OMFS and Ophthalmology - Main
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is the PRIMARY characteristic of glaucoma?

  • Increased sensitivity to light.
  • Clouding of the lens.
  • Development of drusen in the macula.
  • Damage to the optic nerve. (correct)

What is the MOST common symptom associated with cataracts?

  • Gradual clouding of the lens (correct)
  • Intense eye pain
  • Double vision
  • Sudden loss of vision

Which of the following is a key difference between 'dry' and 'wet' macular degeneration?

  • Wet AMD is more common and progresses more slowly than dry AMD.
  • Dry AMD affects peripheral vision, while wet AMD affects central vision.
  • Wet AMD involves leakage and hemorrhage from blood vessels, while dry AMD does not. (correct)
  • Dry AMD involves the growth of abnormal blood vessels, while wet AMD does not.

A patient presents with a red, painful eye. Which condition should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

<p>Uveitis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old woman experiences sudden vision loss in her right eye, accompanied by fronto-temporal headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw pain when chewing. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

<p>Temporal arteritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with temporal arteritis and treated with high-dose steroids. Which of the following is an IMPORTANT consideration during the treatment?

<p>Prophylaxis for peptic ulcer and osteoporosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of macular degeneration, what is the role of the choroid in the 'wet' form of the disease?

<p>It is the source of blood vessels that leak exudate and hemorrhage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with acute glaucoma is likely to present with which of the following symptoms that differentiates it from open-angle glaucoma?

<p>Sudden, painful vision loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are bisphosphonates?

<p>Medications primarily used to strengthen bones and prevent fractures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on long-term steroid therapy may need supplementation prior to dental work if the steroid use has been for how long?

<p>Three weeks or more (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Sjogren's syndrome, which glands are primarily affected?

<p>Lacrimal and salivary glands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the least aggressive type of lacrimal gland tumor listed?

<p>Pleomorphic adenoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is orbital cellulitis considered a serious condition?

<p>It can cause irreversible sight loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with toothache alongside signs of orbital cellulitis. Which paranasal sinus is least likely to be the source of infection?

<p>Sphenoid sinus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ramsay Hunt syndrome is associated with which cranial nerve ganglion?

<p>Geniculate ganglion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Sjogren's syndrome presents with unilateral parotid swelling, increasing fatigue, and night sweats. Given the known risks associated with Sjogren's syndrome, which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate next step?

<p>Perform a fine needle aspiration (FNA) of the parotid gland followed by flow cytometry and clonality studies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which regulatory body governs the specialty of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (OMFS)?

<p>General Medical Council (GMC) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST accurate distinction between Oral Surgery and Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (OMFS) regarding their regulatory oversight?

<p>OMFS is regulated by the General Medical Council (GMC), whereas Oral Surgery is regulated by the General Dental Council (GDC). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following procedures falls within the typical scope of practice for an Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon (OMFS)?

<p>Correction of facial deformity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of ophthalmology, the term 'whiteness' in cataract is used to describe:

<p>Opacity within the lens of the eye. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fundoscopy, a diagnostic procedure in ophthalmology, is particularly useful in detecting early signs of which condition due to its ability to visualize the retina and optic nerve?

<p>Multiple Sclerosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Visual Acuity (VA) is defined as the angular measurement of the eye's ability to:

<p>Resolve the minimal separation between two distinct points. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A visual acuity recording of 6/12 (m) indicates that:

<p>The patient can see at 6 meters what a person with normal vision can see at 12 meters. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is known to have well-managed hypertension and no history of diabetes undergoes a fundoscopy. The report mentions 'darker spots' and 'vessel damage'. Considering the information provided, which of the following is the MOST likely interpretation of these findings?

<p>These findings are consistent with potential damage from atherosclerosis, possibly exacerbated by poorly controlled hypertension or undiagnosed diabetes despite the patient's history. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the generally accepted standard for normal visual acuity in a person who wears corrective lenses?

<p>6/6 or better (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the standard chart used for assessing visual acuity?

<p>Snellen chart (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected orbital blowout fracture demonstrates difficulty looking upwards and reports double vision. According to the provided information, what is the MOST probable cause of these symptoms?

<p>Herniation of intra-orbital fat (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In orbital blowout fractures, numbness is a common symptom. Damage to which nerve is primarily responsible for this sensory deficit?

