Pacemaker Types and Function

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Questions and Answers

Which pacemaker mode is MOST suitable for a patient undergoing electrocautery?

  • Demand mode
  • Biventricular mode
  • Synchronous mode
  • Asynchronous/fixed mode (correct)

What does the 'I' in a pacemaker code (e.g., VVI) typically represent?

  • Inhibition (correct)
  • Intrinsic rate
  • Impedance
  • Initiation

A patient with a pacemaker experiences a 'failure to capture'. What does this term indicate?

  • The pacemaker is delivering a stimulus, but it does not result in myocardial depolarization. (correct)
  • The pacemaker is firing at an abnormally high rate.
  • The pacemaker is not sensing the heart's intrinsic activity.
  • The pacemaker is being inhibited by extraneous signals.

What is the primary reason for using bipolar electrocautery in a patient with a pacemaker? select 2

<p>It reduces the risk of interference with the pacemaker. (D), Its current is restricted to a small volume of tissue, providing more control over the area to be coagulated (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pacemakers, what does 'sensitivity' refer to?

<p>The voltage level that must be exceeded for the pacemaker to detect intrinsic cardiac activity (P wave or R wave) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might lidocaine be avoided during the initial placement of an ICD?

<p>It affects the defibrillation energy requirements, making testing unreliable. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely outcome if a pacemaker is programmed in DOO or VOO mode and the patient's intrinsic heart rate is higher than the programmed pacing rate?

<p>The pacemaker will pace regardless of the intrinsic activity potentially leading to R-on-T phenomenon. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common indication for the use of a temporary pacemaker? select 3

<p>Third-degree heart block (A), Unstable brady or tachyarrhythmias (B), Support post open heart surgery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a pacemaker is experiencing 'undersensing'. What is the MOST likely consequence of this malfunction?

<p>The pacemaker is firing inappropriately, potentially leading to arrhythmias (R on T) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does triggered response mean in the context of pacemaker sensing?

<p>The pacemaker will deliver a pacing stimulus in response to sensed intrinsic depolarization. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the purpose of effective refractory periods in the context of pacemaker function?

<p>To minimize the risk of arrhythmias by preventing the cell from responding to a new stimulus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the VA interval represent in the context of dual-chamber pacing?

<p>The interval between sensed or paced ventricular depolarization and the next atrial stimulus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of tiered therapy in implantable cardioverter-defibrillators (ICDs)?

<p>To gradually escalate interventions, starting with antitachycardia pacing and progressing to shocks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the implantation of an insertable cardiac loop recorder (ICLR), what action triggers the device to record a cardiac event?

<p>The patient activates the device using a magnet during a symptomatic episode. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are flecainide, procainamide, and quinidine contraindicated for perioperative use in patients with pacemakers?

<p>Class I antiarrhythmics (fast sodium channel blockers) can interfere with pacemaker sensing and capture, increase pacing thresholds, and provoke dangerous arrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What drug class do flecainide, procainamide, and quinidine belong to?

<p>Class 1 Antiarrhythmics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the characteristics of a pacemaker in asynchronous mode? (Select 3)

<p>Ignores the heart's intrinsic activity (A), No sensing of the heart's activity (B), Paces at a set rate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are characteristics of a pacemaker in synchronous/demand mode? (Select 3)

<p>Senses the heart's intrinsic rate and delivers a voltage to generate a depolarization (A), Paces when the intrinsic HR is less than the set rate of the pacemaker (B), The pacer WILL NOT fire if it is set below the intrinsic HR (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the threshold for pacing the heart?

<p>The minimum current needed to pace the heart (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the AV interval in cardiac pacing?

<p>The interval from the beginning of atrial depolarization to the next ventricular stimulus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are indications for permanent pacing? (Select all that apply)

<p>Sinus node dysfunction (A), Symptomatic diseases of impulse formation (B), Sinus bradycardia, sinus pause, SA block (C), AV node disease (D), Atrial fibrillation (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a permanent pacemaker aid in the management of atrial fibrillation?

<p>By providing dual site pacing to decrease intra-atrial conduction time (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does "inhibited" mean regarding pacemakers? select 2

<p>The pacemaker will withhold a pacing stimulus if it senses the heart’s own electrical activity. (B), If the pacemaker does not detect intrinsic activity within the window, it fires to stimulate the heart. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of inhibition of pacing?

