Neurotransmitters and Innervation Quiz

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Where is smooth muscle located in vessels?

Tunica intima

Tunica adventitia

Tunica externa

Tunica media (correct)

What is the particular feature of autonomic neurons at the junction of smooth muscles?

Motor end plate

Varicosities (correct)

Nodes of Ranvier

Myelin sheath

Which neurotransmitter is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

Norepinephrine (correct)

Serotonin

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

What is the function of dense bodies in smooth muscles?

Anchor actin and myosin Signup and view all the answers

What type of smooth muscle can contract spontaneously and as a unit?

Single-unit smooth muscle Signup and view all the answers

How can calcium concentration increase in a smooth muscle cell?

Second messenger IP3 pathway Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Ca-Calmoudilin in smooth muscle contraction?

Phosphorylates light chain on the myosin head Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of myosin ATPase in smooth muscle contraction?

Cleaves ATP into ADP and Pi Signup and view all the answers

How does muscle relaxation occur in smooth muscle contraction?

Removal of Ca and Pi via phosphatase Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the latch bridge cycle in smooth muscle contraction?

Maintains long periods of tension Signup and view all the answers

What division of the nervous system innervates smooth muscle?

Visceral efferent motor Signup and view all the answers

What neurotransmitter is typically released from the presynaptic neuron in sympathetic innervation?

Acetylcholine (ACh) Signup and view all the answers

Where are parasympathetic neurons concentrated according to the text?

Cervical and sacral regions Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathway of a sympathetic neuron starting at the intermedio lateral horn?

Travels through the ventral horn out into the ventral root Signup and view all the answers

Which targets are NOT dually innervated by visceral motor nerves?

Smooth muscle in blood vessels Signup and view all the answers

What type of receptors respond to acetylcholine (ACH)?

Muscarinic receptors Signup and view all the answers

Where are alpha 2 receptors primarily found?

Presynaptic side Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of beta 2 receptors?

Vasodilation Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is released from the adrenal glands in adrenal innervation?

Epinephrine Signup and view all the answers

Where does sympathetic innervation release Acetylcholine (ACH) instead of Epinephrine (EP) and Norepinephrine (NE)?

Sweat glands Signup and view all the answers

What type of receptors are found on postsynaptic neurons in parasympathetic innervation?

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChR) Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerves are involved in parasympathetic innervation?

CN 3, CN 7, CN 9, CN 10 Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of parasympathetic innervation on the heart?

Slows heart rate Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (mACHr) in parasympathetic innervation?

Stimulate salivary glands Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its associated disease:

Wuchereria bancrofti = Elephantiasis Trichuris trichuria = Whipworm infection Fasciola hepatica = Liver Fluke Disease Paragonimus westermani = Adult Lung Fluke Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its mode of transmission:

Onchocerca volvulus = Black flies Trichinella spiralis = Embeds in skeletal muscle Enterobius vermicularis = Pruritic itch, red papule around the ankle Taenia solium = Consuming undercooked pork Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its intermediate host:

S.mansoni, S.hematobium, S.japonicum = Snails Taenia saginata = Cattle Diphyllobothrium latum = Fish Dracunculus medinensis = Cyclops Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its common symptom:

Trichuria trichuria = Rectal prolapse Enterobius vermicularis = Most common in children Trichinella spiralis = Migrates in muscle causing damage Paragonimus westermani = Frequently misdiagnosed as TB Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its characteristic feature:

Taenia saginata = Beef tapeworm Wuchereria bancrofti = Enlarged lymph vessels in inguinal and axillary regions Trichuris trichuria = Whipworm infection Fasciola hepatica = Damages liver, intestines, bladder Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its specific animal reservoir:

Paragonimus westermani = Crabs Dracunculus medinensis = (Arthropod in still water) Cyclops Taenia solium = (Consuming undercooked meat) Pork Onchocerca volvulus = (Transmitted by mosquitoes) Black flies Signup and view all the answers

Match the following diseases with their respective causes:

Hand, Foot, Mouth Disease = Coxsackievirus A16 and enterovirus 71 West Nile Virus = Transmitted by various species of mosquitoes Zika Virus = Transmitted by mosquitoes Anaplasmosis and Ehrlichiosis = Both tick-borne diseases Signup and view all the answers

Match the following infectious agents with their associated diseases:

Coxiella burnetii = Q fever Chlamydia trachomatis = Non-gonococcal urethritis Chlamydia psittaci = Psittacosis Cryptococcus neoformans = Cryptococcosis Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of poliovirus with their respective strains:

Burnhilde & Mahoney strains = Epidemic Lansing & MEF-2 strains = Endemic Leon & Saukett strains = Epidemic Signup and view all the answers

Match the following fungi with their characteristics:

Saccharomyces cerevisiae = Used in bread baking and alcohol production Claviceps purpurea = Causes Ergotism Cryptococcus neoformans = Deadliest fungus known to man Chitin-containing fungi = Fungi lacking chlorophyll Signup and view all the answers

Match the symptoms with the corresponding post-polio syndrome manifestations:

New weakness, loss of function, intense fatigue, muscle/joint pain = Post-polio syndrome Painful red blisters in mouth, palms of hands, soles of feet = Hand, Foot, Mouth Disease Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of viral encephalitis with their respective transmission methods:

Transmitted by mosquitoes = Encephalitis caused by West Nile Virus Can develop from HSV, Epstein-Barr, Measles, Mumps = Viral encephalitis Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:

