Podcast
Questions and Answers
A 58-year-old male presents with a persistent, non-wipeable white lesion on the ventral surface of his tongue, clinically assessed as leukoplakia. Histopathological analysis reveals hyperkeratosis without dysplasia. Considering established oral potentially malignant disorder (OPMD) risk stratification, which of the following clinical management strategies is MOST judicious?
A 58-year-old male presents with a persistent, non-wipeable white lesion on the ventral surface of his tongue, clinically assessed as leukoplakia. Histopathological analysis reveals hyperkeratosis without dysplasia. Considering established oral potentially malignant disorder (OPMD) risk stratification, which of the following clinical management strategies is MOST judicious?
- Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroids to manage potential inflammatory components and reassess in 3 months.
- Implement vigilant clinical observation with photographic documentation and repeat biopsy in 6 months, educating the patient on risk factor modification. (correct)
- Initiate immediate surgical excision of the leukoplakic lesion with wide margins to prevent malignant transformation.
- Recommend cryotherapy to ablate the superficial hyperkeratotic epithelium and eliminate the OPMD.
A 62-year-old female with a history of chronic tobacco use presents with a velvety, intensely erythematous lesion on the floor of her mouth. Clinical suspicion for erythroplakia is high. In the context of oral potentially malignant disorders, which statement MOST accurately reflects the imperative next step in diagnosis and management?
A 62-year-old female with a history of chronic tobacco use presents with a velvety, intensely erythematous lesion on the floor of her mouth. Clinical suspicion for erythroplakia is high. In the context of oral potentially malignant disorders, which statement MOST accurately reflects the imperative next step in diagnosis and management?
- Advise the patient to discontinue tobacco use and reassess the lesion clinically in 4-6 weeks, expecting spontaneous resolution.
- Perform an immediate incisional biopsy of the lesion to ascertain the presence and degree of epithelial dysplasia or carcinoma. (correct)
- Initiate a course of systemic antibiotics to address potential underlying bacterial involvement contributing to the lesion's appearance.
- Prescribe a broad-spectrum antifungal medication, anticipating hyperplastic candidiasis as a likely differential diagnosis.
A patient presents with multiple, persistent, spreading white patches in the oral cavity, clinically suggestive of proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (PVL). Considering the aggressive nature and high malignant transformation rate associated with PVL, which of the following statements represents the MOST critical aspect of its long-term management?
A patient presents with multiple, persistent, spreading white patches in the oral cavity, clinically suggestive of proliferative verrucous leukoplakia (PVL). Considering the aggressive nature and high malignant transformation rate associated with PVL, which of the following statements represents the MOST critical aspect of its long-term management?
- Aggressive surgical intervention with wide local excision at the initial presentation to prevent recurrence.
- Systemic immunosuppressive therapy to control the inflammatory component and halt lesion progression.
- Meticulous long-term clinical surveillance with frequent biopsies due to the high recurrence and malignant transformation potential, even after treatment. (correct)
- Routine application of topical antiviral agents to manage potential underlying viral etiology.
A lesion clinically diagnosed as frictional keratosis is suspected following trauma from a sharp restoration margin. Which of the following clinical features is MOST indicative of frictional keratosis, distinguishing it from other oral mucosal lesions?
A lesion clinically diagnosed as frictional keratosis is suspected following trauma from a sharp restoration margin. Which of the following clinical features is MOST indicative of frictional keratosis, distinguishing it from other oral mucosal lesions?
A patient presents with a white lesion on the palate that does not wipe off but improves significantly with topical antifungal medication. This clinical presentation is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?
A patient presents with a white lesion on the palate that does not wipe off but improves significantly with topical antifungal medication. This clinical presentation is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?
Oral lichen planus (OLP) is characterized by a variety of clinical presentations. Which of the following clinical features is considered pathognomonic and consistently observed in all forms of OLP?
Oral lichen planus (OLP) is characterized by a variety of clinical presentations. Which of the following clinical features is considered pathognomonic and consistently observed in all forms of OLP?
Actinic cheilitis, a premalignant condition, primarily affects the lower lip due to chronic sun exposure. Which of the following histopathological findings is MOST indicative of progression towards squamous cell carcinoma in actinic cheilitis?
Actinic cheilitis, a premalignant condition, primarily affects the lower lip due to chronic sun exposure. Which of the following histopathological findings is MOST indicative of progression towards squamous cell carcinoma in actinic cheilitis?
Oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) comprises the vast majority of oral malignancies. Which of the following clinical presentations warrants the HIGHEST index of suspicion for OSCC?
Oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) comprises the vast majority of oral malignancies. Which of the following clinical presentations warrants the HIGHEST index of suspicion for OSCC?
Nicotine stomatitis, a palatal lesion associated with heat from smoking, is generally considered premalignant only under specific circumstances. Which condition elevates the premalignant potential of nicotine stomatitis?
Nicotine stomatitis, a palatal lesion associated with heat from smoking, is generally considered premalignant only under specific circumstances. Which condition elevates the premalignant potential of nicotine stomatitis?
Deep fungal infections, such as histoplasmosis and blastomycosis, can mimic oral squamous cell carcinoma. Which clinical feature is MOST helpful in differentiating deep fungal infections from OSCC in the oral cavity?
Deep fungal infections, such as histoplasmosis and blastomycosis, can mimic oral squamous cell carcinoma. Which clinical feature is MOST helpful in differentiating deep fungal infections from OSCC in the oral cavity?
HPV-positive squamous cell carcinoma (HPV-SCC) of the oropharynx is recognized as a distinct entity with prognostic implications. Compared to HPV-negative OSCC, HPV-SCC is typically associated with:
HPV-positive squamous cell carcinoma (HPV-SCC) of the oropharynx is recognized as a distinct entity with prognostic implications. Compared to HPV-negative OSCC, HPV-SCC is typically associated with:
Toluidine blue is utilized as an adjunct in the identification of high-risk oral lesions. What is the MOST significant limitation of toluidine blue staining in oral cancer screening for general dental practitioners?
Toluidine blue is utilized as an adjunct in the identification of high-risk oral lesions. What is the MOST significant limitation of toluidine blue staining in oral cancer screening for general dental practitioners?
In the context of tobacco cessation, combination nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is often considered the most effective approach. Which of the following NRT combinations is generally recommended as first-line therapy?
In the context of tobacco cessation, combination nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is often considered the most effective approach. Which of the following NRT combinations is generally recommended as first-line therapy?
Varenicline, a partial nicotinic receptor agonist, is a pharmacological agent used in tobacco cessation. Which of the following represents a significant contraindication for varenicline use?
Varenicline, a partial nicotinic receptor agonist, is a pharmacological agent used in tobacco cessation. Which of the following represents a significant contraindication for varenicline use?
Bupropion, an antidepressant medication, is also utilized in tobacco cessation. Which of the following conditions is a ABSOLUTE contraindication for the use of bupropion?
Bupropion, an antidepressant medication, is also utilized in tobacco cessation. Which of the following conditions is a ABSOLUTE contraindication for the use of bupropion?
In the TNM staging system for oral squamous cell carcinoma, the 'T' stage primarily reflects the size and extent of the primary tumor. A T2 lesion is defined by which of the following parameters?
In the TNM staging system for oral squamous cell carcinoma, the 'T' stage primarily reflects the size and extent of the primary tumor. A T2 lesion is defined by which of the following parameters?
Lymph nodes are crucial in the staging and prognosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma. 'N2/3' nodal staging in oral cancer indicates:
Lymph nodes are crucial in the staging and prognosis of oral squamous cell carcinoma. 'N2/3' nodal staging in oral cancer indicates:
Reactive lymph nodes, often encountered in the head and neck region, are distinguished from neoplastic nodes by specific clinical characteristics. Which set of features is MOST consistent with a reactive lymph node?
Reactive lymph nodes, often encountered in the head and neck region, are distinguished from neoplastic nodes by specific clinical characteristics. Which set of features is MOST consistent with a reactive lymph node?
In the diagnostic workup of suspected mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP), direct immunofluorescence (DIF) microscopy is essential. Where should the biopsy specimen for DIF be ideally obtained relative to the active lesion?
In the diagnostic workup of suspected mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP), direct immunofluorescence (DIF) microscopy is essential. Where should the biopsy specimen for DIF be ideally obtained relative to the active lesion?
Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) and mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP) are both autoimmune bullous diseases affecting the oral mucosa. Which of the following histopathological and immunofluorescence findings is MOST discriminatory in differentiating PV from MMP?
Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) and mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP) are both autoimmune bullous diseases affecting the oral mucosa. Which of the following histopathological and immunofluorescence findings is MOST discriminatory in differentiating PV from MMP?
