Obstetrics and Gynecology Overview
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Questions and Answers

Which procedure involves surgically shortening the cervix to prevent premature dilation?

  • Hysterectomy
  • Salpingectomy
  • Cerclage (correct)
  • Dilation and curettage (D&C)

A patient in her third trimester presents with sudden onset of vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a rigid abdomen, which condition is most consistent with these signs and symptoms?

  • Placenta previa
  • Placenta accreta
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Placenta abruptio (correct)

A patient is experiencing excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to dehydration, electrolyte-imbalance, and weight loss. What condition do these symptoms indicate?

  • Preeclampsia
  • Threatened abortion
  • Hyperemesis gravidarum (correct)
  • Ectopic pregnancy

Which of the following is a potential danger directly associated with isoimmunization in pregnancy?

<p>Fetal anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'viable' mean in the context of pregnancy?

<p>The fetus is capable of surviving outside the uterus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these procedures involves the removal of an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Salpingostomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum has elevated levels of what substances in their blood and urine as a result of persistent vomiting and dehydration?

<p>Ketones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions involves abnormal growth of trophoblastic tissue, potentially leading to a tumor?

<p>Hydatidiform mole (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is being monitored for dehydration. Which lab result would be most indicative of dehydration?

<p>Increased hematocrit (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action is most important for a nurse to take when caring for a patient with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Administering antiemetics and IV fluids as prescribed (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of therapeutic communication when a patient misses prenatal appointments?

<p>Understanding the reasons for missed appointments and building rapport (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient at 10 weeks gestation experiences vaginal bleeding and cramping. Which type of abortion is most likely?

<p>Threatened abortion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of spontaneous abortion?

<p>Controlled maternal diabetes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of fetal viability?

<p>The fetus can live outside the uterus after 20 weeks of gestation or weighing more than 500g (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences a spontaneous abortion but some products of conception remain. Which type of abortion does this indicate?

<p>Incomplete abortion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a spontaneous abortion, a patient continues to experience heavy bleeding. Which procedure might be required?

<p>Dilation and curettage (D&amp;C) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk factor associated with hyperemesis gravidarum according to the provided information?

<p>Elevated levels of estradiol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential fetal complication resulting from the dehydration associated with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Inadequate oxygenation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports dark urine, bloody vomitus, and abdominal pain. What should be the nurse's most immediate action?

<p>Initiate an urgent referral to the healthcare provider (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of weight loss is typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a recommended dietary measure for a patient with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Consuming large meals to ensure adequate nutrition (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of monitoring ketones in patients with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>To track the use of fat stores for energy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lab finding is NOT a primary indicator of hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Increased urine output (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is theorized to cause smooth muscle relaxation and delayed gastric emptying, contributing to hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Progesterone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is teaching a patient how to monitor for dehydration at home. Which signs should the nurse mention?

<p>Dark urine and reduced urine output (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common medication used to control bleeding by causing uterine contractions after a spontaneous abortion?

<p>Methylergonovine (Methergine) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common non-pharmacological treatment that can be effective for some women with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Acupuncture and acupressure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum past 20 weeks' gestation. Which condition is she at an increased risk of developing?

<p>Pre-eclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiences the death of a fetus during the first half of pregnancy; however, the fetus is not expelled. What type of abortion does this describe?

<p>Missed abortion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an appropriate first-line medication that may be used to treat hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Vitamin B6 and Doxylamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of missed prenatal appointments states, 'My grandmother has answered my questions. I am really doing fine.' What is the most appropriate therapeutic response from the nurse?

<p>While that is helpful, we can also check on your and your baby's progress. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a nurse recognize regarding a patient's ability to adhere to a treatment plan?

<p>It is affected by the patient’s personal experiences, attitudes, and culture. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'adherence' refer to in the context of patient care?

<p>The extent to which the patient follows health-care provider's instructions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A woman in her first trimester who is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting may be diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum, what is MOST important for the nurse to assess?

<p>The patient’s laboratory findings indicating dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, or nutritional deficit. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient with hyperemesis gravidarum requires hospitalization, which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

<p>Administration of IV fluids and antiemetics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT directly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum?

<p>Weight gain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these factors does NOT contribute to the development of hyperemesis gravidarum, based on the information provided?

<p>Low levels of progesterone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with hyperemesis gravidarum is experiencing dry mouth, poor skin turgor, and concentrated urine. Which of the following is the most appropriate primary nursing diagnosis?

<p>Deficient fluid volume (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary advantage of using a suction D&C for managing a missed abortion before 13 weeks?

<p>The procedure is scheduled and occurs at a known time. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is typically administered before misoprostol in a medical abortion protocol for an incomplete abortion?

<p>Mifepristone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected ectopic pregnancy presents with severe abdominal pain and shoulder pain. What is the most likely cause of the shoulder pain?

<p>Blood leaking into the abdominal cavity and irritating the diaphragm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key criterion for using methotrexate to treat an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>The fetus must be less than 3.5 cm long and lack cardiac activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being treated with methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. What dietary restriction is important for her to follow?

<p>Avoid foods high in folic acid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a D&C for a missed abortion, what should a nurse advise a patient to report as a warning sign?

<p>Heavy, bright-red bleeding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing to administer Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM). Which patient requires this medication?

<p>An Rh-negative woman with a first trimester abortion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Elevated BMI. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'ectopic' mean in relation to pregnancy?

<p>A pregnancy located outside the uterus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When advising a patient about medical management of a missed abortion, what should a nurse explain about the timing of tissue passage?

<p>Tissue passage typically happens within a few days of receiving medical therapy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications would likely be administered to control bleeding following a miscarriage or abortion?

<p>Oxytocin or methylergonovine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being taught about iron intake post-abortion. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice?

<p>Take iron supplements with orange juice between meals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient had an elective abortion and has since returned to discuss family planning. When should a provider advise her to wait before attempting another pregnancy?

