NIH Final Exam Review
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Questions and Answers

What is a key characteristic common to all types of shock?

  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Decreased blood pressure (correct)
  • Increased blood volume

Which type of shock is primarily caused by a significant decrease in circulating blood volume?

  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Hypovolemic shock (correct)
  • Distributive shock
  • Obstructive shock

What primarily causes cardiogenic shock?

  • Cardiac muscle failure (correct)
  • Infection leading to systemic inflammation
  • Excessive dilation of blood vessels
  • Blockage of blood flow outside the heart

What complication can arise from shock if the brain experiences anoxic conditions for over 4 minutes?

<p>Brain death (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of septic shock?

<p>Persistent fever and flushed skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of shock is characterized by excessive dilation of venules and arterioles?

<p>Distributive shock (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a potential cause of neurogenic shock?

<p>Spinal cord injury (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What vital sign change is typically associated with shock conditions?

<p>Elevated respiratory rate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary cause of hypovolemic shock?

<p>Decreased circulating blood volume (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment should be prioritized for a patient with septic shock?

<p>Obtain blood cultures before starting antibiotics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception about anaphylactic shock management?

<p>Healthcare providers should wait to see if symptoms resolve. (A), Symptoms can be treated with antihistamines alone. (C), Patients don’t need to carry an autoinjector after one episode. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is most indicative of septic shock?

<p>Hypotension despite fluid resuscitation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is a common cause of neurogenic shock?

<p>Spinal cord injury (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions should a nurse take for a patient experiencing shock?

<p>Monitor blood pressure regularly (B), Maintain airway and oxygenation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of fluids in treating hypovolemic shock?

<p>To expand intravascular volume (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about managing cardiogenic shock is inaccurate?

<p>Monitoring patient response is unnecessary. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of shock is characterized by cardiac failure where the heart fails to adequately pump blood to the body?

<p>Cardiogenic Shock (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of acute pulmonary hypertension that can lead to shock?

<p>Increased pulmonary artery pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is specifically associated with anaphylactic shock?

<p>Laryngeal edema (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the early phase of septic shock, which of the following symptoms is typically observed?

<p>Warm/flushed skin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can be a cause of neurogenic shock?

<p>Brain contusions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following signs is NOT typically associated with hypovolemic shock?

<p>Bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first action to take when managing anaphylactic shock?

<p>Maintain airway patency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of obstructive shock?

<p>Blocked blood flow outside the heart (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Septic shock is commonly associated with which of the following?

<p>Systemic infection and inflammation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is indicative of the late stage of neurogenic shock?

<p>Tachycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes anaphylactic shock?

<p>Extreme hypersensitivity reaction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is common in both hypovolemic and septic shock?

<p>Altered mental status (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the later phase of septic shock symptoms?

<p>Cold clammy skin and decreased BP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main vascular change observed in distributive shock?

<p>Excessive vasodilation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take for a patient with septic shock?

<p>Obtain blood cultures before starting antibiotics (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical intervention should a nurse implement for a patient experiencing shock?

<p>Maintain airway and ensure oxygenation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the causes of cardiogenic shock is correct?

<p>It is primarily caused by myocardial infarction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is commonly associated with hypovolemic shock?

<p>Weak pulses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key intervention to manage a patient diagnosed with allergic reactions?

<p>Elevate the head of the bed while sleeping (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct nursing action for a patient with newly diagnosed cardiogenic shock?

<p>Monitor IV fluid orders closely (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with hypotensive shock, which action is indicated?

<p>Relieve pain effectively (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions is unnecessary for a patient in shock?

<p>Encourage walking exercises (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected initial treatment for a patient in septic shock?

<p>Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics quickly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition may lead to obstructive shock due to blocked blood flow outside the heart?

<p>Tension pneumothorax (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In septic shock, what is a sign often observed during the early phase?

<p>Warm/flushed skin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first priority when managing anaphylactic shock?

<p>Maintain airway patency (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is specifically associated with cardiogenic shock but not with hypovolemic shock?

<p>Pulmonary edema (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can be a potential cause of neurogenic shock?

<p>Brain contusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common early signs of septic shock?

<p>Elevated white blood cells and fever (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom can occur in anaphylactic shock indicating an airway obstruction?

<p>Laryngeal edema (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of shock is pallor and cool clammy skin particularly noted?