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) are severe periodontal conditions. What is the KEY differentiating feature between NUG and NUP?
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) are severe periodontal conditions. What is the KEY differentiating feature between NUG and NUP?
In the management of oral candidiasis, various antifungal agents are employed. For localized pseudomembranous candidiasis, which topical antifungal agent is typically considered first-line therapy?
In the management of oral candidiasis, various antifungal agents are employed. For localized pseudomembranous candidiasis, which topical antifungal agent is typically considered first-line therapy?
Mucormycosis, a rare but aggressive fungal infection, is associated with specific predisposing conditions. Which patient population is at HIGHEST risk for developing mucormycosis?
Mucormycosis, a rare but aggressive fungal infection, is associated with specific predisposing conditions. Which patient population is at HIGHEST risk for developing mucormycosis?
Histoplasmosis, a systemic fungal infection, can present with oral manifestations. Which epidemiological factor is MOST closely associated with histoplasmosis endemicity?
Histoplasmosis, a systemic fungal infection, can present with oral manifestations. Which epidemiological factor is MOST closely associated with histoplasmosis endemicity?
Periapical abscesses are common odontogenic infections. Which clinical finding is MOST indicative of a periapical abscess originating from a non-vital tooth?
Periapical abscesses are common odontogenic infections. Which clinical finding is MOST indicative of a periapical abscess originating from a non-vital tooth?
Tuberculosis (TB) can manifest with oral lesions, although oral involvement is relatively rare. Which histopathological feature is considered pathognomonic for tuberculosis?
Tuberculosis (TB) can manifest with oral lesions, although oral involvement is relatively rare. Which histopathological feature is considered pathognomonic for tuberculosis?
Oral lesions in Crohn's disease can precede gastrointestinal symptoms. Which of the following oral manifestations is MOST characteristic of Crohn's disease?
Oral lesions in Crohn's disease can precede gastrointestinal symptoms. Which of the following oral manifestations is MOST characteristic of Crohn's disease?
Cat scratch disease, caused by Bartonella henselae, typically presents with lymphadenopathy. What is the MOST common oral clue associated with cat scratch disease?
Cat scratch disease, caused by Bartonella henselae, typically presents with lymphadenopathy. What is the MOST common oral clue associated with cat scratch disease?
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, caused by Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV), is commonly seen in children. Which clinical feature is MOST characteristic of primary HSV infection?
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, caused by Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV), is commonly seen in children. Which clinical feature is MOST characteristic of primary HSV infection?
Herpes zoster, or shingles, is caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. Which cranial nerve dermatome is MOST commonly affected in oral herpes zoster?
Herpes zoster, or shingles, is caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. Which cranial nerve dermatome is MOST commonly affected in oral herpes zoster?
Erythema multiforme (EM) is often triggered by HSV infection. What is the MOST characteristic oral manifestation of erythema multiforme?
Erythema multiforme (EM) is often triggered by HSV infection. What is the MOST characteristic oral manifestation of erythema multiforme?
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) are severe mucocutaneous drug reactions. What is the PRIMARY distinguishing factor between SJS and TEN in terms of skin involvement?
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) and Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) are severe mucocutaneous drug reactions. What is the PRIMARY distinguishing factor between SJS and TEN in terms of skin involvement?
Squamous papilloma and verruca vulgaris are HPV-related benign lesions of the oral mucosa. What is the MOST reliable clinical feature to differentiate between squamous papilloma and verruca vulgaris?
Squamous papilloma and verruca vulgaris are HPV-related benign lesions of the oral mucosa. What is the MOST reliable clinical feature to differentiate between squamous papilloma and verruca vulgaris?
Condyloma acuminatum, another HPV-related lesion, is clinically distinct from squamous papilloma and verruca vulgaris. Which clinical characteristic is MOST suggestive of condyloma acuminatum?
Condyloma acuminatum, another HPV-related lesion, is clinically distinct from squamous papilloma and verruca vulgaris. Which clinical characteristic is MOST suggestive of condyloma acuminatum?
Mumps, a viral infection affecting the parotid glands, presents with bilateral parotid swelling. Which laboratory finding is MOST specific for diagnosing mumps parotitis?
Mumps, a viral infection affecting the parotid glands, presents with bilateral parotid swelling. Which laboratory finding is MOST specific for diagnosing mumps parotitis?
Sjögren's syndrome, an autoimmune disorder, can cause parotid enlargement. What is the PRIMARY mechanism underlying parotid gland enlargement in Sjögren's syndrome?