<p>When the body has had time to rest and recover. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides bleeding or infection, what is another potential risk associated with the medical management of a missed abortion?

<p>Possible incomplete abortion or medication failure. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an abortion, a nurse is educating a patient, what should the patient know regarding resuming sexual activity?

<p>Avoid sexual activity and the use of tampons or douches until advised by the health care provider. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a stable blood pressure and pulse rate indicate after an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>No active bleeding is occurring and the patient does not have any of the hematologic issues. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What surgical procedure involves removing the products of conception from the fallopian tube through a small incision?

<p>Salpingostomy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is RhoGAM administered to an Rh-negative woman after an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>Within 72 hours to prevent isoimmunization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these signs indicates that a patient with an ectopic pregnancy is experiencing hypovolemic shock?

<p>Decreased blood pressure and increased heart rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

<p>Hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a complete molar pregnancy, what is the origin of the genetic material?

<p>All genetic material comes from two sperm fertilizing an egg with no DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key diagnostic feature of hydatidiform mole?

<p>Serum hCG levels that may be as high as 100,000 mIU/mL, indicating rapid trophoblastic growth. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is a molar pregnancy typically managed?

<p>Suction evacuation and curettage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of administering IV oxytocin after the evacuation of a molar pregnancy?

<p>To contract the uterus and prevent hemorrhage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication following a molar pregnancy?

<p>Choriocarcinoma, a fast-growing cancer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a chest x-ray ordered after the diagnosis of hydatidiform mole?

<p>To establish a baseline for future monitoring because the lungs are the primary site of metastases for choriocarcinoma. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an appropriate patient teaching point for patients who have experienced an ectopic pregnancy?

<p>It is common to experience the natural grieving process for 6-12 months after pregnancy loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'salpingectomy' refer to?

<p>Surgical removal of the fallopian tube. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a partial molar pregnancy?

<p>A tumor in which the abnormal growth has some fetal tissue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should patients avoid pregnancy for after a hydatidiform mole?

<p>9-12 months (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a critical assessment finding for a patient who has had a hydatidiform mole, indicating potential shock?

<p>Restlessness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to administer RhoGAM to an Rh-negative woman following a hydatidiform mole?

<p>To prevent isoimmunization (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who had a hydatidiform mole should be instructed to avoid which activity until cleared by her healthcare provider?

<p>Sexual activity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for consistent follow-up after a hydatidiform mole?

<p>To monitor serum hCG levels due to the risk of choriocarcinoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why would a subsequent pregnancy be carefully monitored by early sonographic evaluation after a hydatidiform mole?

<p>To assess for an increased risk of hydatidiform mole recurrence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the conceptual cornerstone of care for women experiencing bleeding disorders of pregnancy, such as spontaneous abortion, and placenta previa?

<p>Perfusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is essential for a patient experiencing poor perfusion during a pregnancy-related bleeding event?

<p>Monitoring capillary refill time (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major risk to a fetus in late pregnancy with a placental attachment problem?

<p>Insufficient oxygen or nourishment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of placenta previa?

<p>History of cesarean birth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with placenta previa is exhibiting painless, bright-red bleeding. What type of assessment should be avoided?

<p>Vaginal cervical examination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of placenta previa does the placenta completely cover the cervical opening?

<p>Complete (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary medical management approach for a complete placenta previa?

<p>Scheduled cesarean delivery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a marginal placenta previa indicate?

<p>The placenta is next to the cervix but does not cover the opening (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a laboring patient is experiencing vaginal bleeding, why is it essential to avoid a vaginal cervical examination?

<p>It could indicate a placenta previa (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with placenta previa is being monitored with NSTs. Why?

<p>To evaluate fetal status during a bleeding episode (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended daily caloric intake for a woman carrying twins?

<p>3,000 Kcal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom that may indicate multiple gestation pregnancy?

<p>Unexplained weight loss in the second trimester (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended weight gain for a woman carrying twins during pregnancy?

<p>35 to 45 pounds (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common complication associated with multiple gestation pregnancies?

<p>Preterm labor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is RhoGAM administered to an Rh-negative mother to prevent isoimmunization?

<p>At 28 weeks of gestation and possibly within 72 hours of childbirth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of medical management in multiple gestation pregnancies?

<p>To maintain the pregnancy as long as possible (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of preterm labor?

<p>Unexplained weight loss (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of a perinatologist or maternal-fetal medicine specialist in multiple gestation pregnancies?

<p>To coordinate the care of complications (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of administering RhoGAM to an Rh-negative mother?

<p>To prevent the development of antibodies that can harm the fetus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a urinalysis during prenatal visits?

<p>To detect signs of urinary tract infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for women with multiple gestations to keep all prenatal appointments?

<p>To detect any potential complications early on (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition can be indicated by high levels of protein in a pregnant woman's urine?

<p>Urinary tract infection (B), Pre-eclampsia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between RhoGAM and a direct Coombs' test?

<p>Both test for Rh compatibility, but RhoGAM is a preventative measure while a direct Coombs' test is diagnostic. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for avoiding vaginal cervical examinations in a patient with placenta previa?

<p>To prevent further separation of the placenta and hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with placenta previa, which of the following is crucial for nursing care?

<p>Monitoring fetal heart tones with external monitoring, reporting any abnormal heart patterns (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with placenta previa should be instructed to report which symptom immediately?

<p>Any increase in vaginal bleeding or abdominal cramping (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between a partial and a complete placenta abruption?

<p>With a partial abruption only part of the placenta detaches from the uterine wall; with a complete abruption the entire placenta separates (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is characterized by a ‘board-like’ abdomen and is MOST indicative of a more advanced abruption?

<p>Severe (Class 3) placenta abruptio (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hypofibrinogenemia, a condition that decreases clotting time, is a sign of which of the following complications associated with placental abruption?

<p>Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common risk factor for placental abruption?