<p>Hypovolemic shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of shock results from extreme hypersensitivity reaction?

<p>Anaphylactic shock (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of significant fluid loss leading to hypovolemic shock?

<p>Decreased blood pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the compensatory mechanisms in shock fail?

<p>Organ damage and death occur (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common metabolic change observed in shock?

<p>Tachycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of shock is characterized by a blockage of blood flow outside the heart?

<p>Obstructive shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential complication of shock that may affect the lungs?

<p>Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is common to all forms of shock?

<p>Decreased blood pressure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main cause of distributive shock?

<p>Excessive dilation of venules and arterioles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological response is NOT typically observed in shock?

<p>Increased urine output (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system during shock?

<p>Promotion of tachycardia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one effect on organ systems when tissue perfusion is inadequate?

<p>Ischemia and potential organ injury (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is essential for maintaining tissue perfusion and blood pressure?

<p>Adequate blood volume (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes malignant neoplasms from benign neoplasms?

<p>Malignant neoplasms invade local tissues uncontrollably. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common method by which malignant cells spread throughout the body?

<p>Metastasis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following processes contributes to the development of cancer after DNA alteration?

<p>Promotion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT considered a risk factor for cancer development?

<p>Frequent physical exercise (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cancer is primarily associated with lymph tissue?

<p>Lymphoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cancer prevention method focuses on recognizing early signs of cancer?

<p>Early detection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a carcinogen?

<p>Sunlight exposure (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes 'in situ' cancer?

<p>It remains localized and is hard to detect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of regular screenings such as mammograms and pap smears?

<p>To identify precursors or early stages of cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which dietary recommendation is made to promote cancer prevention?

<p>Consume 2 ½ cups of fruits and vegetables each day (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of test is considered the only accurate way to identify cancer?

<p>Biopsy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of PET scans in cancer diagnosis?

<p>To detect abnormal cell growth and assess spread of cancer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does nuclear imaging assist in cancer diagnosis?

<p>It detects sites of abnormal cell growth (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common diagnostic test for cancer detection?

<p>Physical examination without imaging techniques (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Tis indicate in cancer staging?

<p>Carcinoma in situ with no spread (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What lifestyle change can significantly reduce the risk of developing cancer?

<p>Smoking cessation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which side effect is commonly associated with radiation treatment?

<p>Xerostomia (dry mouth) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by the 'NX' designation in cancer staging?

<p>Regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of monitoring tumor markers in lab tests?

<p>They help confirm a diagnosis and monitor treatment effects (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a well differentiated tumor?

<p>Resembles normal tissue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During chemotherapy, what is the significant risk associated with vesicant drugs?

<p>Necrosis if infiltration occurs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common side effect of poorly differentiated tumors?

<p>They contain mostly abnormal cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of combinations in chemotherapy?

<p>Timing is crucial for drugs to obtain desired effects (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an increase in reticulocytes indicate?

<p>Increased levels of immature RBCs due to hypoxia or anemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of white blood cells is primarily increased during viral infections?

<p>Lymphocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it likely that eosinophils would be decreased?

<p>During bacterial infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is associated with an increased level of basophils?

<p>Hyperthyroidism (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to hemoglobin levels in cases of anemia or blood loss?

<p>They decrease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following indicates a response to bacterial infections?

<p>Increased neutrophils (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition may result in decreased levels of reticulocytes?

<p>RBC maturation defects (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of white blood cells is increased in allergic responses?

<p>Eosinophils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can be a potential cause of secondary polycythemia?

<p>Long-term hypoxia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant sign of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

<p>Joint pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is associated with an acquired bleeding disorder?

<p>Von Willebrand disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be avoided to reduce the risk of decreased tissue perfusion?

<p>Strenuous exercise (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for managing polycythemia?

<p>Phlebotomy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention is critical for a patient with Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)?

<p>Monitoring blood platelet levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is commonly associated with acute polycythemia?

<p>Itching due to excess mast cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathophysiological consequence of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

<p>Excessive bleeding due to clotting factor depletion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which dietary change is recommended to help manage iron deficiency anemia?

<p>Choose foods with high iron content (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of aplastic anemia?

<p>Bone marrow fatty tissue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of sickle cell anemia?

<p>Gallstones (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What intervention is crucial for managing a patient with aplastic anemia?