<p>Infraorbital nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient with a suspected orbital blowout fracture using a CT scan, what specific anatomical structure is of primary interest for evaluating the injury?

<p>Orbital floor (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Enophthalmos, or the sinking of the eyeball, is a potential long-term complication of orbital blowout fractures. What is the primary mechanism that leads to enophthalmos in these injuries?

<p>Expansion of orbital volume (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient, one year post-orbital blowout fracture, presents with delayed onset diplopia and enophthalmos. What is the MOST likely explanation for this late presentation?

<p>Inadequate initial restoration of orbital volume (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When choosing between titanium mesh and calvarial bone graft for orbital floor reconstruction, what is the MOST critical long-term consideration regarding the trade-off between these materials?

<p>Titanium mesh is biocompatible and convenient, but calvarial bone graft may provide superior long-term volume stability and biocompatibility. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the regulatory oversight for Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (OMFS) in comparison to Oral Surgery?

<p>OMFS is regulated by both the General Medical Council (GMC) and the General Dental Council (GDC), whereas Oral Surgery is regulated only by the GDC. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeon (OMFS) is LEAST likely to perform which of the following procedures as part of their routine practice?

<p>Rhinoplasty for purely cosmetic indications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected orbital blowout fracture reports numbness in the cheek and upper lip. Which nerve is MOST likely affected?

<p>Infraorbital nerve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who sustained an orbital floor fracture is asked to look upwards during an examination. Which of the following observations would STRONGLY suggest entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle?

<p>Inability to elevate the eye with associated diplopia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with suspected bacterial infection of their contact lenses. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in management?

<p>Discontinue contact lens wear and initiate appropriate topical antibiotics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of ophthalmology, what does '20-20 vision' signify regarding a patient's visual acuity (VA)?

<p>The patient can see the 20th line of a visual acuity chart at a distance of 20 feet. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely reason for delayed onset enophthalmos following an orbital floor fracture?

<p>Gradual increase in orbital volume due to bone remodeling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's visual acuity (VA) is recorded as 6/12 (m). How should this measurement be interpreted?

<p>The patient can see at 6 meters what a person with normal vision can see at 12 meters. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of reconstructing the orbital floor following a blowout fracture?

<p>To restore the pre-injury orbital volume and prevent enophthalmos and diplopia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with diplopia and restriction in upward gaze following blunt trauma to the eye. The CT scan reveals an orbital floor fracture with herniation of orbital contents into the maxillary sinus but without direct muscle involvement. What is the MOST likely cause of the patient's diplopia?

<p>Entrapment of intra-orbital fat restricting movement of the inferior rectus muscle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a fundoscopy examination of a patient with a long-standing history of poorly controlled hypertension, what specific retinal findings would MOST strongly suggest hypertensive retinopathy?

<p>Presence of cotton wool spots, flame hemorrhages, and arteriovenous nicking. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A healthy individual is tested for visual acuity using a Snellen chart while wearing their glasses. Which of the following results indicates normal visual acuity?

<p>6/6 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing assessment to determine the effect of a new medication on their eyesight. Which of the following BEST reflects the role of visual acuity (VA) measurement in this scenario?

<p>Monitor for any changes in patient's ability to see. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is MOST likely indicated if fundoscopy identified multiple issues?

<p>Multiple Sclerosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an orbital floor reconstruction, what is the MOST likely reason for an ophthalmologist to be involved in 'optic mapping'?

<p>To evaluate the integrity of the optic nerve and visual pathways (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial instruction to give a patient when assessing their visual acuity using a Snellen chart?

<p>Wear their glasses or contact lenses (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient requires dental work and has been taking oral steroids daily for the past four weeks due to a chronic inflammatory condition. According to the provided information, which of the following is the MOST appropriate consideration regarding their steroid therapy?

<p>Steroid supplementation prior to dental work may be necessary due to the duration of steroid use. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with acute, painful vesicular rash along the distribution of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. The text emphasizes 'NEVER DO THIS' alongside an image related to this condition. Which of the following actions is MOST critical in managing this patient?

<p>Initiating immediate intravenous acyclovir therapy to prevent serious complications. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Sjogren's syndrome, the text highlights the involvement of specific glands and an associated systemic risk. Which of the following BEST represents the primary glands affected and the potential systemic complication mentioned?

<p>Lacrimal and salivary glands, with an increased risk of lymphoma development. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of acute glaucoma, what anatomical relationship is MOST directly involved in the differentiation between open-angle and closed-angle types?