<p>Hypertension (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a class 2 placental abruption will likely demonstrate which of the following characteristics?

<p>Moderate vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, possible fetal distress (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the management of a severe placental abruption, why might emergency cesarean section be considered?

<p>To rapidly deliver the fetus due to life threatening situations affecting the mother and/or the fetus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding the effect of placental abruption on the fetus?

<p>Fetal hypoxia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with placenta abruptio?

<p>Frequently assessing and documenting vital signs and fetal heart tones, and reporting abnormal findings immediately (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with placenta accreta is at high risk for which complication after delivery?

<p>Hemorrhage requiring a potential hysterectomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of placenta accreta?

<p>The placenta attaches too deeply to the uterine wall (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of placenta accreta involves the placenta directly attaching to the myometrium?

<p>Placenta accreta (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman presents with a blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg and proteinuria. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

<p>Mild pre-eclampsia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should blood loss be monitored in a patient experiencing placenta abruptio?

<p>Weighing pads and sheets to obtain an accurate measure of blood loss (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with chronic hypertension during pregnancy is being monitored for fetal growth restriction. What is the primary reason for this monitoring?

<p>Chronic hypertension can lead to placental insufficiency, which can restrict fetal growth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

<p>To prevent seizures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with pre-eclampsia who is experiencing severe headaches and visual disturbances. What is the nurse's priority action?

<p>Notify the health care provider immediately. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-eclampsia is experiencing oliguria. What is the significance of this finding?

<p>Oliguria indicates a potential problem with renal function and should be reported to the health care provider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between chronic hypertension and gestational hypertension?

<p>Chronic hypertension is diagnosed before pregnancy, while gestational hypertension is diagnosed during pregnancy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a recommended antihypertensive medication for patients with chronic hypertension in pregnancy?

<p>Hydralazine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-eclampsia is being monitored for signs of magnesium toxicity. Which of the following is a sign of magnesium toxicity?

<p>Hyporeflexia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important nursing intervention when caring for a patient with pre-eclampsia?

<p>Monitoring for signs of worsening pre-eclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing pre-eclampsia?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-eclampsia is admitted to the hospital. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help prevent seizures?

<p>Administering magnesium sulfate as ordered (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with pre-eclampsia who is experiencing severe epigastric pain. What is the significance of this finding?

<p>Epigastric pain indicates a potential problem with the liver and should be reported to the health care provider. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-eclampsia is receiving antihypertensive medications. What is the primary goal of this treatment?

<p>To prevent the development of eclampsia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with pre-eclampsia is being monitored for signs of HELLP syndrome. What does HELLP syndrome stand for?

<p>Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important nursing intervention to help prevent complications for the fetus of a patient with pre-eclampsia?

<p>Monitoring fetal heart rate and movement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a cerclage procedure?

<p>To constrict the cervix using sutures to prevent opening (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what gestational age is a cerclage typically performed?

<p>Between 12 to 14 weeks’ gestation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a common symptom indicative of possible cervical insufficiency?

<p>Increased vaginal discharge and mild cramps (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a cerclage typically removed?

<p>After 37 weeks of gestation or at onset of labour (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Rh-negative pregnant woman is exposed to fetal blood that is Rh-positive. What condition can occur in the woman?

<p>Isoimmunization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is used to determine if an Rh-negative woman has developed antibodies against Rh-positive blood?

<p>The indirect Coombs’ test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical consequence of Rh incompatibility on the fetus?

<p>Alloimmune-induced hemolytic anemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a pregnant woman is Rh-negative and has not developed antibodies against the Rh factor, when is RhoGAM administered?

<p>At 28 weeks gestation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of a rise in bilirubin in amniotic fluid during an Rh incompatibility situation?

<p>Indicates that the fetus is losing too many blood cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are women with a history of cervical incompetency screened?

<p>During the late first trimester (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these events can potentially cause exposure to fetal blood and subsequent Rh sensitization in a Rh-negative mother?

<p>Invasive obstetric procedures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes placenta percreta from placenta increta?

<p>Placenta percreta involves villi invading through the myometrium, whereas placenta increta only invades into it. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication is most directly prevented by administering RhoGAM?

<p>Hemolytic disease of the fetus or newborn (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT identified as a risk factor for placenta accreta?

<p>History of uterine fibroids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between the mother and fetus that makes isoimmunization a risk during pregnancy?

<p>Fetus Rh positive and mother Rh negative (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary rationale for performing a hysterectomy in cases of placenta accreta?

<p>To prevent severe hemorrhage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a cerclage is performed, what kind of monitoring is important to include in the nursing care plan?

<p>Monitoring for signs of infection and ruptured membranes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition may lead to seizures or hemorrhage in a pregnant woman due to cerebral edema?

<p>Eclampsia (B), Preeclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is typically associated with cerebral vasospasm during pregnancy?

<p>Throbbing frontal headache (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding would NOT strongly suggest a diagnosis of cervical insufficiency?

<p>Painful contractions and cervical dilation in the second trimester (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition does isoimmunization directly cause in the fetus?

<p>Destroy fetal red blood cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a nurse primarily focus on teaching a patient at 12 weeks’ gestation who is experiencing light vaginal bleeding?

<p>The signs and symptoms of bleeding that require medical evaluation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the maternal antibody system become overwhelmed during pregnancy, particularly in cases of preeclampsia?

<p>By excessive fetal antigens in the maternal circulation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nursing intervention directly supports a patient experiencing anticipatory grief due to potential pregnancy loss?

<p>Encouraging the patient and her partner to express their concerns and fears (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following visual symptoms may indicate central nervous system irritation in a pregnant woman?

<p>Flashing lights (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a severe headache and vision changes signal in a pregnant patient, such as in the case of Lucille?

<p>Signs of preeclampsia or eclampsia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of placenta accreta, when is a cesarean birth typically scheduled to prevent an unscheduled delivery?