<p>Minimize exposure to infections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test helps in diagnosing sickle cell anemia?

<p>Sickle Dex test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is most likely associated with a crisis in sickle cell anemia?

<p>Severe chest pain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of untreated aplastic anemia?

<p>Multiple organ failure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention should be avoided in a patient with aplastic anemia?

<p>Exposure to infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the highest priority action for a nurse managing a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

<p>Maintain patient's airway (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is typically observed in the later phase of septic shock?

<p>Cold and clammy skin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common precursor condition that may lead to septic shock?

<p>Corticosteroid therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which class of drugs is typically administered in anaphylactic shock to counteract severe allergic reactions?

<p>Epinephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In neurogenic shock, which of the following symptoms might be present?

<p>Bradycardia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of shock is a leading cause of death in critically ill patients due to its severe effects on the body?

<p>Septic shock (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Regarding therapeutic measures for shock, which intervention is not commonly performed?

<p>Administer sedatives to calm the patient (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What describes the typical skin characteristics observed in a patient experiencing early septic shock?

<p>Warm and flushed skin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended position for a patient using an incentive spirometer?

<p>Sitting upright at 45 degrees (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How often should the patient perform deep breathing exercises post-operation?

<p>Every hour while awake (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of coughing and splinting the incision with a pillow post-operatively?

<p>To prevent pneumonia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical component of pre-operative patient care regarding consent?

<p>Ensuring no coercion occurs during consent (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a nurse do if a patient expresses extreme anxiety before surgery?

<p>Involve the surgeon to address their fears (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which items should be removed from a patient before surgery as part of the pre-operative checklist?

<p>Denture, contact lenses, and metal items (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the nurse's role when witnessing the signing of a consent form?

<p>Ensuring the patient or authorized person understands the consent (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the use of pain medication in relation to coughing post-operatively?

<p>Pain medication should be provided before coughing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the circulating nurse during a surgical procedure?

<p>Maintains a sterile environment and oversees the scrub person (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary complication associated with malignant hyperthermia?

<p>Muscle rigidity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing action is crucial for airway management in the post-operative phase?

<p>Position the patient on their side or with head turned (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which significant sign indicates the possibility of malignant hyperthermia during surgery?

<p>High fever (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of a nurse caring for a patient who has received IV conscious sedation?

<p>Maintain constant monitoring and have emergency equipment available (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the immediate action when a patient displays symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

<p>Stop surgery and discontinue anesthesia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the duties of the scrub nurse in the intra-operative phase?

<p>Maintains sterile technique and manages surgical instruments (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What complication might a patient experience if they have low respiratory function post-surgery?

<p>Hypoventilation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of nurses in the context of surgical procedures?

<p>To identify and implement actions that reduce surgical risk factors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT considered when assessing surgical outcomes?

<p>Patient's favorite food (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of preoperative education for surgical patients?

<p>To teach patients about post-op care and special preparations (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is an essential consideration for a patient with a lung disorder prior to surgery?

<p>To avoid smoking 24 hours before surgery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key aspect of postoperative care that nurses should focus on?

<p>Monitoring respiratory function and pain control (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the pre-admission surgical patient assessment?

<p>To gather health history and risk factors for surgical procedures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a patient be instructed to do regarding medication on the day of surgery?

<p>Only take medications specified by the surgical team with a small amount of water (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the perioperative phases that occurs directly before the patient goes to surgery?

<p>Pre-operative phase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing action helps promote circulation in a post-operative patient?

<p>Administer anti-embolus stockings (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key assessment for detecting complications following surgery?

<p>Monitoring skin color and temperature (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following interventions can help manage post-operative nausea and vomiting?

<p>Administering antiemetics and providing mouth care (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What vital sign changes should a nurse closely monitor in a post-operative patient?

<p>Increased pulse and decreased urinary output (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When promoting comfort for a post-operative patient, which nursing action is most effective?

<p>Grouping treatments and using music for distraction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be the primary focus during the initial post-operative assessment?

<p>Checking the airway and respiratory status (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing action is appropriate for a patient at risk of hypovolemic shock?

<p>Monitor strict intake and output of fluids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is critical in assessing the neurological function of a post-operative patient?

<p>Level of consciousness and orientation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common problem after surgery regarding urinary function?

