Immunology, Serology & Blood Banking Pre-Boards Exam (Psalm 121:2)

Most important role of eosinophil:

Constituents of granules include histamine, cytokines, growth factors, and a small amount of heparin, all of which have an important function is inducing and maintaining allergic reactions:

One distinguishing feature is an irregularly folded or horseshoe-shaped nucleus that occupies almost one-half of the entire cell’s volume. The abundant cytoplasm stains a dull grayish blue and has a ground-glass appearance because of the presence of fine dust-like granules. What is the cell described?

The normal ratio of CD8+ to CD4+ cells is approximately ___ in peripheral blood.

Described as large granular lymphocytes, these cells make up 10% to 15% of the circulating lymphoid pool and are found mainly in the liver, spleen, and peripheral blood.

Marginal B cells remain in the ___ in order to respond quickly to any blood-borne pathogens they may come into contact with.

Marker to identify memory cells because they are similar in appearance to mature B cells:

Which of the following statements applies to Bruton’s thymidine kinase (Btk) deficiency?

MHC molecules are found on all nucleated cells; these molecules associate with foreign antigens, such as viral proteins, synthesized within a host cell. This is known as the endogenous pathway for antigen presentation.

MHC molecules are found on the APCs that include B lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, and thymic epithelium:

Genes code for the C4A, C4B, C2, and B complement proteins, as well as cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor (TNF):

Skin pH that keeps most microorganisms from growing:

The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called:

An increased level of this APR has been shown to be a significant risk factor for myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, and peripheral vascular disease in men and women who have no previous history of cardiovascular disease:

A biomarker that exhibits greater specificity than other proinflammatory markers in identifying patients with sepsis and can be used in the diagnosis of bacterial infections:

Individuals with this complement deficiency are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and may also be subject to immune complex diseases. Such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis.

The preferred method of screening for allergies is an ___, in which very small amounts of potential allergens are injected under the skin. A positive test produces a wheal-and-flare reaction within 20 minutes.

To determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best test to perform is the:

Gold standard test for contact dermatitis:

All of the following are systemic autoimmune disease, except:

It is a chronic progressive inflammatory disease autoimmune disease marked by progressive DRYNESS OF THE EYES AND THE MOUTH.

Marker for familial medullary thyroid carcinoma:

It reflects thyroid mass, injury and TSH levels.

Valuable combination in therapy and follow-up in patients with germ cell tumors of the testes.

Marker for gastric carcinoma:

Reactions involves combining soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes that are visible.

Antibody is being tested for against a standard concentration of antigen, antibody is in excess and precipitation or agglutination cannot be detected.

In radial immunodiffusion, ___ is incorporated in a gel.

Fluorescein absorbs maximally at 490 to 495 nm and emits a ___ color at 520 nm.

In ___, the original antibody is unlabeled. Incubation with antigen is followed by addition of a second fluorescent-labeled anti-immunoglobulin that detects antigen-antibody complexes.

What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system?

What would happen if the color reaction phase is prolonged in one tube or well of an ELISA test?

The positive and negative control values for an ELISA procedure are ___ below their acceptable ranges. What is the most likely cause?

The first nontreponemal serological test for syphilis was developed in 1906 by the bacteriologist August Paul von Wassermann. The Wasserman test was based on the principle of:

Peculiar aggregates of histiocytes called "Aschoff bodies" are seen in:

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ___ Todd units in an adult.

A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ___ Todd units in a child.

Gold standard for detection of leptospiral antibodies:

Rickettsia rickettsii infects the:

Antibodies produced in patients with rickettsial infections were detected by an agglutination test known as the WEIL-FELIX TEST, which was based on cross-reactivity of the patient's antibodies with polysaccharide antigens present on the ___ strain (s) of Proteus vulgaris and the ___ strain (s) of Proteus mirabilis.

Gold standard for the serological diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF):

In the Latex Particle Agglutination (LPA) test for cryptococcal antigen, cross- reactions may occasionally occur due to rheumatoid factor (RF) or circulating antibodies that bind with nonreactive polysaccharide in immune complexes. False positive results can be eliminated by:

COMPLEMENT FIXATION (CF) is the most widely used quantitative method for identifying Coccidioides immitis infections. Cross-reactions in patients with ___ will occur as false-positive reactions.

Isolation of the CMV in culture is the traditional method of direct viral detection. In this method, ___ cell lines are inoculated with CMV-infected specimens, most commonly urine, respiratory secretions, or anticoagulated whole blood.

Method of choice for diagnosis of congenital toxoplasmosis:

Method of choice to detect Toxoplasma gondii DNA in CSF:

How much diluent needs to be added to 0.2 ml of serum to make a 1:20 dilution?

A 1:750 dilution of serum is needed to perform a serological test. Which of the following series of dilutions would be correct to use in this situation?

It utilizes a tool called "6S," which stands for: sort, straighten, scrub, safety, standardize, and sustain. The focus is on THE ELIMINATION OF WASTE to allow a C facility to do more with less and at the same time increase customer and employee satisfaction.

It is a statistical modification of the original Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) method adopted by the The Joint Commission (TJC) as a guideline for health-care organizations. The primary goal is to REDUCE VARIABLES AND DECREASE ERRORS to a level of 3.4 defects per 1 million opportunities.

All of the following refers to RNA, except:

Small regions of newly replicated DNA are:

STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURE (SOP) manuals are integral components of any blood bank laboratory's quality-assurance program. They are reviewed at least ___ and updated on a regular basis to reflect changes in operations and implementation of new regulations.