Sjögren's syndrome, an autoimmune disorder, can cause parotid enlargement. What is the PRIMARY mechanism underlying parotid gland enlargement in Sjögren's syndrome?
Obstructive sialadenitis, commonly affecting the submandibular gland, is frequently caused by sialolithiasis. What is the MOST effective initial diagnostic modality to visualize sialoliths in the submandibular duct?
Obstructive sialadenitis, commonly affecting the submandibular gland, is frequently caused by sialolithiasis. What is the MOST effective initial diagnostic modality to visualize sialoliths in the submandibular duct?
Sarcoidosis, a systemic granulomatous disease, can involve the salivary glands, including the parotid. What type of granulomas are typically found in sarcoidosis-related parotid swelling?
Sarcoidosis, a systemic granulomatous disease, can involve the salivary glands, including the parotid. What type of granulomas are typically found in sarcoidosis-related parotid swelling?
Irritation fibroma, the most common soft tissue growth in the oral cavity, is primarily reactive in nature. What is the MOST critical factor in preventing recurrence of an irritation fibroma after surgical excision?
Irritation fibroma, the most common soft tissue growth in the oral cavity, is primarily reactive in nature. What is the MOST critical factor in preventing recurrence of an irritation fibroma after surgical excision?
Pyogenic granuloma, a benign reactive lesion, often presents as a red, ulcerated, and easily bleeding mass. What is the MOST likely underlying etiology of pyogenic granuloma formation?
Pyogenic granuloma, a benign reactive lesion, often presents as a red, ulcerated, and easily bleeding mass. What is the MOST likely underlying etiology of pyogenic granuloma formation?
Peripheral ossifying fibroma and peripheral giant cell granuloma are both reactive gingival lesions. What is the PRIMARY distinguishing histopathological feature that differentiates peripheral ossifying fibroma from peripheral giant cell granuloma?
Peripheral ossifying fibroma and peripheral giant cell granuloma are both reactive gingival lesions. What is the PRIMARY distinguishing histopathological feature that differentiates peripheral ossifying fibroma from peripheral giant cell granuloma?
Traumatic neuroma, a benign lesion resulting from nerve injury, is characterized by painful nodular swelling. What is the underlying pathological process in traumatic neuroma formation?
Traumatic neuroma, a benign lesion resulting from nerve injury, is characterized by painful nodular swelling. What is the underlying pathological process in traumatic neuroma formation?
Flashcards
Leukoplakia
Leukoplakia
White, non-wipeable patch with a 5-25% risk of cancer. Common on the buccal mucosa, ventral tongue, floor of the mouth, or soft palate.
Erythroplakia
Erythroplakia
Red, velvety lesion with a 90%+ rate of dysplasia or SCC. Always biopsy.
PVL (Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia)
PVL (Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia)
Multifocal white patches that are slow-growing but very aggressive, often turning into SCC.
Frictional Keratosis
Frictional Keratosis
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Actinic Cheilitis
Actinic Cheilitis
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Oral SCC (Squamous Cell Carcinoma)
Oral SCC (Squamous Cell Carcinoma)
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OSF (Oral Submucous Fibrosis)
OSF (Oral Submucous Fibrosis)
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Nicotine Stomatitis
Nicotine Stomatitis
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Deep Fungal Infections
Deep Fungal Infections
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HPV-SCC
HPV-SCC
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Toluidine Blue
Toluidine Blue
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Pemphigus Vulgaris
Pemphigus Vulgaris
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Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid (MMP)
Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid (MMP)
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Oral Lichen Planus
Oral Lichen Planus
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Irritation Fibroma
Irritation Fibroma
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Pyogenic Granuloma
Pyogenic Granuloma
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Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma
Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma
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Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma
Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma
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Traumatic Neuroma