<p>Urinary retention (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention can help shorten the duration of paralytic ileus post-surgery?

<p>Early ambulation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes second intention wound healing from first intention?

<p>Delayed closure due to tissue necrosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would a healthcare provider most likely need to contact a physician regarding urinary output?

<p>If the patient has not voided for 10 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done if a surgical wound exhibits signs of dehiscence?

<p>Contact the physician (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT typically an interference with wound healing?

<p>Increased fluid intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the risks associated with administering Alvimopan for post-operative recovery?

<p>Myocardial infarction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a nurse proceed with the removal of sutures from a long incision?

<p>Remove every other suture starting with the second (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Shock

Circulatory collapse leading to organ damage and death if not treated quickly.

Shock Pathophysiology

Inadequate tissue perfusion when compensatory mechanisms fail.

Compensation (Shock)

Body's initial response to insufficient blood flow, involving adjustments to keep perfusion going.

Hypovolemic Shock

Low blood volume due to fluid loss in the circulatory system.

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Cardiogenic Shock

Shock caused by the heart's inability to pump effectively.

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Obstructive Shock

Blockage of blood flow outside of the heart limits the ability of the blood to reach the tissues.

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Distributive Shock

Shock caused by excessive dilation of blood vessels (venules/arterioles).

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Shock Complications

Tissue damage, organ failure (ARDS, DIC, MODS), and even death are possible.

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Hypovolemic Shock Cause

Decreased circulating blood volume.

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Cardiogenic Shock Nursing Action

Question IV fluid orders (potentially assess appropriate fluid recommendations).

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Septic Shock Priority Action

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour of diagnosis.

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Shock Interventions (Select All)

Maintain airway/oxygenation, monitor vital signs, monitor intake/output, relieve pain, and check capillary refill (if appropriate).

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Allergy Prevention Intervention

Carry epinephrine auto-injector.

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Shock Patient Teaching (Hypovolemia)

Circulating blood volume is decreased.

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Shock Patient Monitoring

Monitor intake and output, vital signs.

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Shock Intervention (Airway and Oxygen)

Maintain airway and oxygen.

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Causes of Hypovolemic Shock

Dehydration, hemorrhage, fluid loss from burns, vomiting, diarrhea, or fluid shift from blood vessels to tissues.

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Causes of Cardiogenic Shock

Heart attacks, heart valve problems, heart muscle inflammation, severe heart diseases, irregular heartbeats, or heart injury.

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Causes of Obstructive Shock

Pericardial tamponade, tension pneumothorax, pulmonary hypertension.

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Anaphylactic Shock

Severe allergic reaction leading to shock.

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Causes of Anaphylactic Shock

Insect stings, medications, some foods, or certain materials.

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Septic Shock

Shock caused by a severe infection.

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Causes of Septic Shock

Bacterial infection.

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Neurogenic Shock

Shock caused by damage to the nervous system affecting blood vessels.

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Causes of Neurogenic Shock

Injury or conditions that affect the nervous system.

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Signs of Shock

Rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, low urine output, pale or cool clammy skin.

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What are the 'Classic Signs of Shock'?

Rapid heart rate (tachycardia), rapid breathing (tachypnea), low urine output (oliguria), pale and cool clammy skin.

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What is the first action in Anaphylactic Shock?

Maintain airway patency.

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What is the priority intervention in Septic Shock?

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour of diagnosis.

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How to differentiate Hypovolemic from Cardiogenic Shock?

Hypovolemic: Non-distended jugular veins, Cardiogenic: Distended jugular veins.

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Shock Compensation

The body's initial response to insufficient blood flow, involving adjustments like increased heart rate and vasoconstriction, to maintain vital organ perfusion.

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Septic Shock Cause

Severe infection that overwhelms the body's defenses.

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Anaphylactic Shock Cause

Severe allergic reaction triggered by exposure to an allergen.

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Benign Tumor

A noncancerous growth of abnormal cells that grows slowly. They are usually harmless and do not spread to other parts of the body.

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Malignant Tumor

Fast-growing, invasive tumors that can spread to other parts of the body. They are cancerous and can be life-threatening.

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Metastasis

The process where cancer cells spread from the primary tumor to other parts of the body.

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In Situ Cancer

Cancer cells that are confined to the original location and have not spread. These are often detected through microscopic cell analysis.

