been effective?

Disappearance of megaloblasts from bone marrow

What is the maintenance dose of folic acid recommended after the initial therapy?

400 µg/day

When should reticulocyte count measurably increase if treatment for folic acid deficiency has been effective?

Within 2 to 3 days

Learn about Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) and gastrointestinal (GI) drugs in this informative lecture. Understand the erosion of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine, complications like hemorrhage and perforation, and the medications used to treat PUD.

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