Traumatic Neuroma
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Neurofibroma
Neurofibroma
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Mucocele
Mucocele
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Ranula
Ranula
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Dermoid Cyst
Dermoid Cyst
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Lipoma
Lipoma
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Epulis Fissuratum
Epulis Fissuratum
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Eruption Cyst
Eruption Cyst
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Gingival Cyst of the Newborn
Gingival Cyst of the Newborn
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Aphthous Ulcers (Minor)
Aphthous Ulcers (Minor)
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Aphthous Ulcers (Major)
Aphthous Ulcers (Major)
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Geographic Tongue
Geographic Tongue
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Free Lymphoid Aggregates
Free Lymphoid Aggregates
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Fordyce Granules
Fordyce Granules
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Leukoedema
Leukoedema
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Cleidocranial Dysplasia
Cleidocranial Dysplasia
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Odontogenic Keratocyst
Odontogenic Keratocyst
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Fibrous Dysplasia (Monostotic)
Fibrous Dysplasia (Monostotic)
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Jaffe-Lichtenstein Syndrome
Jaffe-Lichtenstein Syndrome
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Mumps
Mumps
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Study Notes
Malignancy & OPMDs
- Leukoplakia is a white, non-wipeable patch that carries a 5-25% risk of cancer
- Leukoplakia is Commonly found on the buccal mucosa, ventral tongue, floor of the mouth, and soft palate
- Homogeneous leukoplakia indicates low risk, while non-homogeneous (red-white, nodular, verrucous) leukoplakia indicates high risk
- Erythroplakia presents as a red, velvety lesion and carries a 90%+ risk of showing dysplasia or SCC, necessitating a biopsy
- Erythroplakia is More dangerous than leukoplakia and usually occurs on the floor of the mouth, ventral tongue, and soft palate
- Proliferative Verrucous Leukoplakia (PVL) manifests as multifocal white patches, grows slowly but aggressively
- PVL has a high risk of transforming into SCC (>70%) and recurs even after treatment
Differentials for Oral Lesions
- Frictional keratosis resolves upon trauma removal
- Hyperplastic candidiasis does not wipe off but improves with antifungals
- Lichen planus is bilateral and reticulated in appearance
- PVL presents as persistent, spreading white patches
- Malignant risk varies with dysplasia severity, with severe dysplasia at ~45%, moderate at ~20%, and mild at ~10%
- Any persistent lesion in high-risk sites (ventral tongue, floor of mouth) should be biopsied even with no dysplasia
- Actinic cheilitis is sun damage to the lower lip, presenting as crusted and ulcerated
- Actinic cheilitis requires biopsy if it persists
- Actinic cheilitis is treated with SPF, 5-FU, imiquimod, diclofenac, or surgery
- Oral SCC accounts for 90% of oral cancers and commonly appears on the lateral tongue, floor of the mouth, soft palate, lower lip, and gingiva
- Oral SCC presents Symptoms include non-healing ulcers, induration, rolled borders, red/white patches, pain, dysphagia, and speech changes
- Oral SCC risk factors include tobacco, alcohol, HPV-16/18, betel nut, chronic trauma, and immunosuppression
- Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSF) presents with fibrosis, pallor, trismus, and burning sensations, indicating a high cancer risk
- Nicotine stomatitis presents as a white palate due to heat and turns premalignant only if dysplasia is present
- Deep fungal infections (histoplasmosis, blastomycosis) can mimic SCC and present with rolled border ulcers and systemic signs
- Treatment involves itraconazole for mild cases and amphotericin B for severe cases
- Ulcers are differentiated through biopsy when chronic trauma, major aphthae, deep fungal infections, or tumors are suspected
- HPV-related SCC has a better prognosis and typically occurs in the oropharynx
- HPV-SCC is treated with surgery, chemo, and radiation and can be prevented with Gardasil 9
- Toluidine blue helps identify high-risk lesions and is valuable for guiding biopsy or surgery, but not for general dentist screening
Tobacco Cessation
- The 5 A's for tobacco cessation include Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, and Arrange