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Cancer Etiology

The factors and processes that contribute to the development of cancer.

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Carcinogen

A substance or agent that increases the risk of cancer development.

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Cancer Risk Factors

Factors that increase the likelihood of developing cancer.

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Cancer Prevention

Actions taken to reduce the risk of developing cancer.

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Cancer Warning Signs

Changes in your body that could indicate cancer, like indigestion or difficulty swallowing, an obvious change in a mole, or a nagging cough or hoarseness.

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Early Cancer Detection

Regular screenings like mammograms, pap smears, and prostate or lung cancer screenings can help detect cancer early when it's most treatable.

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Healthy Lifestyle for Cancer Prevention

Maintaining a healthy lifestyle by quitting smoking, eating a balanced diet with fruits and vegetables, limiting red meat and alcohol, and exercising regularly can reduce your cancer risk.

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Biopsy

The only accurate way to diagnose cancer, where a sample of tissue or fluid is taken from the suspected area for examination under a microscope.

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Radiological Studies for Cancer

X-rays, CT scans, and mammography are used to detect cancer, especially in bones or hollow organs, and to help stage the disease.

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Nuclear Imaging

A technique like PET scans that uses radioactive material to detect areas of abnormal cell growth and assess its spread.

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Lab Tests for Cancer

Blood, serum, and urine tests can detect tumor markers, which help confirm a cancer diagnosis, identify the source, monitor treatment effectiveness, and determine remission.

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Bone Marrow Aspiration

A common method to diagnose leukemia by analyzing the numbers, shapes, and sizes of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the bone marrow.

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Hematocrit (Hct)

The percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It indicates the volume of RBCs compared to the total blood volume.

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Increased Hct

Indicates a higher concentration of RBCs in the blood, possibly due to dehydration or chronic oxygen deficiency.

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Decreased Hct

Indicates a lower concentration of RBCs in the blood, which could be caused by anemia or blood loss.

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Hemoglobin (Hgb)

The protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to the body's tissues.

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Reticulocytes

Immature red blood cells that are released from the bone marrow before they mature.

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Increased Reticulocytes

Signifies the body is producing more red blood cells, likely due to hypoxia (low oxygen) or anemia.

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Decreased Reticulocytes

Suggests a problem with red blood cell production, often due to a maturation defect in the bone marrow.

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White Blood Cells (WBCs)

Immune cells that fight infections and protect the body from foreign invaders. They are also known as leukocytes.

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Iron Deficiency Anemia

Anemia caused by a lack of iron, which is essential for red blood cell production.

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Iron Deficiency Anemia Symptoms

Common symptoms include fatigue, weakness, pale skin, shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and cold hands and feet.

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Iron Deficiency Anemia Interventions

Interventions include addressing the underlying cause, dietary changes to increase iron intake, iron supplements, blood transfusions, and potentially oxygen administration.

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Aplastic Anemia Pathophysiology

The bone marrow fails to produce adequate red blood cells due to its replacement by fatty tissue.

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Aplastic Anemia Etiology

Causes can be congenital, exposure to toxins, or chemotherapy.

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Sickle Cell Anemia Pathophysiology

Inherited blood disorder where red blood cells are shaped like sickles, leading to blockages and oxygen deprivation.

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Sickle Cell Anemia Crisis Prevention

Prevention focuses on avoiding triggers that lower oxygen levels, such as cold exposure, infection, and strenuous exercise.

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Sickle Cell Anemia Crisis Treatment

Treatment during a crisis includes addressing infection, pain management, blood transfusions, fluids, and oxygen therapy.

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What are the stages of cancer?

Cancer staging uses the TNM system to categorize the tumor (T), lymph node involvement (N), and metastasis (M). It helps determine the extent of the cancer and guides treatment.

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What does 'Tis' mean in cancer staging?

'Tis' stands for carcinoma in situ, which means the cancer is confined to the original location and hasn't spread to nearby tissues.

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What are common side effects of radiation?

Radiation therapy can cause fatigue, nausea, vomiting, mucositis (mouth sores), xerostomia (dry mouth), skin peeling, bone marrow suppression, and hair loss.

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What are the 'BITES' acronym for chemotherapy side effects?

BITES stands for Bleeding (low platelets), Infection (low white blood cells), Tiredness (anemia), Emesis (vomiting) - all potential side effects of chemotherapy.