<p>The angle formed by the cornea and the iris. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) reports experiencing a recent onset of eye redness and pain. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely to be considered in the initial differential diagnosis?

<p>Uveitis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The text lists several types of lacrimal gland tumors, including pleomorphic adenoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma. Which of the following statements BEST differentiates pleomorphic adenoma from adenoid cystic carcinoma in terms of their biological behavior?

<p>Pleomorphic adenoma is typically benign with slow growth and potential for malignant transformation, while adenoid cystic carcinoma is inherently malignant. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms BEST describes how 'wet' macular degeneration leads to central vision loss (scotoma)?

<p>Blood vessels from the choroid leak exudate and hemorrhage, disrupting the retinal structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with orbital cellulitis. Based on the anatomical relationship described in the text, which paranasal sinus is MOST frequently implicated as the primary source of infection in orbital cellulitis?

<p>Ethmoid sinus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST likely mechanism of action of Phacoemulsification in the treatment of cataracts?

<p>Use of ultrasonic vibrations to break up and remove the clouded lens, followed by insertion of a plastic lens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with suspected orbital cellulitis. Which combination of signs and symptoms from the list below would be MOST indicative of orbital cellulitis, requiring urgent Maxfax assessment and differentiating it from pre-septal cellulitis?

<p>Pyrexia, proptosis, restricted eye movements, and an affected pupil. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ramsay Hunt syndrome, as described in the text, is associated with herpes zoster infection affecting a specific cranial nerve ganglion. Which ganglion is primarily involved in Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

<p>Geniculate ganglion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old patient presents with a one-month history of fronto-temporal headaches, scalp tenderness, unintentional weight loss, and jaw pain when chewing. Which of the following is the MOST critical next step in managing this patient's condition?

<p>Administering high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with jaw pain on prolonged chewing of food is MOST likely experiencing which of the following conditions?

<p>Temporal Arteritis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The text mentions that effective management of certain conditions requires 'Working Knowledge' and 'Overlaps with OMFS/OS/Oral Medicine'. Considering the conditions discussed, which of the following BEST exemplifies a scenario requiring this interdisciplinary knowledge?

<p>Management of a patient with orbital cellulitis secondary to sinus infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is peptic ulcer prophylaxis typically administered alongside high-dose steroid treatment?

<p>To mitigate the increased risk of gastric erosion and ulceration associated with steroid use. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient being treated with long-term oral steroids is also prescribed prophylaxis for osteoporosis. What is the underlying reason for this preventative measure?

<p>Steroids directly stimulate bone resorption and inhibit bone formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

OMFS Definition

A surgical specialty regulated by the General Medical Council, requiring both dental and medical degrees plus surgical diplomas.

OMFS Scope

Includes trauma surgery, cancer surgery, facial deformity correction, cleft lip/palate repair, salivary gland surgery, and major dento-alveolar surgery.

Cataract

Clouding of the lens in the eye, leading to blurred vision.

Fundoscopy

Examination of the fundus (back of the eye) to detect signs of diseases like multiple sclerosis or hypertension.

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Macular Degeneration

Breakdown of the macula, leading to central vision loss.

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Hypertension Eye Signs

Darker spots in the fundus caused by damage to blood vessels due to high blood pressure.

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Atherosclerosis/Diabetes - Eye

Damage to blood vessels in the eyes as a secondary effect of atherosclerosis and diabetes.

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Visual Acuity (VA)

Angular measurement of the smallest separation between two objects that can be resolved by the eye.

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Normal Visual Acuity

Normal visual acuity is 6/6 or better, measured one eye at a time with glasses if needed.

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Orbital Blowout Fracture

An orbital blowout fracture is a common injury where the bones of the eye socket break, often affecting eye movement.

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Diplopia

Diplopia is double vision and can be a symptom of an orbital blowout fracture.

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Tethering (Eye)

Tethering in orbital injuries refers to the sensation of the eye feeling stuck or restricted in its movement.

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Infraorbital Nerve Damage

Numbness in orbital injuries can occur due to damage to the infraorbital nerve, which runs through the infraorbital foramen.

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Enophthalmos

Enophthalmos is the sinking of the eyeball into the eye socket, often due to an increase in the orbital volume after a fracture.

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Titanium Mesh (Orbital Repair)

Titanium mesh is commonly used in the reconstruction of the orbital floor after a blowout fracture.

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Calvarial Bone Graft

Calvarial bone grafts, taken from the scalp bone, can be used in longer-term reconstruction of the orbital floor.

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Steroid Side Effects

Medications that can cause diabetes and hypertension as side effects with long-term use, necessitating monitoring.

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Zoster - Ophthalmic

Condition requiring Acyclovir due to risk of blindness.

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Sjogren Syndrome

Autoimmune condition affecting lacrimal and salivary glands, increasing the risk of lymphoma.

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Pleomorphic Adenoma

A common benign lacrimal gland tumor, slow-growing, painless, potentially causing bone erosion. Requires surgical removal and may become malignant.

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Orbital Cellulitis

Infection of the tissues surrounding the eye, often originating from sinus infections.

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Sinus Source of Infection

Ethmoid sinus is the most common source of infection, followed by Frontal, then Maxillary.

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Orbital Cellulitis Treatment

IV antibiotics and surgical drainage.

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Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

Condition affecting the geniculate ganglion caused by herpes zoster, treated with IV Acyclovir.

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Glaucoma

Damage to the optic nerve, potentially leading to vision loss. Can be open (painless) or closed (painful) angle types.

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Uveitis

Inflammation of the uvea (middle layer of the eye). Linked to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).

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Macular Degeneration (AMD/ARMD)

A condition causing central vision loss (scotoma). 'Dry' and 'Wet' forms exist, with the wet form involving blood vessel leakage.

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Wet Macular Degeneration

Blood vessels from the choroid leak exudate and hemorrhage, severely impacting vision. Occurs in 'wet' macular degeneration.

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Giant Cell Arteritis Symptoms

Fronto-temporal headaches, scalp tenderness, weight loss, jaw pain during chewing, shoulder aches, and vision loss.

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Giant Cell Arteritis Treatment

High-dose IV methylprednisolone followed by oral steroids for 2 years, with prophylaxis for peptic ulcer and osteoporosis.

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Giant Cell Arteritis (GCA)

An inflammatory condition of arteries that can cause sudden vision loss, headaches, and jaw pain.

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Counting Fingers Only

Counting fingers only instead of reading letters on a chart indicates severely reduced visual acuity

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Restricted upward gaze

Inability to move the eye upwards, often seen in orbital blowout fractures.

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Visual disturbance - action

Visual disturbance warrants immediate assessment by a professional.

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Titanium Mesh (Orbit)

Material used to reconstruct the orbital floor after a fracture.

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Calvarial Bone Graft (Orbit)

Bone graft taken from the scalp bone to reconstruct the orbital floor.

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Late Enophthalmos

Sinking of the eye that occurs long after the initial injury.

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Optic Mapping

Specialized mapping of the eye to decide treatment.

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Glaucoma Angle Types

The angle between the cornea and iris can be open (painless) or closed (painful).

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Cataract Treatment

Surgical removal of the clouded lens using ultrasonic waves, followed by replacement with plastic lenses.

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Macular Degeneration Symptom

Loss of central vision (scotoma).

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Wet AMD Characteristics

Blood vessels from the choroid leak exudate and hemorrhage.

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Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (OMFS)

A surgical specialty requiring both dental and medical degrees, focusing on the mouth, face, and jaws.

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Emergency Airway Management (OMFS)

Management of trauma cases affecting the airway.

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Ophthalmology

A medical specialty focused on the eye and its disorders.

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Why Measure Visual Acuity?

Measuring the eye's ability to distinguish fine details.

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20/20 Vision

Being able to see the 20th line on a Snellen chart at 20 feet.

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Understanding VA Recording (6/12)

Distance you are from chart / Distance a 'normal' person can see the same line.

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Visual Acuity Measurement

To determine how well someone can see for everyday tasks.

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Steroid Use & Dental Work

Medications like bisphosphonates may be needed before dental work if a patient has been on steroids for 3 weeks or longer.

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Zoster - Ophthalmic Emergency

An infection close to the eye and requires immediate attention.

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Pleomorphic Adenoma (Lacrimal)

A common benign tumor of the lacrimal gland that requires surgical removal where in the future there is chance it may become malignant.

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Sinus Source (Orbital Cellulitis)

Ethmoid sinus is the most common, followed by frontal, then maxillary.

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Orbital Cellulitis Signs

Restricted eye movements, pupil affected.

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