77. One-Period Binomial Model

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Questions and Answers

In order to value an option with a one-period binomial model, three things an analyst would need to know are:

  • the risk-adjusted discount rate, the volatility of the price of the underlying asset, and option exercise price.
  • the probability of an up-move, the option exercise price, and the current asset price.
  • the risk-free rate, the volatility of the price of the underlying, and the current asset price. (correct)

If a European put option is trading at a higher price than that implied from the binomial model, investors can earn a return in excess of the risk-free rate by:

  • buying the underlying, selling the call, and investing at the risk-free rate.
  • buying the underlying, buying the call, and borrowing at the risk-free rate.
  • selling the underlying, buying the call, and investing at the risk-free rate. (correct)

We can use the risk-free rate to value an option with a one-period binomial model because:

  • combining options with the underlying asset in a specific ratio will produce a risk-free future payment. (correct)
  • options investors are risk-neutral, on average.
  • combining put and call options in specific ratio can produce a risk-free future payment.

Consider a stock that will have a value of either 22 or 14 one year from now. If the risk-free rate is 5%, what is the ratio of shares to short call options with an exercise price of 18 for a portfolio that will have the same value at expiration regardless of the stock price at the end of the year?

<p>0.50. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

One method of valuing a call option with a one-period binomial model involves:

<p>finding a combination of the call option and the underlying that will have the same value regardless of the price of the underlying at expiration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An option's value is affected by:

<p>expected probabilities of underlying price increases or decreases only. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the effect on the no-arbitrage price of a call option on Drinsky Inc. (Drinsky) shares? A decrease in the risk-free rate will:

<p>decrease Drinsky's call option price. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A stock's price is currently $30 and at the end of three months when its options expire, the stock price is expected to either go up or down by 10%. What is the value of a call option with a strike price of $31? (Assume a risk-free rate of 3% for the 3-month period)

<p>$1.30. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding risk-neutrality is most accurate?

<p>Risk-neutral pricing can be applied to any model that uses future underlying asset price movements. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Binomial model inputs

The risk-free rate, volatility of the underlying asset, and current asset price.

Profiting from an overpriced put, European option

Sell the underlying, buy the call, and invest at the risk-free rate.

Risk-free rate in option valuation

Combining options with the underlying asset in a specific ratio produces a risk-free future payment, enabling risk-free valuation.

Valuing a call option

Find a combination of the call option and the underlying that will have the same value regardless of the price of the underlying at expiration.

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Option Price

An option's value is only affected by the expected probabilities.

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Interest rates and call option prices

Falling interest rates will decrease the value of a call option.

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Risk-neutral pricing

Risk-neutral pricing can be applied to any model that uses future underlying asset price movements.

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Study Notes

Valuing Options with the One-Period Binomial Model

  • To value an option using the one-period binomial model, the risk-free rate, the volatility of the underlying asset's price, and the current asset price are needed.
  • The risk-adjusted rate of return and the actual probability of an up-move are not required.

Exploiting Mispricing in European Put Options

  • If a European put option trades at a higher price than the binomial model implies, investors can earn excess returns by selling the underlying asset, buying a call option, and investing at the risk-free rate.
  • Use put-call parity and rearrange to isolate the put option: S0 + p0 = c0 + X(1 + r)–T, which leads to p0 = c0 – S0 + X(1 + r)–T.
  • When a put is overpriced, it should be sold.
  • The components of the right side of the rearranged equation should be transacted by buying a call, selling the underlying asset, and investing at the risk-free rate.

Risk-Free Rate and Option Valuation

  • The risk-free rate can be used to value an option with a one-period binomial model.
  • Combining options with the underlying asset in a specific ratio results in a risk-free future payment.
  • A portfolio can be constructed with an option position and a position in the underlying asset.
  • The portfolio value at option expiration is the same for both an up-move and a down-move.

Hedge Ratio Calculation and Portfolio Value

  • Consider a stock with a future value of either 22 or 14 one year from now, with a risk-free rate of 5%.
  • The ratio of shares to short call options with an exercise price of 18 for a risk-free portfolio at expiration is 0.50.
  • With a stock price of 22 at expiration, the short call payoff is -4, and with a stock price of 14, the call payoff is 0.
  • The hedge ratio is calculated as (4 – 0) / (22 – 14) = 0.5.
  • The portfolio value is 0.5(22) – 4 = 0.5(14) = 7.
  • A portfolio of 0.5 shares of stock to 1 short call option yields the same portfolio value whether the stock price at expiration is 22 or 14.

Valuing Call Options with the Binomial Model

  • Valuing a call option with a one-period binomial model involves finding a combination of the call option and the underlying asset that will have the same value regardless of the underlying asset's price at expiration.
  • A portfolio combining the call option with the underlying asset can have the same value at option expiration, regardless of an up-move or down-move in the asset price.
  • The present value of this portfolio is the discounted present value of the certain future payment, used to value the option.
  • Option valuation models based on risk neutrality use risk-neutral pseudo-probabilities of an up-move and a down-move, not actual probabilities.

Factors Affecting Option Value

  • An option's value is influenced by expected probabilities of underlying price increases or decreases.
  • The actual probabilities do not affect the value.

Impact of Risk-Free Rate on Call Option Price

  • A decrease in the risk-free rate will decrease the value of a call option.
  • Decreasing the risk-free rate increases the risk-neutral probability (Ï€) of a price decrease and decreases the present value of the expected option payoff.
  • An increased probability of a downward price move reduces the expected payoff from the call, decreasing the call option value.
  • These effects reduce the call option value as the return on risk-free investments decreases.

Call Option Valuation Example

  • A stock is priced at $30.
  • At the end of three months, options expire, with the stock price expected to rise or fall by 10%.
  • The value of a call option with a strike price of $31 is $1.30.

Risk-Neutral Pricing

  • Risk-neutral pricing can be applied to any model using future underlying asset price movements.
  • Risk-neutral pricing requires expected volatility, not expected return, to price an option.
  • Risk-neutral probabilities are determined using the risk-free rate and assumed "up gross returns" and "down gross returns," not investor views on risk.

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