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What is a vesicant drug?

A vesicant drug, used in chemotherapy, can cause tissue damage if it leaks out of the vein during intravenous administration.

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What is the importance of time, distance, and shielding in radiation safety?

These three factors are crucial for radiation safety. Keeping the time of exposure short, maintaining a safe distance from the source, and using appropriate shielding materials helps minimize radiation exposure.

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What is the main action of chemotherapy drugs?

Chemotherapy drugs are cytotoxic, meaning they kill or damage cancer cells, but they can also affect healthy cells.

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Why is combo therapy used in chemotherapy?

Combo therapy uses several drugs at the same time to target cancer cells from multiple angles and increase its effectiveness. Proper timing between drugs is crucial for optimal results.

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Polycythemia Pathophysiology

Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an overabundance of red blood cells (RBCs), leading to thicker blood. Hemoglobin levels exceed 55%, further contributing to blood viscosity.

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Polycythemia Etiology (Primary)

Primary polycythemia is caused by a specific gene mutation that triggers excessive RBC production.

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Polycythemia Etiology (Secondary)

Secondary polycythemia develops due to prolonged exposure to low oxygen levels (hypoxia). The body tries to compensate by producing more RBCs to carry oxygen.

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Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Pathophysiology

DIC is a complex condition where the blood clotting system becomes abnormally activated, leading to widespread clotting within blood vessels. This depletes clotting factors, resulting in uncontrolled bleeding.

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DIC Etiology

DIC is often triggered by severe trauma, such as major surgery or severe injury, or complications during pregnancy.

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Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) Pathophysiology

ITP is an autoimmune disorder where the body's immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets, leading to decreased platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding.

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ITP Etiology

ITP is often triggered by an acute viral infection.

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Von Willebrand Disease

An inherited bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency in von Willebrand factor (vWF) - a protein that helps platelets stick together and form clots.

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Neurogenic Shock Cause

Caused by a dysfunction or injury to the nervous system. This can result in dilation of blood vessels, leading to decreased blood pressure and shock.

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First Action in Anaphylactic Shock

The highest priority is to maintain the patient's airway. This may involve intubation if swelling in the throat threatens breathing.

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Classic Signs of Shock

Tachycardia (rapid heart rate), tachypnea (rapid breathing), oliguria (low urine output), and pallor, cool, and clammy skin. These are early signs that the body is trying to compensate for inadequate blood flow.

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Surgery Suffixes

Suffixes used in surgery to indicate different procedures:- -ectomy: Removal by cutting, -oscopy: Looking into, -ostomy: Creation permanent opening, -otomy: Incision or cutting into, -plasty: Formation or repair

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What are the types of surgery?

Surgery can be open incision (traditional) or minimally invasive surgery. Minimally invasive types include endoscopic (keyhole), laparoscopic (abdominal), thoracoscopic (chest), robotic, and laser surgery.

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Incentive Spirometry

A breathing exercise used after surgery to help patients expand their lungs and prevent pneumonia.

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Pre-Op Nursing Diagnosis

Identifying potential problems the patient may face before surgery, like anxiety, fear, or knowledge deficits.

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Pre-Op Consent

A legal document where the patient gives permission for surgery after understanding the risks and benefits.

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Pre-Op Checklist

A list of things that must be done before surgery to ensure patient safety like identifying the patient and checking vital signs.

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Transfer to Surgery

The process of moving the patient from the pre-op area to the operating room for surgery.

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Holding Area

A temporary space where patients wait before and after surgery for final verifications, data collection, and preparation.

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Verifications

Confirming important patient information like identity, surgical site, and consent before surgery.

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Patient Initials/Marks Operative Site

Marking the correct surgical site with the patient's initials to prevent errors.

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Pre-operative Phases

The stages of a surgical procedure before, during, and after the surgery itself. It includes the preparation for surgery, the operation itself, and the recovery afterwards.

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Factors Influencing Surgical Outcomes

Various factors can affect how well a patient recovers from surgery, including their age, health conditions, emotional state, nutrition, and habits like smoking and alcohol consumption.

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What is a pre-admission surgical assessment?

Before a non-emergency surgery, a healthcare professional will assess the patient's medical history, medications, physical condition, and any risk factors. They will also teach the patient about the procedure and recovery.