<p>As early as 35 weeks of gestation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'hysterectomy' refer to in the context of placenta accreta management?

<p>A surgical procedure to remove the uterus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient with confirmed placenta accreta refuses a scheduled cesarean birth, what is the most significant risk?

<p>A high likelihood of uterine rupture and severe hemorrhage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason the incidence of placenta accreta is increasing?

<p>An increase in the number of cesarean births (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing care for a patient with placenta accreta, what sign or symptom is the nurse particularly monitoring?

<p>Signs of hypovolemic shock (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of previous second-trimester losses is being evaluated for cervical insufficiency. Which factor is a key element in the diagnostic criteria?

<p>History of second trimester loss without contractions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old patient in her first trimester is brought into the Emergency Department for an increased amount of vaginal bleeding after noticing some spotting the day before. What is this situation?

<p>This requires an immediate evaluation, as it may indicate a more serious issue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is prescribed medication for bleeding during pregnancy, what essential information should the nurse provide to the patient?

<p>The name, purpose, possible side effects, and correct method of administration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cervical insufficiency, what does 'painless dilation of the cervix' refer to?

<p>Cervical dilation without contractions or associated pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mortality rate for women diagnosed with HELLP syndrome?

<p>25% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following risk factors is NOT associated with HELLP syndrome?

<p>History of diabetes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases of pregnancy-induced hypertension, which condition is considered a more severe form?

<p>Eclampsia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary pathophysiology causing hypertension in pre-eclampsia is related to which organ?

<p>Placenta (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can poor renal perfusion due to endothelial injury lead to in pre-eclampsia?

<p>Loss of protein in urine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following liver enzymes is released with liver tissue damage?

<p>Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do antiangiogenic proteins play in pregnancy-induced hypertension?

<p>Cause endothelial cell injury (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom might indicate liver damage in a patient with pre-eclampsia?

<p>Epigastric pain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine due to poor renal perfusion?

<p>Pre-eclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor may be considered an immunologic contributor to the development of pre-eclampsia?

<p>Foreign protein recognition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which gene relationship is highlighted in the context of pre-eclampsia risk?

<p>Maternal and paternal genes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does vasospasm impact liver function in patients with HELLP syndrome?

<p>It causes necrosis of liver tissue (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is associated with changes in capillary permeability in pre-eclampsia?

<p>Vasoconstriction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions does NOT involve the placenta in its pathophysiology?

<p>Chronic hypertension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom should prompt immediate reporting to a healthcare provider in a pregnant patient?

<p>Decrease in fetal movement (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional symptoms differentiate eclampsia from pre-eclampsia?

<p>Presence of seizure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is typically administered to prevent seizures in patients diagnosed with eclampsia?

<p>Magnesium sulfate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is characteristic of HELLP syndrome?

<p>Low platelet count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which situation is corticosteroid treatment indicated during pregnancy?

<p>To assist with fetal lung maturity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary management strategy for a patient diagnosed with pre-eclampsia?

<p>Delivery of the fetus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria occurring after 20 weeks of gestation?

<p>Pre-eclampsia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sign would indicate magnesium toxicity in a patient undergoing treatment?

<p>Hyporeflexia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which risk factor is associated with an increased incidence of eclampsia?

<p>Nulliparity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be monitored at least every 2 hours in a patient with HELLP syndrome?

<p>Blood pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of feedback should a healthcare provider offer to a patient after a seizure?

<p>Reorienting the patient (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which lab finding is significant for diagnosing HELLP syndrome?

<p>Elevated liver enzymes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common complication of gestational hypertension if left untreated?

<p>Progression to pre-eclampsia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms should a patient report to a healthcare provider as a sign of cardiovascular distress?

<p>Blurry vision (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Abortion

A pregnancy that ends before 20 weeks of gestation.

Cervical incompetence

A condition in which the cervix opens too early, leading to premature birth.

Spontaneous abortion

The expulsion of a pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation.

Ectopic pregnancy

A pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

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Pre-eclampsia

High blood pressure that develops during pregnancy, often after 20 weeks.

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Eclampsia

A severe form of pre-eclampsia with seizures.

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Placenta abruptio

A condition where the placenta detaches from the wall of the uterus before delivery.

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Placenta accreta

A condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the wall of the uterus.

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Dilation and Curettage (D&C)

A medical procedure where the cervix is widened and the uterus is scraped to remove pregnancy tissue.

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Complete Abortion

A spontaneous abortion where all pregnancy contents are expelled.

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Incomplete Abortion

A spontaneous abortion where some pregnancy contents are expelled, but not all.

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Missed Abortion

The fetus dies in the first half of the pregnancy, but is not expelled.

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Inevitable Abortion

A spontaneous abortion where the cervix dilates and the amniotic sac breaks.

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Threatened Abortion

A spontaneous abortion where vaginal bleeding occurs, possibly with cramping.

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Vacuum Extraction

The process of removing pregnancy tissue through suction using a cannula.

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Hyperemesis Gravidarum

A medical condition characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, often leading to dehydration and weight loss.

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Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A hormone produced during pregnancy that is linked to the severity of nausea and vomiting in some women.

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Progesterone

A hormone that relaxes smooth muscle, potentially contributing to delayed gastric emptying and nausea during pregnancy.

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Premature birth

A condition where a baby is born before 37 weeks of gestation.

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Adherence

The extent to which a patient follows a health-care provider's instructions for treatment.

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First Trimester

The first trimester of pregnancy.

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Second trimester

The second trimester of pregnancy.

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Third trimester

The third trimester of pregnancy.

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Small for gestational age (SGA)

A condition that occurs when a fetus is smaller than expected for their gestational age.

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Suction D&C

A procedure to remove the contents of the uterus using suction.

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Medical management of abortion

Medications used to induce a miscarriage.

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Mifepristone

A drug that blocks the effects of progesterone, a hormone needed for pregnancy.