<p>To prevent competition with the heart's intrinsic rhythm, reducing the risk of inducing arrhythmias (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'D' mean regarding sensing in a pacemaker? select 2

<p>If the heart is functioning normally, the pacemaker inhibits both atrial and ventricular pacing – it just monitors (A), If intrinsic heart activity is missing or delayed, the pacemaker will fire in the needed chamber (atria or ventricle) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does VVI mean in terms of pacemaker function?

<p>Ventricle paced, ventricle sensed, ventricle event outside of the refractory period will be inhibited (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When would 'O' sensing be appropriate for a pacemaker?

<p>In patients where asynchronous pacing is needed e.g. electrocautery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When would VOO pacing be appropriate?

<p>When a fixed-rate, asynchronous mode is required (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the pacing mode with the correct description:

<p>VOO = Paces ventricle, no sensing (asynchronous) DVI = Paces both, senses ventricle, ventricular activity inhibits pacing VDD = Paces ventricle, senses both, atrial activity triggers ventricular pacing (synchronous) DDI = Paces and senses both, atrial tachyarrhythmias inhibit pacing</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are key features of a single chamber pacemaker? select 2

<p>Paces or senses only one chamber (A), Typically found in the right ventricle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What modes are associated with single chamber pacemakers?

<p>AAI (A), VVI (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the leads located in dual chamber pacemakers?

<p>Lead in the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are leadless permanent pacemakers indicated for?

<p>AV Block (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are leadless permanent pacemakers typically placed?

<p>Right ventricular septum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do leadless permanent pacemakers work?

<p>By using internal atrial sensing algorithms to adjust pacing to coordinate with the atria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the leads located in transvenous pacing?

<p>Wire placed from IJ to RV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are features of epicardial pacing? (Select 2)

<p>Wires sutured to cardiac muscle (A), Can involve 2 atrial and 2 ventricular leads or 2 ventricular leads (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are invasive temporary pacemakers? (Select all that apply)

<p>Transvenous (A), Epicardial (B), Esophageal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a non-invasive temporary pacemaker?

<p>Transcutaneous pacemaker (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the polarity of the leads of a pacemaker?

<p>Both A and B (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do we check a pacemaker in demand/synchronous mode only?

<p>Asynchronous mode could fire and cause R on T. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the R-on-T phenomenon?

<p>A type of ventricular extrasystole caused by ventricular depolarization superimposing on a previous beat's repolarization. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the causes of the R-on-T phenomenon? (Select 2)

<p>Undersensing of the pacemaker (A), Starting the pacemaker in asynchronous mode where an erroneous beat falls on the T wave (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pacing mode is notable for sensing the heart's intrinsic rhythm and avoiding R on T? select 2

<p>DDD (B), VVI (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of the intrinsic heart rate being lower than the paced rate in DOO?

<p>The pacemaker will fire to speed up the heart rate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of the intrinsic heart rate being faster than the paced rate in DOO mode?

<p>The pacemaker can fire on a T wave and cause arrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are indications for magnet placement intraoperatively?

<p>A pacemaker-dependent patient undergoing electrocautery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of undersensing/failure to sense in a pacemaker?

<p>The pacemaker fires an unnecessary impulse, potentially causing arrhythmias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of oversensing in a pacemaker?

<p>Inhibition of pacing causing bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following drugs are associated with pacemaker malfunction? (Select 3)

<p>Procainamide - failure to capture (A), Quinidine - increase threshold, causes undersensing (B), Flecainide - increase threshold, causes undersensing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do sodium channel blockers cause pacemaker malfunction? select 2

<p>They increase the threshold so the pacemaker needs to deliver more energy to achieve depolarization. (A), They slowed intrinsic conduction, masking pacing needs and causing undersensing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does failure to pace mean?

<p>The pacemaker's pulse generator is not providing sufficient output to depolarize the heart muscle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of a magnet being placed on a patient with a pacemaker?

<p>Causes a device-specific rate change or percentage decrease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be part of your setup for pacemaker insertion? (Select 3)

<p>Nasal cannula - preferred to prevent airway fires (A), Magnet (C), Device representative (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the electrocautery considerations for permanent pacemaker placement? (Select 3)

<p>Use the Bovie grounding pad for an existing pacemaker as far as possible from the generator (A), The return electrode should be opposite the surgical site (B), The surgeon should use bipolar settings, short bursts, and the lowest effective current (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does lithotripsy have on pacemakers?

<p>It has no effect if the generator is protected and the beam is not directed toward the pacemaker (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does TURP or a hysteroscopy have on pacemaker function?

<p>May require placing the pacemaker in asynchronous mode due to the use of monopolar cautery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mode should the pacemaker be placed in during ECT, monitoring SSEP, or MEP?