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Pre-operative Education

Nurses explain the surgical procedure, post-operative care instructions, and dietary restrictions to the patient before surgery. This aims to prepare them for what to expect.

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NPO

This means "nothing by mouth." Patients are usually required to be NPO for a certain period before surgery to prevent aspiration.

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Post-operative Care

Nurses help patients recover after surgery by monitoring vital signs, managing pain, encouraging deep breathing and mobility, and providing medication and support as needed.

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Discharge Criteria

Before a patient can go home after surgery, they need to meet certain criteria, such as being able to walk, eat, and manage pain effectively. Discharge planning helps ensure a smooth transition home.

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IV Insertion

The process of placing an intravenous (IV) line into a vein to administer fluids, medications, or blood products.

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Pre-Warming

The practice of warming a patient before surgery to prevent hypothermia (low body temperature).

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Scrub Nurse

A nurse who assists the surgeon during surgery by preparing the operating area, instruments, and supplies, maintaining sterility.

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Circulating Nurse

A nurse who oversees the overall surgical procedure, ensuring patient safety, managing equipment, and providing supplies.

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General Anesthesia

A type of anesthesia that induces a loss of consciousness, sensation, and reflexes, usually administered through IV or inhalation.

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Malignant Hyperthermia

A rare, life-threatening condition triggered by some general anesthesia agents, causing a rapid increase in body temperature and muscle rigidity.

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IV Conscious Sedation

A type of anesthesia that uses sedatives, hypnotics, and opioids to induce a relaxed state but allows the patient to remain conscious.

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Post-Op Phase

The period of time after surgery, focusing on patient recovery, monitoring vital signs, pain control, and ensuring a safe transition.

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Post-op Respiratory Assessment

Assessing the patient's breathing after surgery, including airway, respiration rate and sound, and lung function. This is critical to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent complications.

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Post-op Circulation Assessment

Evaluating the patient's blood flow after surgery by checking pulse strength, skin color and temperature, and looking for any signs of circulatory problems.

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Post-op Neurological Assessment

Evaluating the patient's level of consciousness, orientation, pupil response, and motor and sensory function after surgery, to identify any neurological issues.

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Post-op Pain Control

Managing pain after surgery using various methods like opioid analgesics, non-narcotic analgesics, and pain management techniques, to improve patient comfort and recovery.

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Post-op Nausea and Vomiting

Treating nausea and vomiting after surgery with antiemetic medications, mouth care, and other measures to improve patient comfort and prevent dehydration.

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Post-op Gas Relief

Addressing gas buildup after surgery using antacids, anti-flatulents, walking, and gentle massage to alleviate discomfort.

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Post-op Thirst Management

Relieving thirst after surgery by offering wet washcloths and ice chips to hydrate patients without overloading their stomachs.

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Post-op Constipation Management

Preventing and treating constipation after surgery by encouraging fluid intake, increasing fiber consumption, and using stool softeners as needed.

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Urinary Retention Post-Op

Inability to urinate after surgery, a common problem. Patients should void at least every 8 hours, with urine output ideally over 30 mL per hour.

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Post-Op Ileus

Temporary paralysis of the intestines after surgery, causing lack of bowel sounds, flatus, and bowel movements. This usually lasts 24-72 hours.

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Alvimopan (Entereg)

Medication to help recover GI function after bowel surgery. Given only in a hospital setting and for a limited time.

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Post-Op Wound Healing: First Intention

Wound edges are closed and a scab forms, creating minimal scarring. Most surgical wounds heal this way.

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Post-Op Wound Healing: Third Intention

Infected wound left open to heal, then surgically closed once infection resolves.

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Dehiscence

Separation of some or all layers of the surgical wound.

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Post-Op Wound Drainage: Sanguineous

Bright red drainage, indicating fresh bleeding.

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Post-Op Wound Drainage: Serosanguineous

Pale pink drainage, a mix of serum and blood.

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Post-Op Wound Drainage: Serous

Clear, watery drainage, normal in early healing.

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Study Notes

Nursing Care of Patients in Shock

  • Shock is circulatory collapse resulting in organ damage and death without immediate treatment.
  • Tissue perfusion and blood pressure (B/P) are maintained by adequate blood volume, effective cardiac pump function, and effective blood vessels.
  • Compensation mechanisms (also called compensatory mechanisms) initially try to maintain adequate blood flow.
  • Once compensation mechanisms fail, shock occurs.