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Misoprostol

A drug that causes contractions of the uterus to expel the contents.

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Warning signs after abortion

Warning signs of complications after a D&C or administration of misoprostol, which should be reported to the healthcare provider.

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Grieving after abortion

The natural process of grieving after a pregnancy loss, which can last for months.

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Methotrexate

A drug used to treat ectopic pregnancy by stopping the embryo from growing.

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Surgical D&C

A procedure to remove the contents of the uterus using surgical instruments.

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Douching

An action that involves a woman using specialized tools to cleanse her vagina.

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Medical abortion

The use of medications to induce a miscarriage.

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What is a salpingostomy?

A small linear incision made into the fallopian tube to remove the products of conception, allowing the tube to heal naturally without sutures to minimize scarring.

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What is a salpingectomy?

A surgical procedure to remove a fallopian tube, typically done when the tube cannot be saved or when the patient does not desire future pregnancies.

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What is a hydatidiform mole?

A condition where the chorionic villi, which normally attach the embryo to the uterine wall, develop abnormally, leading to the growth of fluid-filled sacs resembling grape clusters within the uterus.

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What is a complete molar pregnancy?

A type of hydatidiform mole where the uterus is completely filled with abnormal tissue, occurring when two sperm fertilize an egg without DNA, resulting in no fetal development.

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What is a partial molar pregnancy?

A type of hydatidiform mole where two sperm fertilize a normal egg, resulting in some fetal tissue alongside the fluid-filled sacs, but no viable fetus.

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What is a choriocarcinoma?

A fast-growing cancer that can develop in the uterus following a molar pregnancy, originating from the germ cells that normally become sperm or eggs.

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What is hemorrhage after evacuation of a molar pregnancy?

A common complication of a molar pregnancy, often occurring after the removal of abnormal tissues.

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How is a molar pregnancy treated?

The preferred method of treating a molar pregnancy, involving the removal of abnormal tissues by vacuum aspiration or surgical curettage to empty the uterus.

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What is hCG?

A hormone produced by the placenta, levels of which can be significantly elevated in cases of hydatidiform mole.

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Why is follow-up care with hCG monitoring important after a molar pregnancy?

It is crucial to monitor hCG levels for 9-12 months after a diagnosis of a molar pregnancy to detect potential malignancies and avoid pregnancy during this time.

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What is uterine growth larger than expected for gestational age?

The condition of having a uterus that is larger than expected for the gestational age. It is a common symptom of hydatidiform mole.

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What is hyperemesis?

High levels of hCG can cause excessive nausea and vomiting, a condition known as hyperemesis. It is a symptom of hydatidiform mole.

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What is gestational hypertension?

A condition associated with hydatidiform mole characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy.

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What is light-to-heavy bleeding with blood that may be brown or bright red?

A common symptom of hydatidiform mole, characterized by bleeding with blood that may be brown or bright red, ranging from light to heavy.

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What is the absence of fetal heart tones and movement?

The absence of fetal heart tones and movement is a key symptom of hydatidiform mole, indicating the lack of a viable fetus.

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Who is at an increased risk for a hydatidiform mole?

Women of Asian descent, advanced maternal age, or those who have had a previous molar pregnancy are at increased risk of developing a hydatidiform mole.

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Placenta Previa

A condition where the placenta is implanted near the opening of the cervix, increasing the risk of bleeding as the cervix dilates.

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Marginal Placenta Previa

The placenta is positioned next to the cervix but doesn't cover the opening.

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Partial Placenta Previa

The placenta partially covers the opening of the cervix.

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Complete Placenta Previa

The placenta completely covers the opening of the cervix.

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Characteristic Symptom of Placenta Previa

Painless, bright-red bleeding, often occurring in the second and third trimesters.

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Transabdominal or Vaginal Ultrasound

A test using ultrasound to diagnose placenta previa by visualizing the placenta's location near the cervix.

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Nonstress Test (NST)

A process for evaluating fetal status by monitoring heart rate during a bleeding episode.

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Cesarean Delivery for Complete Placenta Previa

A procedure to deliver the baby when the placenta is completely covering the cervical opening.

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Trial of Labor for Placenta Previa

A possible trial of labor if the placenta edge is at least 2 cm away from the cervical opening.

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Vital Signs Monitoring for Bleeding Complications

Monitoring vital signs, including heart rate and blood pressure, to assess for signs of shock.

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IV Fluids and Blood Products for Bleeding

Administering intravenous fluids and blood products as ordered by the healthcare provider.

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Medical Management for Placenta Previa

Bed rest, avoidance of exercise, sexual intercourse, and douching to minimize pressure on the cervix and placenta.

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Placenta Accreta (Type)

The placenta attaches directly to the myometrium, the middle layer of the uterine wall.

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Placenta Percreta

The most severe type of placenta accreta. It penetrates the myometrium and can reach into the other layers of the uterine wall.

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What is Placenta Abruptio?

The premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus before delivery, causing bleeding between the wall and the placenta.

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Partial Placenta Abruptio

The portion of the placenta remains attached, but a section detaches from the uterine wall.

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Complete Placenta Abruptio

The entire placenta separates from the uterine wall.

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What are the risks of Placenta Abruptio?

A life-threatening condition for both mother and fetus, caused by the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.

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Fetal Monitoring

A procedure used to evaluate the baby's health by listening to the baby's heartbeat and checking for movements.

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Venous Access

The insertion of a needle into a vein to provide fluids or medication.

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Blood Typing and Crossmatching

A test to determine blood type and compatibility for transfusion.

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Hypofibrinogenemia

A condition where the blood contains a low level of fibrin, which reduces clotting ability.

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Cesarean Section

A procedure to deliver the baby through a surgical incision made in the abdomen and uterus.

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Chronic Hypertension

Chronic hypertension refers to women who are hypertensive before pregnancy or become hypertensive during the first 20 weeks.

