Ophthalmology Exam Questions
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Questions and Answers

A patient presents with Terrien’s marginal degeneration. Which type of astigmatism is most likely to develop as a result of this condition?

  • Mixed astigmatism
  • Irregular astigmatism
  • With-the-rule astigmatism
  • Against-the-rule astigmatism (correct)

A patient presents with a suspected orbital fracture. Given the anatomical structure of the orbit, which of the following bones is LEAST likely to be involved in an isolated fracture of the orbital floor?

  • Maxilla
  • Palatine
  • Zygoma
  • Ethmoid (correct)

Thinning of the cornea in the clear zone posterior to corneal arcus is characteristic of which condition?

  • Furrow degeneration (correct)
  • Keratoconus
  • Posterior polymorphous dystrophy
  • Pellucid marginal degeneration

During a complex orbit reconstruction, a surgeon needs to maximize the available space within the orbit. At what point posterior to the anterior orbital margin would the surgeon find the widest dimension of the bony orbit to best guide their reconstruction?

<p>1 cm (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a penetrating injury to the lateral orbital wall. Damage to which of the following bones would be MOST concerning for potential intracranial involvement?

<p>Greater wing of sphenoid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of patients diagnosed with map-dot-fingerprint dystrophy will experience recurrent corneal erosions?

<p>10% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of patients presenting with corneal erosions are found to have underlying map-dot-fingerprint dystrophy?

<p>50% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An ophthalmologist is planning a surgical approach to the superior orbit. Knowledge of the bony anatomy is critical to avoid complications. Which combination of bones forms the orbital roof?

<p>Frontal and Lesser wing of sphenoid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a complex facial trauma presents with enophthalmos. Which of the following orbital dimensions is MOST crucial to assess when planning the reconstructive surgery to correct the enophthalmos?

<p>Volume of the orbit (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 3-day-old infant presents with corneal edema and vertical posterior striae. Assuming no genetic predisposition, which etiology is the MOST likely cause of these findings?

<p>Birth trauma causing Descemet’s membrane rupture (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgeon is preparing to perform a medial orbitotomy. Which of the following bones must be carefully addressed to minimize the risk of damaging the ethmoidal air cells?

<p>Ethmoid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which systemic condition is LEAST associated with keratoconus?

<p>Rheumatoid arthritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with dysthyroid orbitopathy, the orbital volume can increase due to soft tissue and muscle enlargement. Which of the following measurements provides the BEST approximation of the normal adult orbital volume that needs to be considered for surgical decompression planning?

<p>30 cc (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ocular rosacea is most accurately characterized by which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Type IV hypersensitivity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a surgical repair of a complex orbital fracture involving multiple walls, the surgeon is MOST concerned about the structural integrity and accurate reconstruction of the original dimensions to prevent post-operative complications. Which of the following set of measurements is MOST crucial to restore?

<p>Orbital volume and shape (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) antibody does NOT typically peak during the acute phase (6-8 weeks) of an EBV infection?

<p>EBNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What strategy will NOT enhance long-term retention of the material presented in a rapid-fire question/answer format?

<p>Passively reading explanations without attempting to recall related information. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary intent of the review material, beyond simply presenting information?

<p>To serve as a study aid that improves performance on ophthalmology examinations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the review material intentionally include questions with answers lacking immediate explanations?

<p>To encourage active engagement and further investigation by the reader. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What's a potential risk associated with the review material's approach of distilling complex concepts?

<p>A potential oversimplification that may not reflect the complexities of clinical practice. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should one ideally engage with the review material to maximize its effectiveness as a learning tool?

<p>Use it interactively, covering the answers and attempting all questions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the review material aim to reinforce learning and memory retention of key facts?

<p>By using mnemonics, evoked visual imagery, and repetition of key information in different questions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes this review material from other test preparation resources?

<p>Its rapid-fire, question/answer format designed for quick review. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the author, where should readers seek direction on current practices, considering the review material's focus?

<p>From their mentors and real-world clinical experiences. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the development of the embryonic fissure, what would be the most likely outcome if closure was interrupted at the posterior pole before completion?

<p>Retinal coloboma extending from the optic disc. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the hyaloid artery failed to regress during fetal development, which of the following long-term complications would be LEAST likely?

<p>Development of a dense, visually significant cataract. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher discovers a genetic mutation that accelerates the typical timeline of optic nerve axon attrition. What is the MOST likely consequence?

<p>Decreased peripheral vision and reduced contrast sensitivity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A developing fetus is exposed to a teratogen during the fourth month of gestation. Which ocular structure is LEAST likely to be affected by this exposure?

<p>The extraocular muscles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the high blood flow in the choroid and the relatively small oxygen difference between arterial and venous blood, what is the most likely implication of this unique feature?

<p>The choroid contributes significantly to oxygenating the outer retinal layers. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child is born with an unusually prominent Bergmeister's papilla. Which developmental process was MOST likely disrupted?