Reticulate body = Non-infectious form in Chlamydia pathogenesis Elementary body = Infectious form that attaches to host cell receptors Mycotoxins = Fungal toxins Hyphae = Long, tangled filaments of cells in molds Signup and view all the answers

Match the prions with their associated conditions:

All cause spongiform encephalitis = Prions Scrapies (sheep), Mad Cow Disease = Conditions caused by prions Signup and view all the answers

Match the following symptoms with their corresponding conditions:

LSD trip symptoms = Ergotism (Claviceps purpurea) Auto Brewery Syndrome = Excess Saccharomyces cerevisiae consumption Donut shaped granulomas = Coxiella burnetii infection Urogenital infections and conjunctivitis = Chlamydia trachomatis Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of tick-borne diseases with their specific effects on human cells:

Human granulocytic anaplasmosis affects neutrophils = Anaplasmosis Human monocytic ehrlichiosis affects monocytes = Ehrlichiosis Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their respective definitions:

Molds and yeasts = Members of the fungi kingdom Mycology = Study of fungi Mycelium = Thick mass of hyphae Spores = Sexual stage of fungi Signup and view all the answers

Match the following facts with their correct fungi:

Birds as reservoirs for infection = Chlamydia psittaci Used in gut fermentation syndrome cases = Saccharomyces cerevisiae Causes pneumonia in humans = Cryptococcus neoformans Associated with Ergot Rye Poisoning = Claviceps purpurea Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its associated characteristic:

Sporotrichosis = Found in wood and soil Blastomycosis = Resembles TB and can cause meningitis Candida Auris = Thrives in the oral cavity as whitish overgrowth Aspergillus flavus = Forms round ball of mycelium in lungs Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its common nickname:

Gilchrist’s disease = Blastomyces dermatidis Rose Thorn Disease = Sporothrix schenckii Valley Fever = Coccidioides immitis Bridge Builder’s Disease = Histoplasmosis Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its primary symptom:

Candida albicans = Causes petechiae Pneumocystis Pneumonia = Presents with chest pain similar to TB Coccidiomycosis = Resembles non-gonococcal urethritis Aspergillus fumigatus = Leads to pulmonary and disseminated forms Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its preferred treatment method:

Candida Auris = Treated with antifungals ('azoles') Blastomycosis = Requires surgery to remove aspergilloma from lungs Histoplasmosis = Treated with antibiotics due to being antibiotic resistant Sporotrichosis = Therapy involves managing pus-filled lesions Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its source of transmission:

Candida albicans = Transmitted through bird droppings Pneumocystis Pneumonia = Transmitted via pigeon droppings Aspergillus flavus = Found in dusty soil and pigeon droppings Aspergillus fumigatus = Transmitted through grains and peanuts Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its potential severity:

Sporotrichosis = Often fatal and antibiotic resistant Aspergillus flavus = Can affect heart or brain if disseminated Blastomycosis = Most dangerous candida causing cutaneous ulcers/blisters Coccidiomycosis = Can lead to meningitis and resembles TB Signup and view all the answers

Match the following prokaryotic cell structures with their descriptions:

Flagella = Involved in motility; spin-like propellers to move cell Pili = A few types are used for twitching or gliding motility Capsules = Distinct and gelatinous; allows bacteria to adhere to specific surfaces Cytoplasmic Membrane = Phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins; surrounds the cytoplasm, separating it from the external environment Signup and view all the answers

Match the following internal components of a prokaryotic cell with their functions:

Chromosomes = Carries the genetic information required by a cell; typically, a single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule Plasmid = Generally carries only genetic information that may be advantageous to a cell in certain situations Endospore = A type of dormant cell that is extraordinarily resistant to heat, desiccation, ultraviolet light, and toxic chemicals Cytoskeleton = Protein framework involved in cell division and control of cell shape Signup and view all the answers

Match the following structures outside the prokaryotic cell wall with their characteristics:

Gas vesicles = Small, rigid structures that provide buoyancy to a cell Granules = Accumulations of high molecular weight polymers, synthesized from a nutrient available in relative excess; helps to identify certain bacteria Ribosomes = Involved in protein synthesis; two subunits, 30S and 50S, join to form the 70S ribosome Fimbriae = Allows cells to adhere to surfaces Signup and view all the answers

Match the following viral diseases with their descriptions:

RSV = RNA virus; more serious in young children and older adults Influenza = Causes antigenic drift and antigenic shift; has types A, B, and C Hantavirus = Reservoir: deer mouse; can lead to respiratory failure Smallpox = Causes pink-red macules on face and trunk; leaves pitted scars (pocks) Signup and view all the answers

Match the following DNA viruses with their associated diseases:

Herpes simplex (HSV-1, HSV-2) = Causes cold sores, genital herpes; transmitted through skin-to-skin contact or sexual contact Cytomegalovirus (CMV) = Can cause mono and complications of AIDS; most common congenital infection Varicella-Zoster Virus = Causes Chickenpox and Shingles; leads to fluid-filled teardrop lesions or band-like pattern on skin Epstein-Barr Virus = Associated with mono and lymphoma; causes red patches with white grain-like centers Signup and view all the answers

Match the following RNA viruses with their respective symptoms:

Parainfluenza = RSV-like virus with milder symptoms than RSV and influenza; causes croup and bronchitis Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum) = 'Slap cheek' disease causing a fiery red rash on cheeks, ears, or trunk; adult symptoms similar to rheumatoid arthritis Measles (Rubeola) = 'Sneezles' spread by respiratory droplets causing Koplik spots and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Kaposi Sarcoma (HHV 8) = Purplish tumors found in people with AIDS Signup and view all the answers