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Gestational Hypertension

High blood pressure developing for the first time after 20 weeks of pregnancy. Blood pressure returns to normal within 12 weeks postpartum.

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HELLP syndrome

A rare but serious condition that can occur during pregnancy. It can cause liver damage, low platelet count, and other complications.

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Pre-eclampsia and Immune Response

A theory suggesting that pre-eclampsia may arise from the mother's immune system being overwhelmed by excessive fetal antigens in her bloodstream. This could explain its higher prevalence in first-time mothers or mothers with new partners.

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Brain Complications in Pregnancy

Cerebral edema, vasoconstriction due to vasospasm, and damage to capillary linings can all lead to seizures or bleeding in the brain during pregnancy.

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Frontal Headache in Pregnancy

A throbbing headache in the frontal area of the head, often a symptom of cerebral vasospasm in pregnant women.

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Vision Changes in Pregnancy

Visual disturbances like temporary vision loss, flashing lights, auras, light sensitivity, and blurry vision or spots can signal cerebral edema during pregnancy.

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C.U.S.L. Warning Signs

A common acronym used to remember important warning signs during pregnancy, including C for confusion, U for unusual headaches, S for swelling, and L for visual changes.

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Rh Incompatibility

A condition where the mother's blood type is Rh-negative and the baby's blood type is Rh-positive, potentially leading to the mother's body producing antibodies that can attack the baby's red blood cells.

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RhoGAM

A medication given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the development of Rh antibodies, protecting future pregnancies.

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Antibody Titer

Testing done to measure the level of Rh antibodies in the mother's blood.

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Multiple Gestation Pregnancy

A pregnancy with two or more babies, like twins, triplets, or more.

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Increased Nutritional Needs

Increased calorie and nutrient intake needed for mothers carrying multiples.

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Frequent Prenatal Visits

More frequent visits with the healthcare provider during pregnancy to monitor for complications.

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Increased Rest

Increased rest or even bedrest during pregnancy, especially in the second trimester, to help prevent complications.

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Perinatologist

A specialist in high-risk pregnancies.

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Incompetent Cervix

A condition where the cervix opens too early, leading to preterm labor.

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Preterm Labor

Labor that begins before 37 weeks of gestation.

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Infants Small for Gestational Age

A condition where babies are smaller than expected based on their gestational age.

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Increased Risk for Cesarean Birth

The possibility of needing a surgical delivery through the abdomen.

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Urinalysis

A routine urine test done at each prenatal visit to screen for potential complications of pregnancy.

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What is cerclage?

A procedure where sutures are placed around the cervix to prevent premature opening.

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What is cervical insufficiency?

A condition where the cervix opens prematurely, potentially leading to preterm birth.

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What is Rh incompatibility?

A condition that occurs during pregnancy when the Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood cells.

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What is an antigen?

A substance that triggers the immune system to produce antibodies against it.

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What is isoimmunization?

The process of the immune system producing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells in an Rh-negative mother.

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What is alloimmune-induced hemolytic anemia?

A condition where the antibodies produced by the mother in Rh incompatibility destroy the baby's red blood cells.

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What is an antibody titer test, or indirect Coombs' test?

A blood test that measures the level of antibodies against Rh-positive blood in an Rh-negative mother.

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What is RhoGAM?

An injection given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of Rh antibodies.

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What is amniocentesis?

A procedure where amniotic fluid is taken from the uterus to evaluate the health of the fetus.

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What is bilirubin in the amniotic fluid?

A major concern in Rh incompatibility as it can indicate the baby's red blood cells are being destroyed.

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What are ruptured membranes?

A sign of a ruptured membrane which should be monitored for after a cerclage procedure.

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What is bleeding?

A sign that should be monitored for after a cerclage procedure.

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What is uterine activity?

A critical factor to monitor in pregnancy, especially after a cerclage procedure, as it can lead to preterm labor.

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What is infection?

A sign of infection which should be monitored for after a cerclage procedure.

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What is preterm labor?

A critical factor to monitor for after a cerclage procedure, as it can indicate labor.

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Magnesium sulfate

A medication commonly used to prevent seizures in pre-eclampsia and eclampsia.

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Midazolam or lorazepam

A medication often prescribed to stop seizures in eclampsia.

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Ankle clonus

A test used to check for hyperreflexia (increased muscle reflexes) in pregnant women, indicating brain irritability.

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Right upper quadrant abdominal pain

A common symptom of HELLP syndrome caused by liver damage.

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Jaundice

A common symptom of HELLP syndrome where the liver is unable to properly filter the blood.

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Hemolysis

The breakdown of red blood cells, a key feature of HELLP syndrome.

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Liver enzymes (AST, ALT)

Elevated levels of these enzymes in blood indicate liver damage, a symptom of HELLP syndrome.

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Low platelet count

A low platelet count, a characteristic of HELLP syndrome, which can cause bleeding problems.

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Primigravida

A woman who has never given birth before.

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Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy

A group of disorders in pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, including pre-eclampsia and eclampsia.

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Delivery of the fetus

The act of delivering the baby, a key treatment for eclampsia and HELLP syndrome.

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What is HELLP syndrome?

A severe complication of pregnancy involving the liver, blood, and blood platelets.

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What is pre-eclampsia?

A condition characterized by high blood pressure that develops during pregnancy, usually after 20 weeks.

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What is eclampsia?

A severe form of pre-eclampsia with seizures.

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What is pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)?

A pregnancy-related condition that involves the placenta, cardiovascular system, kidney, liver, and immune system.

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What's the primary cause of PIH disorders?

Abnormal trophoblastic implantation, leading to reduced placental perfusion and hypoxia of the placental environment.

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What are antiangiogenic proteins?

Factors released from the placenta that cause damage to the mother's blood vessels, leading to vasoconstriction and blood pressure elevation.

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What is vasoconstriction?