<p>Regression of the hyaloid artery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If Bruch's membrane is not a true membrane despite being PAS-positive, which of the following best describes its primary functional characteristic?

<p>It serves as a selectively permeable barrier regulating molecular transport between the choroid and the RPE. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is studying the effects of a novel drug on fetal eye development. If the MOST significant impact of the drug is on the tertiary vitreous, which structure would be MOST affected?

<p>The zonular fibers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the layered structure of Bruch's membrane, which layer's alteration would most likely initiate the development of choroidal neovascularization?

<p>Basal lamina of the choriocapillaris (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the functions of the inner and outer blood-retinal barriers, what is the most likely consequence of a breakdown in both barriers?

<p>Massive retinal edema and inflammation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn exhibits a larger-than-normal angle of ocular alignment. Which of the following factors would suggest that this condition is likely to self-correct as the child develops?

<p>Normal visual acuity and ocular motility assessment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would you expect fluorescein angiography findings to differ between the foveal and extrafoveal regions, considering the structural differences in their respective RPE cells?

<p>Foveal flush would be dimmer due to increased melanosomes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a teratogen interferes with the function of primary lens fibers during early ocular development, what portion of the lens will be MOST directly affected?

<p>The embryonic nucleus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If drusen are located between the basement membrane of the RPE and the inner collagenous layer of Bruch's membrane, what direct effect would extensive drusen accumulation likely have on RPE function?

<p>Impaired waste removal from photoreceptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of retinal vascular anatomy, If an individual experiences a retinal vein occlusion at an arteriovenous crossing, which anatomical structure is most directly involved in this type of event?

<p>The shared common basement membrane (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given that Muller cell foot processes form the internal limiting membrane (ILM), what is the most direct consequence of an ILM break during epiretinal membrane (ERM) formation?

<p>Migration and proliferation of glial cells onto the retinal surface (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What underlying mechanism primarily explains the development of depressed scars following the regression of limbal follicles in trachoma?

<p>Chronic inflammation and destruction of the limbal stem cell niche, impairing tissue regeneration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with bilateral interstitial keratitis, tinnitus, vertigo, and progressive hearing loss. Systemic evaluation reveals evidence of polyarteritis nodosa. Which of the following best describes the underlying pathophysiology linking these findings?

<p>Immune-mediated vasculitis affecting the small vessels of the inner ear and the cornea. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with syphilitic interstitial keratitis. What is the most critical long-term complication to monitor for, even after successful treatment of the active infection?

<p>Delayed-onset sensorineural hearing loss occurring months or years after the acute episode. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions associated with enlarged corneal nerves is most likely to present with bilateral, symmetrical, and progressively worsening corneal nerve thickening?

<p>Refsum’s disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with corneal nerve beading and a thickened lid skin with absent lashes. Additionally, creamy white 'pearl' lesions are noted on the iris. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology underlying these findings?

<p>Granulomatous inflammation and nerve damage caused by mycobacterial infiltration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 39-year-old nurse presents with a non-healing corneal abrasion, pain, redness, and a dense ring infiltrate, despite two weeks of fortified topical antibiotics and negative cultures. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

<p>Perform a thorough history focusing on potential anesthetic abuse. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Ferry's line in the context of glaucoma filtering blebs, and what does its presence suggest about the bleb's function or the ocular environment?

<p>It suggests chronic aqueous outflow and stagnation, leading to iron deposition from tear film and corneal epithelial cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Multiple Endocrine Adenomatosis type IIb (Sipple-Gorlin syndrome). Besides medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma, what other malignancy is most closely associated with this condition and requires vigilant monitoring?

<p>Mucosal neuromas (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Ophthalmology Board Review

A text designed to help pass ophthalmology exams and improve scores.

Question/Answer Format

The text uses a rapid-fire question and answer style for quick learning.

Immediate Gratification

Students receive quick feedback when they answer questions correctly.

Learning Hooks

Techniques like mnemonics and visual imagery used to enhance memory.

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Importance of Context

Further reading around answers reinforces and retains information better.

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Interactive Text

The book encourages active participation rather than passive reading.

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Pruning Complex Concepts

Simplifying complex ideas for easier understanding in the book.

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Refer to Mentors

Seek guidance from experienced professionals in ophthalmology for best practices.

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Volume of the adult orbit

Slightly less than 30 cc or one ounce.

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Dimensions of the orbital entrance

35 mm in height and 45 mm in width.

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Maximum width of the bony orbit

Occurs 1 cm behind the anterior orbital margin.

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Depth range of the adult orbit

40-45 mm deep.

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Seven bones of the orbit

Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, lacrimal, maxilla, palatine, zygoma.

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Bones of the orbital roof

Frontal (orbital plate) and lesser wing of sphenoid.