<p>Asynchronous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the indications for using an ICLR (Insertable Cardiac Loop Recorder)?

<p>Alternative to Holter monitor for the diagnosis of unexplained syncope (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can occur when using electrocautery on a patient with an ICLR?

<p>It may cause the device to reset with data loss. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication can occur from lithotripsy in a patient with an ICLR?

<p>Damage to the ICD due to the focused beam (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consideration for a patient with an Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (ICD) undergoing MRI?

<p>The shell is made from titanium, so the patient may feel a pulling sensation during the MRI. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the functions of an ICD? (Select all that apply)

<p>Provide VF (ventricular fibrillation) detection (B), Use of biphasic shocks that require less energy and therefore allow battery to last longer (D), Sense ventricular depolarization (A), Provide tachycardia detection and discrimination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should occur prior to surgery with a patient who has an ICD? (Select 2)

<p>Existing ICDs must be deactivated prior to surgery (A), External defibrillator must be in the room with pads on (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following intraoperative conditions can cause pacemakers to malfunction? (Select all that apply)

<p>Electrical interference (A), Hypokalemia (B), Hyperkalemia (C), Myocardial ischemia (D), Pacemaker placement (@), Lead or generator problems (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are complications of permanent pacemaker placement? (Select all that apply)

<p>Lead dislodgement (A), Pneumothorax (B), Infection (C), Bleeding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What surgical technique can interfere with pacemaker function?

<p>Monopolar cautery - interferes with sensing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should procainamide be avoided in a patient with an ICD?

<p>Procainamide can suppress ventricular arrhythmias to the point where the ICD may not detect them appropriately, or it may delay or prevent ICD delivery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What anesthetic technique is typically used to place an ICD?

<p>MAC (Monitored Anesthesia Care) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Synchronous Mode

Delivers voltage to generate depolarization when the heart's intrinsic rate is less than the set rate.

Threshold (Pacemaker)

The MINIMUM current needed to stimulate the heart.

Effective Refractory Period

Time when a cardiac cell cannot respond to a new stimulus, protecting against arrhythmias.

Atrial Fibrillation Pacing

A dual-site pacing method used to reduce intra-atrial conduction time.

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Triggered (T)

Sensed intrinsic depolarization triggers pacemaker firing for immediate response.

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Inhibited (I)

Pacemaker withholds pacing stimulus when it senses the heart's electrical activity.

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DDD Pacing

Both atrium and ventricle are paced and sensed: inhibition and triggered response.

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VVI Pacing

Ventricular pacing and sensing, inhibited by ventricular event outside refractory period.

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RV Lead Placement

Pacemaker lead placement within the right ventricle.

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R on T Phenomenon

Ventricular extrasystole due to ventricular depolarization on previous beat's repolarization.

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Pacemaker Undersensing

Device fails to detect heart's intrinsic activity; inappropriately fires unneeded impulse.

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Pacemaker Oversensing

Device detects extraneous signals as intrinsic activity; inappropriate pauses or bradycardia.

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Drugs Affecting Pacemakers

Failure to capture, increased threshold, or slowed intrinsic conduction masking need.

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ICD - Medications to Avoid

Lidocaine & procainamide affect defibrillation energy requirements.

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Biventricular Pacemaker

Delivers cardiac resynchronization therapy.

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Electrocautery

Uses direct or altenating current through a resistant metal wire to electrode to coagulate only

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Electrosurgery

Heats tissue directly to cut and coagulate

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Lead in RV

The most common chamber pacemaker

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Study Notes

Pacemaker Types

  • Pacemakers can be single chamber, dual chamber, or biventricular
  • They can be temporary (external) or permanent (internal)

Pacemaker Modes

  • Pacemakers operate in two modes: asynchronous or synchronous.

Asynchronous Mode

  • Ignores the heart's intrinsic activity
  • Does not sense intrinsic activity
  • Paces at a fixed rate set

Synchronous Mode

  • Senses the intrinsic heart rate and delivers voltage to cause depolarization
  • Paces only when the intrinsic heart rate is less than the set rate
  • WILL NOT fire if the heart rate is above the set rate

Pacemaker Function

  • Paces the heart, measured in milliamperes (mA)
  • Senses the heart, measured in millivolts (mV)

Wave Detection and Sensitivity

  • R wave detection relies on a voltage level above the pacemaker's set level
  • Sensitivity relates to the voltage level needing to be exceeded to detect an R or P wave

Threshold and Intervals

  • Threshold denotes the minimum current needed to pace the heart
  • AV interval is the duration between paced or sensed atrial depolarization and the subsequent ventricular stimulus
  • VA interval is the duration between sensed or paced ventricular depolarization and the next atrial stimulus

Effective Refractory Periods

  • The amount of time in which a cell is unable to respond to a new stimulus
  • Protects against arrhythmias

Temporary Pacemaker Indications

  • Used for unstable bradyarrhythmias or tachyarrhythmias
  • Employed in third-degree heart block
  • Provides support post open-heart surgery
  • Use ends upon resolution of the problem or permanent pacemaker implantation

Permanent Pacing Indications

  • Sinus node dysfunction
  • Symptomatic impulse formation diseases
  • Sinus bradycardia, sinus pause, SA block
  • AV node disease
  • Atrial fibrillation, using dual-site pacing as a means to decrease intra-atrial conduction time

Pacemaker Code

  • Indicates the chamber paced, chamber sensed, and response to sensing

Sensing Response

  • Triggered (T) means that a sensed intrinsic depolarization results in pacemaker firing
  • Heart will respond to a sensed intrinsic activity by delivering a pacing stimulus
  • Inhibited (I) means the device DOES NOT PACE
  • Pacemaker will withhold a pacing stimulus on sensing the heart’s electrical activity
  • Prevents competition with the heart’s intrinsic rhythm and reduces the risk of inducing arrhythmias
  • The Pacemaker will fire if the heart fails to beat on its own
  • Dual (D) defines the dual inhibition of atrial and ventricular pacing in response to intrinsic ventricular depolarization
  • The pacemaker inhibits both atrial and ventricular pacing if the heart is functioning normally
  • Pacemaker will fire in the needed chamber (atria or ventricle) if intrinsic heart activity is missing or delayed
  • None (O) Utilized for asynchronous pacing, regardless of intrinsic activity
  • Useful when electrocautery, which interferes with pacemakers, is being used
  • Placing a magnet on the patient’s chest puts the pacemaker in asynchronous pacing mode, such as D00 at 99 HR
  • Example DDD signifies both atrium and ventricle paced, both atrium and ventricle depolarizations sensed, inhibition in response to depolarization, and can trigger a response to depolarization
  • Example: VVI indicates ventricle paced, ventricle sensed, and that a ventricle event outside of the refractory period will be inhibited

Chamber Pacemakers

  • Lead placement in the right ventricle is most common
  • Paces or senses in one chamber only, for example, AAI, VVI

Dual Chamber Pacemakers

  • Leads placed in the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV)
  • DDD can pace and sense in both the atrium and ventricle
  • Features 2 timing intervals, the AV interval and VA interval

Leadless Permanent Pacemakers

  • Indicated for AV block
  • Implanted under fluoroscopy into the RV septum
  • Contains 4 tines instead of leads
  • Utilizes internal atrial sensing algorithms to adjust pacing which coordinates with the atria

Temporary Pacemakers

  • Transvenous pacing is invasive; wire is placed from the internal jugular (IJ) to the RV
  • Epicardial pacing is invasive, with most surgeons placing 2 atrial and 2 ventricular wires, with some surgeons placing two ventricular wires only
  • Transcutaneous pacing is non-invasive
  • Esophageal pacing is invasive

Pacing Wires and Cable Connectors

  • Polarity of wires, black to negative, red to positive.
  • Leads connect from the wire insertion to the controller

Checking Pacemaker Function

  • Confirming all connections are secure
  • Settings must be confirmed before starting (mode, rate, output, sensitivity, AV interval)
  • Check in Demand mode only, which prevents firing and causing R on T

R on T Phenomenon

  • Ventricular extrasystole caused by ventricular depolarization superimposing on a previous beat’s repolarization
  • Causes include undersensing of the pacemaker
  • Pacemaker starting in asynchronous mode, allowing an erroneous beat to fall on the T wave
  • Avoided if the pacemaker is in DDD or VVI mode, because can sense the heart’s intrinsic rhythm
  • If the pacemaker is in DOO or VOO mode, and the intrinsic heart rate is lower than the paced rate, It will speed up the HR
  • Alternatively, if the intrinsic heart rate is higher than the paced rate, the pacer will pace on a T wave, and VT or VF may occur

Pacemaker Components

  • Leads
  • Box
  • Battery (with a life of 7-10 years)
  • Electrodes
  • Barbs/screws