Narrowing of blood vessels, often caused by a problem with blood vessel cells.

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What is thrombocytopenia?

A decrease in the number of platelets in the blood, which can lead to bleeding.

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What are liver enzymes?

Enzymes that are present in liver cells and released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged.

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What is alanine aminotransferase (ALT)?

A liver enzyme released with liver tissue damage.

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What is aspartate aminotransferase (AST)?

A liver enzyme released with liver tissue damage.

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What is alkaline phosphatase?

A liver enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver, biliary tract, bone, intestine, and placenta.

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What is the immune system?

The body's defense system.

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Hysterectomy

Surgical removal of the uterus.

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Cervical Insufficiency

A condition where the uterine cervix dilates and opens prematurely during pregnancy, leading to potential preterm birth.

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Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM)

Premature rupture of the membranes (amniotic sac) before labor starts.

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Potential Loss of Pregnancy

The potential loss of a pregnancy before viability.

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Bleeding in Pregnancy

Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy, a possible sign of various complications.

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Scheduled Cesarean Delivery

A cesarean delivery performed before 39 weeks of gestation to prevent an unscheduled delivery.

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Hypovolemic Shock

Low blood pressure caused by significant blood loss, a potential complication of placenta accreta.

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Anticipatory Grieving

A range of emotions experienced by a patient facing a potential loss of pregnancy, including sadness, guilt, and fear.

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Emotional Support

Providing emotional support and understanding to a patient dealing with difficult medical situations.

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Social Worker

A medical professional who provides counseling and assistance to patients facing challenges related to pregnancy.

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Study Notes

Nursing Care of Pregnant Women with Complications

  • Key Terms: Abortion, cerclage, cervical incompetence, choriocarcinoma, dilation and curettage (D&C), eclampsia, ectopic pregnancy, elective abortion, hydatidiform mole, hyperemesis gravidarum, hypofibrinogenemia, hysterectomy, insulin resistance, isoimmunization, ketones, perfusion, placenta abruptio, placenta accreta, placenta previa, pre-eclampsia, salpingectomy, salpingostomy, threatened abortions, viable.

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

  • Definition: Severe nausea and vomiting persisting past 20 weeks gestation, often with ketosis and weight loss (over 5% pre-pregnancy weight).
  • Incidence: 0.3% to 2% of pregnancies.
  • Cause: Unknown, but possibly related to elevated hCG levels stimulating the thyroid, high estradiol levels, prior contraceptive intolerance, and progesterone's relaxation of smooth muscles.
  • Risk Factors: High hCG, estradiol levels, previous oral contraceptive intolerance, high progesterone levels in first trimester (causing delayed gastric emptying), previous morning sickness.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Frequent vomiting, decreased appetite, significant weight loss (over 5% pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration (dry mouth, skin, poor skin turgor), concentrated urine, decreased urine output, increased heart rate, alkalosis, electrolyte/acid-base imbalances, nutritional deficiencies.

Medical Care (Hyperemesis Gravidarum)

  • Home Care: Often possible, with vitamin B6 (10-25mg 3 times daily), doxylamine (12.5mg 3-4 times daily), and ginger (250mg 4 times daily).
  • Hospitalization: May be required for IV fluids and antiemetics if severe.
  • Medications: Metoclopramide (5-10mg every 8 hours), promethazine(12.5mg oral/rectal every 4 hours), dimenhydrinate (50-100mg every 4-6 hours), ondansetron (4-8mg oral/IV every 8 hours).
  • Investigations: Complete blood cell count (CBC), electrolyte panel, ketones, liver enzymes, other tests to rule out other possible causes (e.g., gastroenteritis).

Nursing Care (Hyperemesis Gravidarum)

  • Interventions: Administering IV fluids and antiemetics, monitoring vital signs and lab results, monitoring weight, providing psychosocial support.
  • Patient Education: Small, frequent meals, avoid spicy/fatty foods, identify nausea triggers, maintain fluid intake, monitor for dehydration signs, report warning signs (dark urine, bloody vomit, abdominal pain).

Bleeding Disorders (Early Pregnancy)

  • Abortion: Pregnancy loss before viability (defined as >20 weeks gestation or >500g). -Types: Threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, missed.
  • Incidence: Up to 20% of clinically recognized pregnancies.
  • Risk Factors: Chromosomal abnormalities, diabetes, hypothyroidism, infections, reproductive abnormalities, injuries.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Abdominal cramping, vaginal bleeding.
  • Medical Care: Dilation and curettage (D&C), vacuum aspiration, medical therapy with misoprostol and mifepristone.
  • Nursing Care: Monitoring vital signs, I&O, oxygen saturation, lab results, recognizing hypovolemic shock, administering medications, possibly blood transfusions, administering RhoGAM, emotional support.
  • Patient Education: Warning signs after procedures (heavy bleeding, foul discharge, fever, pain), avoiding tampons/douches/sex until cleared, iron supplements if blood loss, grieving process may last 6-12 months, timing of future pregnancies.

Ectopic Pregnancy

  • Definition: Fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus, most often in a fallopian tube.
  • Incidence: 1 in 50 pregnancies.
  • Risk Factors: Fallopian tube scarring/blockages, advanced maternal age, reproductive anomalies, previous tube surgery, PID, repeated abortions/STIs, IUD use, ART, douching, smoking.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain. Ruptured tube: Severe abdominal pain, shoulder/neck pain, weakness, dizziness, decreased BP, increased HR.
  • Medical Care: Methotrexate (if tube not ruptured, fetus<3.5cm, no heart activity). Laparoscopic surgery (if tube ruptured) – Salpingectomy/Salpingostomy.
  • Nursing Care: Monitoring for shock, postoperative care(Salpingectomy/Salpingostomy: vital signs, I&O, bleeding). Emotional support.
  • Patient Education: Report fever, chills, significant bleeding, nausea/vomiting if given methotrexate. Timing of another pregnancy .