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Bones of the lateral orbital wall

Greater wing of sphenoid and zygoma.

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Bones of the orbital floor

Palatine, maxilla, and zygoma (orbital plate).

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Choroidal blood flow

High blood flow compared to other tissues, with venous blood having only 2-3% less O2 than arterial blood.

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Bruch’s membrane

PAS-positive but not a true membrane, consists of five layers.

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Layers of Bruch’s membrane

Basal lamina of RPE, inner collagenous, middle elastic, outer collagenous, basal lamina of choriocapillaris.

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Permeability of Bruch’s membrane

Bruch's membrane is permeable to fluorescein.

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Subretinal neovascular membranes

Potential complication of a break in Bruch's membrane.

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Blood-retina barrier

Outer barrier formed by zonulae occludentes and adherentes of the RPE; inner barrier by the endothelium of retinal vessels.

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Foveal RPE cells vs. extrafoveal RPE cells

Foveal RPE cells are taller and have more melanosomes than extrafoveal RPE cells.

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Drusen location

Found between the basement membrane of the RPE and the inner collagenous layer of Bruch's membrane.

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Embryonic fissure closure

Closure begins inferiorly between optic nerve and iris, progressing anteriorly and posteriorly.

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Hyaloid artery enclosure

Complete fusion of the embryonic fissure encloses the hyaloid artery within the globe.

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Retina development completion

The retina completes development when remodeling of foveal elements finishes around 4 years of age.

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Transient nerve fiber layer

The inner plexiform layer of the retina before maturation is known as the transient nerve fiber layer of Chievitz.

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Optic nerve axons at 16 weeks

At 16 weeks gestation, there are approximately 3.7 million optic nerve axons.

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Primary lens fibers and vesicle

Primary lens fibers fill the lens vesicle by day 45 of gestation.

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Eyelid folds fusion

During the third month of gestation, the eyelid folds meet and fuse together.

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Effects of teratogens

Teratogens are substances that increase the incidence of physical anomalies in a developing embryo.

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Limbal Follicles in Trachoma

Regressed limbal follicles that leave depressed scars in the cornea.

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Reiss-Bückler’s Dystrophy

An autosomal dominant disorder affecting the cornea, leading to corneal dystrophy.

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Interstitial Keratitis Causes

Conditions causing this include viral, bacterial, and parasitic infections.

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Phlyctenules Reaction Type

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to microbial proteins.

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Cogan’s Syndrome

A bilateral interstitial keratitis associated with deafness and vertigo.

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Polyarteritis Nodosa Association

Systemic disease that may be associated with Cogan’s syndrome.

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Corneal Nerve Enlargement Causes

Causes include Keratoconus, MEA, Reiss-Bückler’s dystrophy, and more.

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Ferry’s Line

An iron deposit in the cornea near a filtering bleb, indicating abnormal processes.

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Terrien’s marginal degeneration

Can lead to 'against-the-rule' astigmatism due to corneal thinning.

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Furrow degeneration

Thinning area posterior to corneal arcus in the eye.

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Map-dot-fingerprint erosions

10% of patients with map-dot-fingerprint have corneal erosions.

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Corneal erosions and map-dot-fingerprint

50% of patients with corneal erosions have map-dot-fingerprint.

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Posterior striae in infants

Progressive corneal edema in newborns may indicate Birth trauma.

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Systemic disorders linked to keratoconus

Includes disorders like atopic dermatitis and Down’s syndrome.

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Type IV hypersensitivity in ocular conditions

Ocular rosacea invokes a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

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Fungal identification stains

Use Gomori, PAS, or Giemsa stains for fungal detection.

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Study Notes

Ophthalmology Board Review

  • This book is a concise, rapid, and effective review for ophthalmology boards.
  • It covers all topics of the ophthalmology board exam.
  • It includes 3000+ rapid-fire questions with the correct answers only.
  • It contains essential facts for exam success.

Dedication

  • Dedicated to Dr. Michael Griffith
  • Dedicated to Drs. Jack and Milagros Arroyo, Benjamin Cabrera, Victor Caparas, Cesar Espiritu, and Alnette Tan
  • Dedicated to Christine A. Cork
  • Dedicated to Dr. Jesus V. Tamesis

Table of Contents

  • Fundamentals of Ophthalmology
  • External Disease and Cornea
  • Glaucoma
  • Lens and Cataract
  • Neuro-Ophthalmology
  • Optics and Refraction
  • Orbit and Oculoplastics
  • Pediatric Ophthalmology and Strabismus
  • Retina and Vitreous
  • Uveitis
  • Ocular Pharmacology and Therapeutics
  • Ocular Trauma
  • Bibliography

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Ophthalmology exam questions covering topics such as corneal degeneration, orbital fractures, and map-dot-fingerprint dystrophy. Questions focus on diagnosis and potential complications. Perfect for ophthalmology students or professionals.

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