- SPIKES protocol includes Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotion, Summarize, which are cancer bad news delivery steps
- A combination of patch and gum with support offers the best treatment
- NRT patch dosages: 21 mg/day for 4 weeks, 14 mg/day for 2 weeks, and 7mg/day for 2 weeks
- Nicotine gum is administered as 4mg every 1-2 hours as needed (PRN)
- Varenicline should be started 1 week before quitting and not combined with nicotine patches or other NRT
- Bupropion is initiated at 150mg QD for 3 days, then BID and is compatible with NRT
- Bupropion is contraindicated in patients with bulimia, anorexia, seizure disorders, or those taking buprenorphine or MAO inhibitors
- Combo therapy is the most effective approach
Alcohol and Cancer Risk
- A standard drink contains 12oz of beer, 5oz of wine, or 1.5oz of liquor
- Heavy drinking is defined as ≥14 drinks/week for men and ≥7 drinks/week for women
Cancer Staging
- T1 tumors are <2cm and ≤5mm in depth
- T2 tumors are 2-4cm or 5-10mm
- T3 tumors are >4cm or >10mm
- T4 indicates invasion
- N0 signifies no nodes
- N1 signifies 1 small ipsilateral node
- N2/3 indicates multiple/large nodes
- ENE+ means aggressive
- M0 indicates no spread
- M1 indicates distant spread
Lymph Nodes
- Reactive lymph nodes are soft, tender, mobile, and <2cm
- Neoplastic lymph nodes are firm, fixed, and >2cm
- Hodgkin's lymph nodes are rubbery and persistent
Biopsy Guidelines
- Biopsy any red, white, indurated, ulcerated, or persistent lesions, especially in high-risk areas
- Biopsies are crucial, and early detection can save lives
MMP/PV
- H&E samples are taken at the lesion site
- DIF samples are taken 1 cm away from the lesion
OLP
- OLP affects non-keratinized mucosa in white areas accompanied by striations
Malignancy
- If an indurated (hardened) area is present, suspect malignancy, but if there is no induration, consider a red area
- An incisional biopsy should be performed first, and an excisional biopsy can follow if the histology confirms SCC and the margins are determined
Leukoplakia
- For small leukoplakia, an excisional biopsy is appropriate, while for large lesions, an incisional biopsy is preferred
Autoimmune & Desquamative Gingivitis Conditions
- Pemphigus vulgaris starts in the mouth with chicken wire IgG on DIF and necessitates systemic steroids
- DIF shows Supra-basilar, intra-epithelial patterns
- Mucous membrane pemphigoid (MMP) involves gingival sloughing with linear IgG/C3 at hemidesmosomes
- MMP DIF shows linear or sub-basilar deposition in the basement membrane
- Oral lichen planus involves reticular (asymptomatic) or erosive (painful) lesions with Wickham's striae and may be associated with Hepatitis C history
- Oral lichenoid lesions are linked to medication or restorative material history
- Lupus erythematosus oral ulcers mimic erosive LP and present with systemic signs like malar rash, joint pain, and fatigue
- Desquamative gingivitis requires biopsy + DIF, and is a clinical pattern seen in PV, MMP, erosive LP, and related conditions noted above
- Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG) presents with painful gingiva, interdental papilla necrosis, bleeding, halitosis, stress, and immunosuppression
- Necrotizing Ulcerative Periodontitis (NUP) features bone loss, deep interdental necrosis, minimal pocketing, and is commonly seen in HIV+ or immunocompromised patients
- Localized juvenile spongiotic gingival hyperplasia presents as a red papillary gingival lesion in kids and teens with normal hygiene and does not respond to typical hygiene practices
Infectious & Fungal Diseases
- Candidiasis appears pseudomembranous (wipes off), erythematous (burning), or hyperplastic (white, does not wipe off)
- Denture stomatitis presents as red mucosa under a denture base and is Candida-related
- Denture stomatitis is Driven by dentures, dry mouth, diabetes, steroids, and antibiotics
- Manage Denture Stomatitis With Nystatin, clotrimazole, and fluconazole
- With Mucormycosis expect rapid necrosis, black eschar, diabetes/ketoacidosis, and nasal/palatal tissue loss
- Coccidioidomycosis involves inhaled spores, lung disease, and chronic oral ulcers in the southwestern U.S. (“Valley Fever”)
- Aspergillosis presents as fungal sinusitis, immunocompromised status, and necrotic palatal or sinus lesions with septate hyphae
- Histoplasmosis leads to chronic non-healing ulcers, lung infection, and is caused by inhaled spores found primarily in Ohio & Mississippi
Bacterial & Granulomatous Diseases
- Periapical abscess leads to local swelling, non-vital tooth, pain, and possible sinus tract
- Tuberculosis presents as granulomas with caseating necrosis and may cause ulcers or nodules
- Leprosy cases present Rare oral involvement due to granulomas with foamy macrophages