Global standard for the identification, labeling, and information transfer of A medical products of human origin (MPHO) across international borders and disparate health care systems:

Rh-associated glycoprotein is the blood group system with an IBST number of:

The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n):

Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance?

What do the Oh (Classical Bombay), group O, and Lu (a-b-) phenotypes have in common?

An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions: REACTION OF PATIENT'S CELLS WITH

• ANTI-A: Neg
• ANTI-B: Neg
• ANTI-A, B: Neg

REACTION OF PATIENT'S SERUM WITH

• A1 CELLS: 4+
• B CELLS: 4+
• O CELLS: 4+
• AUTO-CONTROL: Neg

RhIq contains predominantly:

Shelf-life of RhIg at 1 to 6 °C:

Excluding ABO, this antigen is rated second only to D in immunogenicity:

The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:

Which of the following phenotypes is the result of homozygous inheritance of the corresponding genes?

Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population?

Anti-Fy3 will fail to react with which of the following enzyme-treated red cells?

Which phenotype could not result from the mating of a Jk (a+b+) female and a Jk (a-b+) male?

The mating of an Xg(a+) man and an Xg (a-) woman will only produce:

Some blood group antibodies may react stronger with the red cells of individuals who have inherited 2 identical alleles for the antigen to which the antibody is directed. This is known as:

Which of the following reagents is used to facilitate hemagglutination following the sensitization of red cells with an lgG alloantibody?

Many enhancement media used in the blood bank promote hemagglutination in the presence of lgG antibodies by reducing which of the following?

Donors who have received HBIG must wait ___ to donate blood to be sure they were not infected since hepatitis B can be transmitted through transfusion to a patient.

Deferral for prospective donors who have been diagnosed with malaria after becoming asymptomatic irrespective of the receipt of antimalarial prophylaxis and individuals who have lived longer than 5 consecutive years in countries considered malaria- endemic (Harmening):

Individuals who have TRAVELED to an area where malaria is endemic are deferred for ___ after departure from the malaria-endemic area.

Deferral for prospective donor who have been in juvenile detention, lockup, or prison for more than 72 hours:

Cardiopulmonary bypass is an essential system for open heart surgery. What anticoagulant had been used for blood collected for cardiopulmonary bypass surgery?

Which of the following is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected?

Apheresis (from the ancient Greek aphairesis, "a taking away") is a procedure in which whole blood is removed from the body and passed through an apparatus that separates out one (or more) particular blood constituent. Early developments in apheresis began some 60 years ago when Harvard biochemist ___ devised a large scale method, based on a simple dairy centrifuge, for purifying albumin from pooled human plasma.

Each unit of red blood cells contains approximately ___ mg of iron.

Each milliliter of RBC contains about ___ mg iron, which theoretically can be deposited in tissues and cause hemosiderosis.

According to AABB Standards, leukoreduced red cells is a product in which the absolute WBC count in the unit is reduced to less than ___ and contains at least ___ of the original RBC mass.

All but one of these factors will influence platelet metabolism and function in a closed system?

This component is prepared from FFP that is thawed at 1° to 6°C, which prevents resuspension of cold-insoluble clotting factor proteins. The thawed plasma is centrifuged at 4°C at a hard-spin setting.

Blood component administered to neutropenic patients with infection unresponsive to appropriate antibiotics:

Cryopoor plasma (CPP) is most often used for transfusion or plasma exchange in patients with ___ who have been initially treated using FFP without an adequate response.

It is used in the treatment of BURN patients to replace colloid pressure:

Blood components should be infused as quickly as tolerated or, at most, within:

Acute transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting:

The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?

Transfusion reaction can range from minor urticarial effects to fulminant anaphylactic shock and death. The more common, milder reactions consist of wheals, hives, erythema, or pruritus.

What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs transfusion- related acute lung injury (TRALI)?

Starting in 2003, many countries started adopting a preventive intervention called predominantly male plasma policy"; this plasma policy resulted in a significant decrease in the incidence of reported cases:

An acute complication of transfusion presenting with at least a 1°C increase in body temperature that can be accompanied by chills, nausea or vomiting, tachycardia, increase in blood pressure, and tachypnea. Occasionally, shaking CHILLS is the only initial presenting symptom, followed by an increase in body temperature up to 30 minutes after discontinuing the transfusion.

Acute nonimmune transfusion reaction presenting with body temperatures usually 2°C or more above normal and rigors that can be accompanied by hypotension:

An acute, nonimmune complication of transfusion presenting with respiratory distress and hypoxemia that can be accompanied by cough, headache, chest tightness, hypertension, jugular vein distention, elevated central venous pressure, and elevated pulmonary wedge pressure during or after transfusion. It occurs when the patient's cardiovascular system's ability to handle additional workload is exceeded, manifesting as CONGESTIVE HEART FAILURE.

A complication of massive transfusion resulting in hypocalcemia and can cause symptoms such as tingling, shivering, light-headedness, tetany, and hyperventilation:

The presenting reaction with a maculopapular rash, fever, watery diarrhea, elevated liver function tests, and pancytopenia occurs between 3 and 30 days post-transfusion:

Reason why tests for HDV are not require for blood donors:

Blood and blood components are not universally screened for CMV because of the generally benign course of this disease and the high percentage of virus carriers. To prevent CMV transmission, ___or blood from seronegative donors may be used.

Transient aplastic crisis can occur with: