Mid Term - Fundamentals of Nursing: Principles and Practice

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Questions and Answers

According to the American Nurses Association (ANA), which of the following is a primary role of a nurse?

  • Prescribing medications independently.
  • Advocating for the care and health of the client, family, or community. (correct)
  • Performing surgical procedures under the guidance of a surgeon.
  • Diagnosing medical conditions based on patient symptoms.

What is the fundamental principle behind evidence-based practice in nursing?

  • Using evidence from credible scientific research to guide nursing interventions and clinical judgment. (correct)
  • Adhering to traditional nursing practices passed down through generations.
  • Relying on personal experience and intuition to guide nursing interventions.
  • Following established hospital policies and procedures without question.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the 'Scope and Standards of Practice' in nursing?

  • To detail the state rules and regulations guiding nursing care delivery.
  • To define the rules and regulations of a specific health care organization.
  • To outline the values and ideals of the nursing profession.
  • To provide competency statements related to nursing care and professionalism. (correct)

A nurse demonstrates self-determination in their professional practice by:

<p>Taking responsibility for their professional actions and decisions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the assessment phase of the nursing process, a nurse:

<p>Collects both subjective and objective data about the patient. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nursing diagnosis phase of the nursing process involves:

<p>Identifying patient problems using NANDA-approved diagnoses. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym 'SMART' stand for in the context of goal-setting during the planning phase of the nursing process?

<p>Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the implementation phase of the nursing process, which of the following actions would be considered a dependent nursing intervention?

<p>Administering a prescribed medication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the evaluation phase of the nursing process, a nurse:

<p>Determines whether the established goals have been met and modifies the care plan as needed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Standard precautions in infection control are:

<p>Used for all patients, regardless of their infection status. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which transmission-based precaution should the nurse implement?

<p>Contact precautions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following infections requires airborne precautions?

<p>Tuberculosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between medical asepsis and surgical asepsis?

<p>Medical asepsis aims to reduce the number of pathogens, while surgical asepsis aims to eliminate all pathogens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key intervention for preventing falls in a hospital setting?

<p>Providing non-skid socks to the patient. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When are restraints appropriate for use on a patient?

<p>As a last resort, after all other interventions have been tried and failed to ensure patient safety. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym 'RACE' stand for in the context of fire safety?

<p>Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal range for an adult's oral temperature in Celsius?

<p>36.5-37.5°C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's heart rate is measured at 110 bpm. How should a nurse interpret this finding?

<p>Tachycardia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The term orthostatic hypotension refers to:

<p>A drop in blood pressure upon standing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient's pain, which of the following characteristics should the nurse evaluate?

<p>Intensity, location, quality, and timing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse observes labored breathing, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles in a patient. These are signs of:

<p>Respiratory distress. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following would be considered subjective data when assessing a patient?

<p>A patient's report of feeling nauseous. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What finding would be considered objective data?

<p>A measurable rash on a patient's skin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient with a wound infection. Which intervention is most appropriate to prevent the spread of infection?

<p>All of the above. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. This is an example of:

<p>Subjective data. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be an appropriate intervention to promote patient safety for a patient who is at risk for falls?

<p>Ensuring the patient's call light is within easy reach. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action should a nurse prioritize during a fire emergency following the 'RACE' protocol?

<p>Evacuating patients to a safe location. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which technique is crucial to prevent infection?

<p>Using sterile gloves. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute. How should this be interpreted?

<p>Tachypnea. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To prevent the spread of infection, when is it appropriate for a nurse to use an alcohol-based hand rub instead of washing hands with soap and water?

<p>When hands are not visibly soiled. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a nurse advocating for a patient?

<p>To ensure the patient's wishes and needs are respected and supported. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the Nurse Practice Act?

<p>To define and regulate the scope of nursing practice within a specific state. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is caring for a client with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important?

<p>Placing the client in airborne precautions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client recovering from surgery has a nursing diagnosis of 'Impaired Skin Integrity related to surgical incision.' Which of the following would be a SMART goal for this client?

<p>The client's surgical incision will remain free from signs of infection (redness, swelling, drainage) by discharge. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection. Which of the following actions demonstrates proper technique to prevent infection?

<p>Cleansing the injection site with an alcohol swab prior to injection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse assesses a client and finds the following: heart rate 52 bpm, respiratory rate 10 breaths/min, and blood pressure 90/50 mmHg. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Notifying the healthcare provider. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing action best exemplifies the principle of respecting a client’s autonomy?

<p>Providing information about treatment options and allowing the client to make their own decisions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with a history of falls is being admitted to a medical unit. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important to implement initially?

<p>Completing a fall risk assessment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed droplet precautions. Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when providing direct care?

<p>Surgical mask. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient. Which action demonstrates the most comprehensive understanding of the American Nurses Association's (ANA) definition of nursing?

<p>Integrating strategies to promote health, prevent illness, alleviate suffering, and advocate for the patient's needs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A clinical nurse is seeking to improve patient outcomes using evidence-based practice. What initial step should the nurse take to effectively implement this approach?

<p>Formulating a clear clinical question relevant to the practice setting. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse identifies a patient problem during the diagnosis phase of the nursing process. Which action demonstrates the most appropriate application of this phase?

<p>Selecting a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis that accurately reflects the patient's condition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When planning care for a patient with a chronic condition, a nurse sets a goal: “The patient will ambulate independently by the end of the week.” Why might this not be considered a 'SMART' goal?

<p>The goal is not specific enough regarding the extent of independent ambulation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a surgical wound develops an infection despite the use of standard precautions. What additional measure would be most effective in preventing the spread of this infection?

<p>Implementing transmission-based precautions based on the specific infectious agent. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient who is at high risk for falls. Beyond ensuring the bed is in the lowest position and the call light is within reach, what additional intervention would be most effective?

<p>Conducting a comprehensive fall risk assessment to identify specific risk factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a fire in a healthcare facility, a nurse encounters a confused patient in their room. Following the 'RACE' protocol, what action should the nurse prioritize first?

<p>Removing the patient from immediate danger. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse assesses a patient and obtains the following vital signs: temperature 38.5°C, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, and blood pressure 100/60 mmHg. Which vital sign requires the most immediate attention?

<p>Temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing hygiene care for a patient, a nurse notes a small area of redness on the patient's sacrum. Which action should the nurse take first?

<p>Repositioning the patient to relieve pressure on the sacrum. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient expresses concern about an upcoming surgery and requests that their family be informed of all decisions. How should the nurse best demonstrate patient advocacy in this situation?

<p>Informing the surgeon of the patient's wishes and ensuring the family is included in the decision-making process. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who is hospitalized. Applying Piaget's theory, what activity would be most appropriate for this child's cognitive stage?

<p>Providing building blocks for creating structures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is prioritizing care for multiple patients. According to Maslow's Hierarchy, which patient need should the nurse address first?

<p>A patient reporting difficulty breathing and low oxygen saturation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adolescent is struggling with their identity and future goals. According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, in which stage is this patient?

<p>Identity vs. Role Confusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse observes a child consistently making choices to avoid punishment. According to Kohlberg's theory, which stage of moral development is the child demonstrating?

<p>Preconventional (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 9-year-old child is having difficulty in school and feels inadequate compared to their peers. According to Erikson's theory, which psychosocial crisis is the child experiencing?

<p>Industry vs. Inferiority (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is planning care for a patient who is focused on achieving their full potential and personal growth. According to Maslow's Hierarchy, which need is this patient striving to fulfill?

<p>Self-Actualization (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A teenager is actively exploring different social groups, beliefs, and values to establish a sense of self. Which of Erikson’s psychosocial stages align with this behavior?

<p>Identity vs. Role Confusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse explains to a child that even though a cookie is broken into smaller pieces, it's still the same amount of cookie. According to Piaget's theory, which cognitive concept has the child developed?

<p>Conservatism (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A middle-aged adult is volunteering in their community and mentoring young people. According to Erikson's theory, which psychosocial stage is this individual demonstrating?

<p>Generativity vs. Stagnation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a toddler who becomes distressed when a toy is hidden from view, even though the toddler saw where it was placed. According to Piaget's theory, what concept is the toddler still developing?

<p>Object Permanence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person makes a moral decision based on internalized principles of justice, even if it means going against societal norms. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral development is this?

<p>Postconventional (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing care, a nurse focuses on the patient's need for shelter, food, and water before addressing other concerns. Which of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is the nurse prioritizing?

<p>Physiological Needs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An elderly patient reflects on their life with a sense of fulfillment and satisfaction. According to Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, what stage is this patient experiencing?

<p>Integrity vs. Despair (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 5-year-old firmly believes that their stuffed animal is alive and has feelings. According to Piaget’s theory, what is this belief an example of?

<p>Animism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing a crisis related to feeling unproductive and lacking purpose in their career after 50 years of age. According to Erikson, which stage is the patient struggling with?

<p>Generativity vs. Stagnation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child understands that a tall glass and a short, wide glass can hold the same amount of liquid, even though they look different. According to Piaget, which cognitive concept is demonstrated?

<p>Conservatism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young adult is struggling to form meaningful relationships and feels isolated from others. According to Erikson's theory, which psychosocial crisis is the individual experiencing?

<p>Intimacy vs. Isolation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is primarily motivated to make decisions based on how those decisions will impact their relationships with others and whether they will gain approval. According to Kohlberg, which stage of moral development is this patient demonstrating?

<p>Conventional (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 2-year-old enjoys exploring the world by touching, tasting, and moving around. According to Piaget, which stage of cognitive development is this child in?

<p>Sensorimotor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is helping a patient set goals to meet their needs according to Maslow's hierarchy. Which goal aligns with meeting self-esteem needs?

<p>Enrolling in a class to learn a new skill. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A male patient's lab results show a hemoglobin level of 12.8 g/dL. Which action should the nurse take first?

<p>Assess the patient for signs of anemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A female patient's hematocrit level is 30%. Considering the normal range, what condition is most likely indicated?

<p>Anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's white blood cell count is reported as 15.0 x 10^9/L. Which condition most likely correlates with this result?

<p>Bacterial infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's platelet count is 100 x 10^9/L. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important to implement?

<p>Initiate bleeding precautions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's sodium level is 120 mEq/L. What assessment finding would the nurse most likely observe?

<p>Muscle weakness and confusion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's potassium level is 6.0 mEq/L. What is the priority nursing intervention?

<p>Restrict potassium intake and monitor cardiac rhythm. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's calcium level is 7.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings would the nurse most likely assess?

<p>Positive Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's magnesium level is 1.5 mg/dL. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?

<p>Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with diabetes has a glucose level of 60 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action?

<p>Provide a carbohydrate-rich snack. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's BUN level is 35 mg/dL and creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL. What condition do these values suggest?

<p>Kidney dysfunction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's albumin level is 2.8 g/dL. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse most likely observe?

<p>Peripheral edema (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's AST level is 50 IU/L and ALT is 60 IU/L. What organ dysfunction do these laboratory values suggest?

<p>Hepatic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's ALP is 150 IU/L. Which follow-up action is most appropriate for the nurse to anticipate?

<p>Assessing for jaundice and abdominal pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's bilirubin level is 2.5 mg/dL. What physical assessment finding would the nurse correlate with this lab value?

<p>Jaundice (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

<p>Monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm and watch for dysrhythmias. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's laboratory results show a sodium level of 150 mEq/L. What nursing intervention is most appropriate for this patient?

<p>Administer IV fluids and monitor urinary output. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's creatinine level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

<p>The patient's urine output is 50 mL in the last 4 hours. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's ALT level is 90 IU/L. What assessment question is most important for the nurse to ask the patient?

<p>Do you have a history of heavy alcohol consumption? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a WBC count of 3.0 x 10^9/L. What nursing intervention is most important to include in the patient's plan of care?

<p>Monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a platelet count of 75 x 10^9/L. What is the most appropriate recommendation to teach the patient upon discharge?

<p>Avoid taking aspirin or NSAIDs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports difficulty distinguishing between different smells after a head injury. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

<p>Olfactory nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a neurological examination, a doctor assesses a patient's ability to shrug their shoulders against resistance. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

<p>Accessory nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with paralysis on one side of their face and reports a loss of taste sensation. Which cranial nerve is most likely involved?

<p>Facial nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is unable to move their eyes to look laterally. Which cranial nerve is likely impaired?

<p>Abducens nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing vertigo and hearing loss. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

<p>Vestibulocochlear nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a physical exam, a patient is asked to stick out their tongue, and the nurse observes that it deviates to one side. Which cranial nerve is likely affected?

<p>Hypoglossal nerve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a condition affecting their ability to taste and swallow. Which cranial nerve is likely involved?

<p>Glossopharyngeal nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has difficulty constricting their pupil in response to bright light. Which cranial nerve is likely affected?

<p>Oculomotor nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is experiencing intense facial pain and tics. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

<p>Trigeminal nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an eye exam, it's discovered that a patient has difficulty moving their eye downward and inward. Which cranial nerve is potentially damaged?

<p>Trochlear nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a hoarse voice and difficulty swallowing. Which cranial nerve is likely affected?

<p>Vagus nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's vision is assessed, and it's noted that they have difficulty seeing. Which cranial nerve is being evaluated?

<p>Optic nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for regulating heart rhythm and innervating the smooth muscles in the lungs and gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Vagus nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve provides motor function to the stylopharyngeus muscle, allowing the throat to shorten and widen during swallowing?

<p>Glossopharyngeal nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is tested when assessing a patient's ability to clench their teeth?

<p>Trigeminal nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a loss of sensation in the upper teeth and lower eyelid. Which part of the trigeminal nerve is likely affected?

<p>Maxillary part (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting information related to balance?

<p>Vestibular nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is undergoing vagus nerve stimulation therapy. Which condition is least likely to be treated with this therapy?

<p>Migraine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerve helps the lens of the eye adjust to short-range and long-range vision?

<p>Oculomotor nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes how olfactory information is transmitted to the brain?

<p>Olfactory receptors send impulses to the olfactory bulb, then to the frontal lobe. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Nursing (ANA Definition)

Protecting, promoting, and advancing clients’ health; averting illness and injuries; facilitating recovery; minimizing suffering; advocating for client care.

Evidence-Based Practice

Using evidence from credible scientific research to guide nursing interventions and clinical judgment.

Code of Ethics

Values and ideals that guide the nursing profession.

Scope and Standards of Practice

Nursing care and professionalism competency statements.

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Policies and Procedures

Health care organization rules and regulations that direct nursing practice.

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Nurse Practice Act

State rules and regulations to guide nursing care delivery.

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Self-Determination

The responsibility of the nurse to act professionally.

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Nursing Process (ADPIE)

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.

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Assessment (Nursing Process)

Gathering subjective (patient-reported) & objective (measurable) data.

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Diagnosis (Nursing Process)

Identify patient problems using NANDA-approved diagnoses.

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Planning (SMART Goals)

Set Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound goals.

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Implementation (Nursing Process)

Perform nursing interventions (independent, dependent, collaborative).

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Evaluation (Nursing Process)

Determine if goals were met and modify care plan as needed.

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Standard Precautions

Used for all patients; includes hand hygiene and gloves for bodily fluids.

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Transmission-Based Precautions

Contact, Droplet, and Airborne.

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Contact Precautions

Gown & gloves (e.g., MRSA, C. diff).

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Droplet Precautions

Mask within 3 feet (e.g., influenza, pertussis).

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Airborne Precautions

N95 mask, negative airflow room (e.g., TB, measles, varicella).

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Medical Asepsis

Clean technique (e.g., hand hygiene, disinfecting).

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Surgical Asepsis

Sterile technique (e.g., catheter insertion, surgical procedures).

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Fall Prevention

Bed in lowest position, call light within reach, non-skid socks.

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Restraints (Patient Safety)

Use as a last resort, check skin integrity every 2 hours, provider order required.

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Fire Safety (RACE)

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish.

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Normal Temperature Range

36.5-37.5°C (97.7-99.5°F)

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Normal Heart Rate Range

60-100 bpm

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Normal Respiratory Rate Range

12-20 breaths/min

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Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development

Thinking, reasoning, and decision-making processes across a lifespan, categorized into preconventional, conventional, and postconventional stages.

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Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

A hierarchical organization of human needs, where basic physiological needs must be met before higher-level psychosocial needs can be addressed.

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Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development

Key stages in human development, each marked by a psychosocial crisis that shapes personality and social interactions.

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Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage (Birth to 2 years)

Humans learn through senses and movement, developing object permanence.

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Piaget's Preoperational Stage (2-7 years)

Magical thinking and animism are present.

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Piaget's Concrete Operational Stage (7-11 years)

Understanding of cause and effect and conservatism develops.

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Piaget's Formal Operational Stage (11+ years)

Abstract thinking, deductive reasoning, and logic-based problem solving.

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Kohlberg's Preconventional Stage

From birth to age 5, actions are taken to avoid consequences or gain rewards.

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Kohlberg's Conventional Stage

From age 6 to 12, actions are based on how they affect others and the desire for approval.

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Kohlberg's Postconventional Stage

Beginning around age 13, abstract ideas and diverse perspectives influence decision-making.

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Physiological Needs (Maslow)

Biological survival needs are the most important.

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Safety Needs (Maslow)

Security, employment, and access to resources.

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Love and Belonging (Maslow)

Relationships with friends, family, and partners.

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Self-Esteem (Maslow)

Achievement and respect, both from others and self-respect.

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Self-Actualization (Maslow)

Pursuing inner talents, fulfillment, and achieving personal goals.

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Trust vs. Mistrust (Erikson, Birth-1 year)

Learning what can be trusted and what cannot.

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Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (Erikson, 1-3 years)

Learning autonomy but internalizing shame/doubt if autonomy suppressed.

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Initiative vs. Guilt (Erikson, 3-6 years)

Taking initiative but internalizing guilt if initiative is prevented.

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Industry vs. Inferiority (Erikson, 6-12 years)

Becoming part of industry but risking inferiority if compared/ranked.

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Identity vs. Confusion (Erikson, 12-18 years)

Forming identity but risking confusion about one's place in the world.

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Hemoglobin (Hb) Normal Values

Normal range for hemoglobin in males is 13.5-17.5 g/dL; females: 12-16 g/dL.

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Hematocrit (Hct) Normal Values

Normal range is 40-50% for males and 36-47% for females.

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WBC Count Normal Values

Normal range is 4.5-11.0 x 10^9/L.

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Platelet Count Normal Values

Normal range is 150-400 x 10^9/L.

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Sodium (Na) Normal Values

Normal range is 135-145 mEq/L.

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Potassium (K) Normal Values

Normal range is 3.5-5.5 mEq/L.

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Chloride (Cl) Normal Values

Normal range is 95-105 mEq/L.

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Calcium (Ca) Normal Values

Normal range is 8.5-10.2 mg/dL.

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Magnesium (Mg) Normal Values

Normal range is 1.8-2.4 mg/dL.

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Glucose Normal Values

Normal range is 70-110 mg/dL.

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BUN Normal Values

Normal range is 5-20 mg/dL.

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Creatinine Normal Values

Normal range is 0.6-1.2 mg/dL.

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Albumin Normal Values

Normal range is 3.5-5.5 g/dL.

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AST Normal Values

Normal range is 0-35 IU/L.

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ALT Normal Values

Normal range is 0-40 IU/L.

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ALP Normal Values

Normal range is 40-120 IU/L.

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Bilirubin Normal Values

Normal range is 0.1-1.0 mg/dL.

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Nervo Cranial 1

Le nervo olfactori (CN I) es un nervo sensori responsabile pro le olfacto.

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Nervo Cranial 2

Le nervo optic (CN II) es un nervo sensori responsabile pro le vision.

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Nervo Cranial 3

Le nervo oculomotori (CN III) es un nervo motori que controla le movimento del oculo e le constriction pupillari.

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Nervo Cranial 4

Le nervo trochlear (CN IV) es un nervo motori que innerva le musculo oblique superior del oculo.

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Nervo Cranial 5

Le nervo trigemino (CN V) es un nervo mixte responsabile pro sensation facial e mastication.

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Nervo Cranial 6

Le nervo abducente (CN VI) es un nervo motori que controla le movimento lateral del oculo.

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Nervo Cranial 7

Le nervo facial (CN VII) es un nervo mixte responsabile pro expressiones facial, gusto, e saliva.

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Nervo Cranial 8

Le nervo vestibulocochlear (CN VIII) es un nervo sensori responsabile pro audito e equilibrio.

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Nervo Cranial 9

Le nervo glossopharyngal (CN IX) es un nervo mixte responsabile pro gusto, deglution, e saliva.

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Nervo Cranial 10

Le nervo vago (CN X) es un nervo mixte con functiones variate, includente le controllo del corde, digestion, e voce.

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Nervo Cranial 11

Le nervo accessori spinal (CN XI) es un nervo motori que controla le musculos del collo e del schino.

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Nervo Cranial 12

Le nervo hypoglossal (CN XII) es un nervo motori que controla le movimentos del lingua.

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Olfactory Nerve (I)

Transmits smell information to the brain from the nasal passage.

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Optic Nerve (II)

Transmits visual information from the retina to the brain.

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Oculomotor Nerve (III)

Controls most eye movements, pupil constriction, and upper eyelid elevation.

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Trochlear Nerve (IV)

Controls the superior oblique muscle, responsible for downward and inward eye movement.

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Trigeminal Nerve (V)

Largest cranial nerve; responsible for facial sensation and chewing.

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Abducens Nerve (VI)

Controls the lateral rectus muscle, responsible for outward eye movement.

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Facial Nerve (VII)

Controls facial expressions, taste, and some gland functions.

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Vestibulocochlear Nerve (VIII)

Responsible for hearing and balance.

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Glossopharyngeal Nerve (IX)

Receives sensory information from the throat, tonsils, middle ear, and tongue; controls swallowing.

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Vagus Nerve (X)

Has motor, sensory, and parasympathetic functions; affects heart rhythm, digestion, and voice.

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Accessory Nerve (XI)

Controls muscles in the neck, allowing head and shoulder movement.

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Hypoglossal Nerve (XII)

Controls tongue movement.

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Study Notes

  • Nursing, according to the ANA, involves protecting and promoting health, preventing illness and injuries, aiding recovery, alleviating suffering, and advocating for patients.

Evidence-Based Practice

  • Credible research informs nursing interventions and clinical judgment.

Guiding Principles in Nursing

  • Code of Ethics defines nursing values.
  • Scope and Standards of Practice details nursing care and expected competency.
  • Policies and Procedures are rules and regulations within healthcare organizations.
  • Nurse Practice Act is state regulations that guide nursing care.
  • Self-determination requires nurses to act professionally.

Nursing Process (ADPIE)

  • Assessment involves collecting subjective and objective data.
  • Diagnosis involves identifying patient problems using NANDA diagnoses.
  • Planning involves establishing SMART goals (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound).
  • Implementation involves carrying out nursing interventions (independent, dependent, collaborative).
  • Evaluation involves checking if goals were achieved and revising the plan if needed.

Infection Control & Safety

Infection Control

  • Standard Precautions are used for all patients, including hand hygiene and gloves for bodily fluids.
  • Transmission-Based Precautions include:
    • Contact: Gown and gloves for infections like MRSA and C. diff.
    • Droplet: Mask needed within 3 feet for influenza and pertussis.
    • Airborne: N95 mask and negative airflow room for TB, measles, and varicella.
    • Medical Asepsis: Clean technique including hand hygiene and disinfecting.
    • Surgical Asepsis: Sterile technique used for catheter insertion and surgical procedures.

Patient Safety

  • Fall Prevention: Keep bed low, call light accessible, use non-skid socks.
  • Restraints: Used as a last resort, with skin integrity checked every 2 hours and a provider's order.
  • Fire Safety (RACE): Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish.

Vital Signs & Physical Assessment

Normal Ranges

  • Temperature: 36.5-37.5°C (97.7-99.5°F).
  • Heart Rate: 60-100 bpm.
  • Respiratory Rate: 12-20 breaths/min.

Theoretical Frameworks in Nursing

  • Key frameworks include Kohlberg, Maslow, Erikson, and Piaget, which are commonly found on nursing exams
  • These frameworks help nurses understand patients' behavior, leading to better caregiving
  • This enhances nursing communication and the nurse/patient relationship by understanding patient motives, needs, and perceptions.

Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development

  • Focuses on thinking, reasoning, and decision-making across the lifespan.
  • Three stages: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional.
    • Preconventional: From birth to age 5, actions are taken to avoid consequences or gain rewards; sticker charts are effective
    • Conventional: From age 6 to 12, children consider how their actions affect others and follow social norms, seeking approval
    • Postconventional: Begins around age 13; abstract ideas and other perspectives influence decision-making.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

  • Organizes human needs hierarchically, with physiological needs at the base.
  • Psychosocial, higher-level needs can't be met until basic needs are met.
  • Nurses should prioritize physiological needs (like pain and nutrition) before psychosocial needs (like body image).
  • Physiological needs: Biological survival needs like water, food, and shelter.
  • Safety: Includes security, employment, and access to resources.
  • Love and belonging: Includes relationships with friends, family, and significant others.
  • Self-esteem: Includes achievement and respect from others and self-respect.
  • Self-actualization: Includes pursuing inner talents, fulfillment, and achieving personal goals.

Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development

  • Describes key stages in human development and the psychosocial crisis at each stage
  • Psychosocial crisis: A conflict involving mental health and the social environment during each stage
    • Birth to 1 year: Trust vs. mistrust, learning whether needs are met when expressed.
    • 1 to 3 years: Autonomy vs. shame and doubt, learning to act on the world, but can internalize shame if autonomy is suppressed.
    • 3 to 6 years: Initiative vs. guilt, taking initiative and asserting themselves, but may internalize guilt if prevented.
    • 6 to 12 years: Industry vs. inferiority, becoming part of "industry" through school and activities, risking feelings of inferiority.
    • Nurses can support hospitalized children in this stage by providing crafts or ensuring they receive homework.
    • 12 to 18 years: Identity vs. confusion, forming identity but may experience confusion about their place in the world.
    • 18 to 40 years: Intimacy vs. isolation, seeking intimacy but risking isolation if unsuccessful.
    • 40 to 65 years: Generativity vs. stagnation, finding life's work and purpose or feeling stuck.
    • 65 years and older: Integrity vs. despair, reflecting on life with pride or feeling despair.

Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development

  • Describes perception and cognition across the lifespan.
  • Sensorimotor stage (birth to 2 years): Learning through senses and movement, developing object permanence
    • Object permanence: Understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of sight. Absence of this explains why peekaboo is fun for babies.
    • Preoperational stage (2 to 7 years): Magical thinking (believing magic is real) and animism (attributing human characteristics to inanimate objects).
    • Concrete operational stage (7 to 11 years): Understanding cause and effect, and the concept of conservation.
    • Conservation is the idea that matter does not change when its form is altered.
    • Formal operational stage (11+ years): Developing abstract thinking, deductive reasoning, and logic-based problem-solving.
    • Abstract thinking: The ability to think about concepts and abstract ideas.

Normal Laboratory Values for Adults

Hematology

  • Hemoglobin (Hb):
    • Male: 13.5-17.5 g/dL
    • Female: 12-16 g/dL
  • Hematocrit (Hct):
    • Male: 40-50%
    • Female: 36-47%
  • White Blood Cell (WBC) Count: 4.5-11.0 x 10^9/L
  • Platelet Count: 150-400 x 10^9/L

Chemistry

  • Sodium (Na): 135-145 mEq/L
  • Potassium (K): 3.5-5.5 mEq/L
  • Chloride (Cl): 95-105 mEq/L
  • Calcium (Ca): 8.5-10.2 mg/dL
  • Magnesium (Mg): 1.8-2.4 mg/dL
  • Glucose: 70-110 mg/dL
  • Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN): 5-20 mg/dL
  • Creatinine: 0.6-1.2 mg/dL
  • Albumin: 3.5-5.5 g/dL

Liver Function Tests (LFTs)

  • Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST): 0-35 IU/L
  • Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT): 0-40 IU/L
  • Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP): 40-120 IU/L
  • Bilirubin: 0.1-1.0 mg/dL

Cranial Nerves

  • Cranial nerves are a set of twelve nerves originating in the brain, each with a different sensory or movement function.
  • Cranial nerves are labeled with Roman numerals I to XII, according to their location in the brain.
  • Cranial nerve 1: Olfactory nerve (CN I) - sensory
  • Cranial nerve 2: Optic nerve (CN II) - sensory
  • Cranial nerve 3: Oculomotor nerve (CN III) - motor
  • Cranial nerve 4: Trochlear nerve (CN IV) - motor
  • Cranial nerve 5: Trigeminal nerve (CN V) - mixed
  • Cranial nerve 6: Abducens nerve (CN VI) - motor
  • Cranial nerve 7: Facial nerve (CN VII) - mixed
  • Cranial nerve 8: Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) - sensory
  • Cranial nerve 9: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) - mixed
  • Cranial nerve 10: Vagus nerve (CN X) - mixed
  • Cranial nerve 11: (Spinal) Accessory nerve (CN XI) - motor
  • Cranial nerve 12: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) - motor
  • The mnemonic "Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel Very Good Velvet — Ah, Heaven!" is one way to remember the 12 cranial nerves.

Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

  • Transmits information about the sense of smell to the brain.
  • Olfactory receptors send impulses to the cranial cavity and then to the olfactory bulb after fragrant molecules are inhaled.
  • Olfactory neurons and nerve fibers connect with other nerves, passing into the olfactory tract.
  • The olfactory tract goes to the frontal lobe and other memory and smell notation areas of the brain.

Optic Nerve (CN II)

  • Transmits visual information to the brain.
  • Light enters the eye and hits the retina, which contains photoreceptors called rods and cones.
  • Cones in the central retina enable color vision.
  • Rods in the peripheral retina are responsible for noncolor vision.
  • Photoreceptors carry signal impulses along nerve cells to form the optic nerve.
  • Most optic nerve fibers cross into the optic chiasm, then project to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe.
  • The occipital lobe handles visual information.

Oculomotor Nerve (CN III)

  • Controls muscle movements of the eyes.
  • Provides movement to most muscles that move the eyeball and upper eyelid (extraocular muscles).
  • Helps with involuntary eye functions, such as the sphincter pupillae muscle constricting the pupil in bright light and relaxing in dim light.
  • Ciliary muscles help the lens adjust to short-range and long-range vision.

Trochlear Nerve (CN IV)

  • Also involved in eye movement.
  • Powers the contralateral superior oblique muscle, allowing the eye to point downward and inward.

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

  • The largest cranial nerve, with both motor and sensory functions.
  • Motor functions help with chewing and clenching teeth and gives sensation to muscles in the tympanic membrane.
  • Sensory division has three parts: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular.
    • Ophthalmic part: Sensation to parts of the eyes, nasal mucosa, and skin on the nose, eyelid, and forehead.
    • Maxillary part: Sensation to the middle third of the face, side of the nose, upper teeth, and lower eyelid.
    • Mandibular part: Sensation to the lower third of the face, tongue, oral mucosa, and lower teeth.
  • Trigeminal neuralgia is a common disorder causing intense pain and facial tics.

Abducens Nerve (CN VI)

  • Helps control eye movements.
  • Helps the lateral rectus muscle turn the gaze outward.
  • It starts in the pons of the brainstem, enters Dorello’s canal, travels through the cavernous sinus, and ends at the lateral rectus muscle.

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

  • Has both motor and sensory functions.
  • Consists of four nuclei serving different functions:
    • Movement of muscles producing facial expression.
    • Movement of the lacrimal, submaxillary, and submandibular glands.
    • Sensation of the external ear.
    • Sensation of taste.
  • The four nuclei originate in the pons and medulla, joining together to travel to the geniculate ganglion.
  • Bell’s palsy is a common disorder causing paralysis on one side of the face and possible loss of taste sensation.

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)

  • Helps with hearing and balance.
  • Contains two components: the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve.
    • Vestibular nerve: Helps the body sense changes in the position of the head, maintaining balance.
    • Cochlear nerve: Helps with hearing; inner hair cells and the basilar membrane vibrate in response to sounds.
  • Fibers combine in the pons and exit the skull via the internal acoustic meatus in the temporal bone.

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

  • Possesses both motor and sensory functions.
  • Sensory function receives information from the throat, tonsils, middle ear, and back of the tongue, also has a role in taste sensation on the back of the tongue.
  • The motor division provides movement to the stylopharyngeus, a muscle allowing the throat to shorten and widen.
  • Starts in the medulla oblongata and leaves the skull through the jugular foramen, leading to the tympanic nerve.

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

  • Has a range of functions, providing motor, sensory, and parasympathetic functions. -Sensory part: Sensation to the outer ear, throat, heart, and abdominal organs, also plays a role in taste sensation. -Motor part: Movement to the throat and soft palate. -Parasympathetic function: Regulates heart rhythm and innervates smooth muscles in the airway, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.
  • Vagus nerve stimulation therapy is used to treat epilepsy, depression, and anxiety.
  • The vagus nerve is the longest cranial nerve, starting in the medulla and extending to the abdomen.

Accessory Nerve (CN XI)

  • Provides motor function to some muscles in the neck.
  • Controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles for rotating, extending, and flexing the neck and shoulders.
  • Separates into spinal and cranial parts.
    • Spinal component: Starts in the spinal cord and travels into the skull through the foramen magnum, meeting the cranial component and exiting along the internal carotid artery.
    • Cranial part: Combines with the vagus nerve.

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)

  • A motor nerve supplying the tongue muscles and originates in the medulla.
  • Disorders can cause paralysis of the tongue, often on one side.
  • The trochlear nerve is the shortest cranial nerve because it has the lowest number of axons.

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