Magnets with Pacemakers

  • Usage can cause a device-specific rate change or a percentage decrease
  • Useful with DDD-VVI
  • A magnet would be used on a pacemaker-dependent patient during electrocautery
  • Magnets are placed over the pacemaker any time EMI is expected
  • Magnet pacing rates may differ from the set fixed pacemaker rate

Pacemaker Malfunctions

  • Failure to pace
  • Failure to capture
  • Pacing at abnormal rates
  • Failure to sense (undersensing) leads to inappropriate pacing
  • Undersensing causes cardiac activity to go undetected
  • The device mistakenly believes the heart is not beating, so an unnecessary unneeded impulse is fired
  • Main clinical risk from this includes competitive pacing, leading to arrhythmias like R on T
  • Oversensing causes inhibition of pacing
  • The pacemaker detects extraneous signals as intrinsic activity
  • The device is inhibited from pacing
  • Clinical risk from this includes inappropriate pauses or bradycardia
  • Oversensing and malfunction is a unique issue for dual-chamber devices
  • Malfunction can be caused by drugs and certain conditions
  • Drugs such as procainamide may cause failure to capture
  • Quinidine use may increase the threshold.
  • Flecainide (Na+ channel blocker) raises the threshold
  • Electrical interference, hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, myocardial ischemia, and issues with pacemaker placement, leads, or the generator are potential conditions

Anesthetic Considerations

  • Requires knowledge of external or existing pacemaker
  • Determine if patient is pacemaker dependent
  • Permanent pacemaker insertion may involve MAC (monitored anesthesia care) in an EP (electrophysiology) lab or cath lab
  • NC (nasal cannula) is preferred for oxygenation to avoid potential fire hazards associated with masks
  • Location of the pacemaker
  • Verification of pacemaker function, typically by a device representative
  • Magnet availability

Electrocautery and Electrosurgery

  • Electrocautery passes through alternating current through a resistant metal wire electrode for coagulation only
  • Electrosurgery involves direct heating of tissue for cutting and coagulation
  • Monopolar electrosurgery directs current from the electrode, through the body, to a grounding pad, and back to the generator
  • Bipolar electrosurgery restricts the current to a small tissue volume for better control
  • Advantages of bipolar include reduced damage to sensitive tissues near the instrument
  • Reduced chance of current arcs directly to the surrounding surface

Electrocautery Considerations for Permanent Pacemakers

  • Bovie grounding pad placement should be away from the generator
  • Return electron should be opposite the surgical site
  • Bipolar, short bursts, and the lowest effective current should be used by the surgeon

Complications of Permanent Pacemaker Placement

  • Lead dislodgement
  • Pneumothorax
  • Infection
  • Bleeding

Pacemaker Adjustments for Surgical Procedures

  • Lithotripsy is safe if the generator is protected, and the beam is not directed towards the device
  • TURP/hysteroscopy: the pacemaker may need to be asynchronous because the surgeon will use monopolar cautery
  • ECT (electroconvulsive therapy) can be performed with the pacemaker in asynchronous mode
  • MRI considerations
  • TENS/SSEP/MEP are generally safe

Insertable Cardiac Loop Recorders (ICLR)

  • Implanted in the left pectoral region within subcutaneous fat
  • Alternative to the Holter cardiac monitor
  • No absolute contraindications for implantation
  • Absence of wiring between the device and the heart
  • Device activation is triggered by a patient using a magnet during a presyncopal or syncope episode
  • Used for diagnosis and management of various cardiac arrhythmias and symptoms

ICLRs Anesthetic Considerations

  • Need a cardiologist's progress notes
  • Interrogate the device before surgery
  • Assess recordings of recent life-threatening arrhythmias
  • Made with a titanium shell patients may feel a pulling during MRI
  • Electrocautery is safe but data loss can occur if the device is reset
  • Focal point of the beam should not be set on the device as it can cause damage during lithotripsy

ICDs

  • The size of a pacemaker
  • Two types: transvenous or subcutaneous
  • Transvenous leads sense, pace, and deliver biphasic shocks
  • Can be single, dual, or biventricular (cardiac resynchronization therapy)
  • Pulse generator and leads come standard on all types

ICD Functions

  • Able to sense ventricular depolarization
  • Provide VF detection
  • Provide tachycardia detection and discrimination
  • Tiered therapy options
  • Biphasic shocks use lower energy requirements

ICDs Anesthetic Considerations

  • GA vs MAC (most devices are placed under MAC)
  • Avoid Lidocaine, as it obscures checking; also avoid procainamide (both affect defibrillation energy requirements)
  • Maintenance: technique and caution with EF

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