- Crohn’s disease presents Cobblestone mucosa, tags, linear ulcers, lip swelling and requires confirmation with colonoscopy/endoscopy and is described as "most common GI disorder with characteristic oral lesions"
- Cat Scratch Disease: Bartonella henselae infection from kitten scratches in kids/young adults
- Cat Scratch oral clues include tender cervical/parotid nodes mimicking salivary swelling, diagnosis is clinical or via Bartonella serology and treatment involves self-limiting measures but may require azithromycin for severe cases
Viral Diseases
- Primary HSV in children presents with painful widespread vesicles and systemic signs like fever and malaise
- Recurrent intraoral herpes presents coalescing ulcers on keratinized mucosa of hard palate and attached gingiva
- Herpes Zoster/Shingles presents unilateral ulcers along CN V dermatomes, skin lesions, and is treated with antivirals and palliative care and is referred if CN V1 (eye) is involved
- Erythema Multiforme is often HSV-triggered, causing oral ulcers, hemorrhagic lip crusts, and skin target lesions that are self-limiting
- Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) is drug-triggered and presents severe mucosal ulceration and skin detachment
- Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) is a severe drug reaction with skin detachment and high mortality rates
HPV-Related Papillomas
- Squamous Papilloma presents pedunculated, finger-like lesions found more often on the palate
- HPV 6/11
- Verruca Vulgaris presents Pedunculated lesions commonly on anterior mouth in children
- HPV 1/2/4/6/7
- Condyloma Acuminatum-sessile,clustered,larger,HPV6/11
- Heck's disease features Flat-topped, multiple lesions in children, HPV 13/32
- Oral Florid Papillomatosis features Multiple, stippled/verrucous lesions in HIV+ patients and multiple HPV types
Parotid & Bilateral Swelling in Clinical Practice
- Mumps presents bilateral painful parotid swelling, fever, elevated serum amylase and results from Paramyxovirus
- Sjogren's syndrome presents dry mouth + dry eyes + parotid enlargement and autoantibodies SSA/SSB
- Obstructive sialadenitis typically affects the submandibular gland and displays sialoliths visible on occlusal film
- Sarcoidosis leads to a parotid swelling With non-caseating granulomas
Lumps and Bumps (Reactive & Gingival Masses)
- Irritation fibroma is Most common firm,trauma-related soft tissue growth
- Pyogenic granuloma presents Any age red and ulcerated common in pregnancy that bleeds easily
- Peripheral ossifying fibroma presents Reactive calcifications on gingiva and in young patients
- Peripheral giant cell granuloma presents Purple-blue gingival only In older patients and resorbs underlying bone.
- Traumatic neuroma presents A painful nerve injury after (mechanical allondynia) most commonly mental freeman area and tongue.
- Neurofibroma presents Soft tissue NF1 may appear orange
- Mucocele presents Minor salivary trauma lower labial can be minor salivary
- Ranula presents Midline floor of mouth May plunge sublingual glands
- Dermoid Cyst presents Dougy midline floor of moth May have all skin appendages
- Lipoma ONLY orange/yellow buccal mucosa
- Epidermoid Cyst presents Subcutaneous without skin appendages
- Epulis fissuratum presents a folded fibrous tissue usually due to denture flange That must be ruled out for malignancy
- Eruption Cyst presents erupting tooth in First first molars. Will need an incision that may resolve
- Gingival Cyst of Newborn: Soft tissue limited, Alveolar is keratin ridge.
Systemic & Ulcerative Conditions
- Aphthous Ulcers is a type of inflammatory
-
- MinorAphthous Ulcers are cm shallow 7-10 days .
-
- Major Aphthous Ulcers are cm, and be slow to heal and have cars.
- Herpetiform Aphthous Ulcers is a type of inflammatory with multiple and no herpes.
- Crohn like symptoms
- Iron deficiency anemia. Pale glossitis is most common
- Ulcerative Colitis with bloody cancer risk.
- Pyostomatitis Vegetans snails rare on ulcerative
Tobacco Cessation Management
- Nicotine gum, patch lozenge may cause side effects such as NRT.
- Antidepressant (Zyban) is an antidepressant and Bupropion side effects:
- Varenicline(Chantix)side effects:
- Counseling meds will be successful.
Normal Anatomy
- Geographic tongue: Has depapillarion may cause issues
- Lingual tissue is to look for the Waldeyers
- Free are common posterior
- Fordyce yellow
- Fissured: Grooved
- Harmless pigmentation.
- Filiform: Question for atrophy.
- Fungiform: Mushroom shaped contains to Anterior
- Lingual back lymphoid is for ring.
- Circumvallate: All way back of the tongue
Palate
- Add differeintal.
Adenoid & Pleomorphic
- Slowly
- Rapid: aggressive/Caused neurologie
- Painful
- Is mainly in to the partoid and platal
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