Pathophysiology of Shock

  • Inadequate tissue perfusion is a defining characteristic of shock.
  • Compensation initially involves changes in one or both of the nonfailing systems.
  • Metabolic and hemodynamic changes in shock include tachycardia, tachypnea, oliguria, and cool, clammy skin with pallor.
  • Decreased blood pressure.

Effect on Organ and Organ Systems

  • Tissue ischemia and organ injury may occur.
  • Brain death can result if oxygen deprivation (anoxia) continues for over 4 minutes.
  • Complications from shock include acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS).

Classification of Shock

  • Hypovolemic shock: Decreased circulating blood volume, often due to dehydration, hemorrhage, or fluid loss from burns, vomiting, diarrhea, or intravascular spaces. This fluid shifts from the intravascular space to other spaces like interstitial fluid.
  • Cardiogenic shock: Failure of heart to adequately pump blood to the body, which can result from acute myocardial infarction, rupture of heart valve, acute myocarditis/cardiomyopathy, end-stage heart disease, or severe dysrhythmias (A-fib).
  • Obstructive shock: Blockage of blood flow because of a problem outside the heart, like with pericardial tamponade (fluid around the heart), tension pneumothorax (air in the pleural space), or acute pulmonary hypertension.
  • Distributive shock: Excessive dilation of venules/arterioles. This leads to widespread vasodilation, causing decreased blood pressure, as in anaphylactic shock, septic shock, or neurogenic shock.

Anaphylactic Shock

  • Extreme hypersensitivity to an antigen, usually occurring within minutes.
  • Causes include insect stings, antibiotics, peanuts, and anesthetics, dyes/blood.
  • Symptoms often mirror hypovolemic shock, including allergic reactions, rash, hives, laryngeal edema, severe bronchospasm, and wheezing. Breathing difficulty with a metallic taste and altered mental status can also occur. Airway is the top priority.
  • Management involves immediate oxygenation, airway management, and epinephrine (adrenaline) to reverse the reaction.

Septic Shock

  • Systemic infection and inflammation, most often caused by gram-negative bacteria. Other microbes such as multidrug-resistant bacteria and fungi, may be involved.
  • May occur in patients with conditions such as trauma, diabetes, or those receiving corticosteroid therapy, HIV, chemotherapy, burns, malnutrition, or invasive catheters.
  • Early phase signs may include warmth and flushed skin, fever, increased white blood cells (WBC), decreased blood pressure, tachycardia, and tachypnea.
  • Later phases show decreased blood pressure and tachycardia, cool clammy skin, tachypnea, oliguria (decreased urine output), and potentially subnormal temperature, with altered mental status possible.
  • Prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics is critical.

Neurogenic Shock

  • Dysfunction or injury of the nervous system, which results in dilation of peripheral blood vessels.
  • Common causes are general anesthesia, fever, and metabolic disturbances.
  • Often, brain contusions/concussions.
  • Symptoms include decreased blood pressure, altered mental status, early signs of bradycardia (slow heart rate) and warm, dry skin, followed by late signs of tachycardia and cool, clammy skin.

Classic Signs of Shock

  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Oliguria
  • Pallor, cool, clammy skin

Therapeutic Measures for Shock

  • Maintain airway and respiratory support.
  • Provide cardiovascular support.
  • Maintain circulatory volume.
  • Control bleeding.
  • Treat the cause and identify the source of infection.
  • Nurse interventions also include: monitoring vital signs, monitoring intake and output, providing fluids as ordered, providing warmth, relieving pain, and monitoring for pressure injuries, especially with vasopressor use.

Review Questions and Answers (Examples)

  • Hypovolemic Shock: Circulating blood volume is decreased.
  • Cardiogenic Shock: Administer epinephrine as ordered. Promptly and frequently assess vital signs.
  • Allergy and Shock: Carry epinephrine auto-injector.
  • Septic Shock: Obtain blood cultures before antibiotics; give broad-spectrum antibiotics promptly. Monitor intake and output.

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Med Surg Mod 8 Ch 9,12 PDF

Description

This quiz covers vital concepts related to the nursing care of patients experiencing shock. It includes the pathophysiology, compensation mechanisms, and the effects on organ systems. Test your understanding of how to manage and recognize the signs of shock effectively.

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