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease(Hydatidiform Mole)

  • Definition: Rare tumors in the uterus during placental development, most commonly hydatidiform mole.
  • Incidence: 1 in 1,200 pregnancies in US/Europe
  • Risk Factors: Asian descent, advanced maternal age, previous molar pregnancy.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Bleeding (brown/bright red), abnormally enlarged uterus, absent fetal heart tones/movement, extremely high hCG levels (over 100,000 mIU/mL), hyperemesis gravidarum.
  • Medical Care: Suction evacuation and curettage (vacuum aspiration/surgical curettage). IV oxytocin after. Follow-up monitoring of hCG levels (9-12 months).
  • Nursing Care: Shock assessment, pre-operative preparation (CBC, blood type/crossmatch), RhoGAM, post-operative monitoring, support for grief & loss.
  • Patient Education: Report complications (heavy bleeding, foul discharge, fever), avoid tampons/douches/sex until cleared, crucial follow-up for hCG levels (prevent choriocarcinoma). Delay future pregnancies for 6 months. Early sonographic evaluation is recommended for future pregnancies.

Bleeding Disorders (Late Pregnancy)

Placenta Previa

  • Definition: Placenta implanted near cervix opening.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Painless bright-red bleeding; spotting, especially late in pregnancy or during labor.
  • Medical Care: Transabdominal/vaginal ultrasound, bed rest, avoid exercise/sex/douche, NSTs (nonstress tests), cesarean delivery (often required for complete placenta previa). Trial of labor may be possible under certain conditions.
  • Nursing Care: Avoid vaginal exams (risk of perforation), monitor fetal heart tones, obtain access for IV fluids/blood, blood typing/crossmatching.
  • Patient Education: Avoid vaginal exams, report increased bleeding, daily fetal kick counts.

Placenta Abruptio

  • Definition: Premature separation of placenta.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Painful bleeding; board-like abdominal wall/firm uterus.
  • Medical Care: Diagnosis based on symptoms, ultrasound. Hemodynamic stabilization, emergency cesarean section (may be attempted vaginal delivery).
  • Nursing Care: Frequent vital signs/fetal heart tones, monitor blood loss (weigh pads/sheets), IV fluids/oxygen, alert lab for blood typing/crossmatching, emotional support.
  • Patient Education: Report bleeding/abdominal pain, possible cesarean delivery, answer questions about condition.

Placenta Accreta

  • Definition: Placenta attached too deeply to uterine wall.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Often undiagnosed until delivery; third-trimester vaginal bleeding possible.
  • Medical Care: Cesarean delivery, attempt to remove placenta and preserve uterus (if possible), hysterectomy (if placenta cannot be removed to prevent severe hemorrhage).
  • Nursing Care: Preparation for C-section/OR, monitor for shock, emotional support.
  • Patient Education: No prevention method possible, possible C-section, discuss surgical options, hysterectomy means no more periods/pregnancies.

Incompetent Cervix

  • Definition: Cervix unable to retain pregnancy in second trimester.
  • Signs and Symptoms: Pelvic pressure, back pain, increased discharge, mild cramping. Possible history of multiple previous second-trimester pregnancy loss.
  • Medical Care: Cerclage (sutures around cervix).
  • Nursing Care: Monitoring for infection/ruptured membranes/bleeding/uterine activity, emotional support.
  • Patient Teaching: Warning signs of complications (infection, rupture, pain, labor),emotional support.

Rh Incompatibility

  • Definition: Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, causing antibody production that may harm subsequent Rh -positive fetuses.
  • Medical Care: Blood type/antibody titer tests. RhoGAM administration (28 weeks, and within 72 hours of delivery if the baby is Rh positive and the mother has become sensitized). Amniocentesis (monitoring fetal bilirubin).
  • Nursing Care: Encourage testing compliance, emotional support. RhoGAM administration (according to protocol). Follow-up appointments for antibody titers /fetal monitoring.
  • Patient Education: Report any signs of complication, importance of RhoGAM (to prevent further complications with future pregnancies), potential seriousness of condition.

Multiple Gestation Pregnancy

  • Signs and Symptoms: Rapid weight gain, severe nausea/vomiting, breast tenderness, simultaneous fetal movements, enlarged uterus, elevated hCG/alpha-fetoprotein.
  • Medical Management: Increased calories and balanced nutrition. Frequent prenatal visits/bed rest as needed. Specialists may be involved. Monitor closely for complications.
  • Nursing Care: Education on nutrition, rest, complication indicators, emotional support.
  • Patient Teaching: Healthy pregnancy diet with extra calories, watch out for preterm labor (contractions, cramping, discharge, pressure, low backache, loss of mucous plug), monitor for complications (edema, headaches, visual disturbance (high bp), bleeding reports all issues to care provider.

Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy

  • Chronic Hypertension: Hypertension prior to or during the first 20 weeks pregnancy.
  • Gestational Hypertension: Hypertension developing for the first time in pregnancy.
  • Pre-eclampsia: Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks.
  • Eclampsia: Pre-eclampsia with one or more seizures.
  • HELLP Syndrome: variant of pre-eclampsia/eclampsia, with hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets.
  • Management: Varies depending on the severity and specific disorder. Usually includes bedrest, medications (e.g., antihypertensives, magnesium sulfate for seizures), and delivery when the fetus is viable or in danger.

Patient Teaching Guidelines for Urinalysis

  • Urinalysis: Routine element of prenatal care to identify potential complications of pregnancy e.g, infections, diabetes, dehydration, pre-eclampsia.
    Key components to watch out for: (sugar, protein, ketones, bacteria/nitrites/leukocytes)

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Test your knowledge on key obstetric conditions and procedures related to pregnancy. This quiz covers topics such as cervical procedures, pregnancy complications, and conditions like hyperemesis gravidarum and isoimmunization. Perfect for medical students and professionals seeking to reinforce their understanding of prenatal care.

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