Neurotransmitters and Innervation Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Where is smooth muscle located in vessels?

  • Tunica intima
  • Tunica adventitia
  • Tunica externa
  • Tunica media (correct)

What is the particular feature of autonomic neurons at the junction of smooth muscles?

  • Motor end plate
  • Varicosities (correct)
  • Nodes of Ranvier
  • Myelin sheath

Which neurotransmitter is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

  • Norepinephrine (correct)
  • Serotonin
  • Acetylcholine
  • Dopamine

What is the function of dense bodies in smooth muscles?

<p>Anchor actin and myosin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of smooth muscle can contract spontaneously and as a unit?

<p>Single-unit smooth muscle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can calcium concentration increase in a smooth muscle cell?

<p>Second messenger IP3 pathway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of Ca-Calmoudilin in smooth muscle contraction?

<p>Phosphorylates light chain on the myosin head (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of myosin ATPase in smooth muscle contraction?

<p>Cleaves ATP into ADP and Pi (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does muscle relaxation occur in smooth muscle contraction?

<p>Removal of Ca and Pi via phosphatase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the latch bridge cycle in smooth muscle contraction?

<p>Maintains long periods of tension (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What division of the nervous system innervates smooth muscle?

<p>Visceral efferent motor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What neurotransmitter is typically released from the presynaptic neuron in sympathetic innervation?

<p>Acetylcholine (ACh) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are parasympathetic neurons concentrated according to the text?

<p>Cervical and sacral regions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathway of a sympathetic neuron starting at the intermedio lateral horn?

<p>Travels through the ventral horn out into the ventral root (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which targets are NOT dually innervated by visceral motor nerves?

<p>Smooth muscle in blood vessels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of receptors respond to acetylcholine (ACH)?

<p>Muscarinic receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are alpha 2 receptors primarily found?

<p>Presynaptic side (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of beta 2 receptors?

<p>Vasodilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which neurotransmitter is released from the adrenal glands in adrenal innervation?

<p>Epinephrine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does sympathetic innervation release Acetylcholine (ACH) instead of Epinephrine (EP) and Norepinephrine (NE)?

<p>Sweat glands (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of receptors are found on postsynaptic neurons in parasympathetic innervation?

<p>Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cranial nerves are involved in parasympathetic innervation?

<p>CN 3, CN 7, CN 9, CN 10 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main effect of parasympathetic innervation on the heart?

<p>Slows heart rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (mACHr) in parasympathetic innervation?

<p>Stimulate salivary glands (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its associated disease:

<p>Wuchereria bancrofti = Elephantiasis Trichuris trichuria = Whipworm infection Fasciola hepatica = Liver Fluke Disease Paragonimus westermani = Adult Lung Fluke</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its mode of transmission:

<p>Onchocerca volvulus = Black flies Trichinella spiralis = Embeds in skeletal muscle Enterobius vermicularis = Pruritic itch, red papule around the ankle Taenia solium = Consuming undercooked pork</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its intermediate host:

<p>S.mansoni, S.hematobium, S.japonicum = Snails Taenia saginata = Cattle Diphyllobothrium latum = Fish Dracunculus medinensis = Cyclops</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its common symptom:

<p>Trichuria trichuria = Rectal prolapse Enterobius vermicularis = Most common in children Trichinella spiralis = Migrates in muscle causing damage Paragonimus westermani = Frequently misdiagnosed as TB</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its characteristic feature:

<p>Taenia saginata = Beef tapeworm Wuchereria bancrofti = Enlarged lymph vessels in inguinal and axillary regions Trichuris trichuria = Whipworm infection Fasciola hepatica = Damages liver, intestines, bladder</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasite with its specific animal reservoir:

<p>Paragonimus westermani = Crabs Dracunculus medinensis = (Arthropod in still water) Cyclops Taenia solium = (Consuming undercooked meat) Pork Onchocerca volvulus = (Transmitted by mosquitoes) Black flies</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following diseases with their respective causes:

<p>Hand, Foot, Mouth Disease = Coxsackievirus A16 and enterovirus 71 West Nile Virus = Transmitted by various species of mosquitoes Zika Virus = Transmitted by mosquitoes Anaplasmosis and Ehrlichiosis = Both tick-borne diseases</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following infectious agents with their associated diseases:

<p>Coxiella burnetii = Q fever Chlamydia trachomatis = Non-gonococcal urethritis Chlamydia psittaci = Psittacosis Cryptococcus neoformans = Cryptococcosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of poliovirus with their respective strains:

<p>Burnhilde &amp; Mahoney strains = Epidemic Lansing &amp; MEF-2 strains = Endemic Leon &amp; Saukett strains = Epidemic</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following fungi with their characteristics:

<p>Saccharomyces cerevisiae = Used in bread baking and alcohol production Claviceps purpurea = Causes Ergotism Cryptococcus neoformans = Deadliest fungus known to man Chitin-containing fungi = Fungi lacking chlorophyll</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the symptoms with the corresponding post-polio syndrome manifestations:

<p>New weakness, loss of function, intense fatigue, muscle/joint pain = Post-polio syndrome Painful red blisters in mouth, palms of hands, soles of feet = Hand, Foot, Mouth Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of viral encephalitis with their respective transmission methods:

<p>Transmitted by mosquitoes = Encephalitis caused by West Nile Virus Can develop from HSV, Epstein-Barr, Measles, Mumps = Viral encephalitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:

<p>Reticulate body = Non-infectious form in Chlamydia pathogenesis Elementary body = Infectious form that attaches to host cell receptors Mycotoxins = Fungal toxins Hyphae = Long, tangled filaments of cells in molds</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the prions with their associated conditions:

<p>All cause spongiform encephalitis = Prions Scrapies (sheep), Mad Cow Disease = Conditions caused by prions</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following symptoms with their corresponding conditions:

<p>LSD trip symptoms = Ergotism (Claviceps purpurea) Auto Brewery Syndrome = Excess Saccharomyces cerevisiae consumption Donut shaped granulomas = Coxiella burnetii infection Urogenital infections and conjunctivitis = Chlamydia trachomatis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the types of tick-borne diseases with their specific effects on human cells:

<p>Human granulocytic anaplasmosis affects neutrophils = Anaplasmosis Human monocytic ehrlichiosis affects monocytes = Ehrlichiosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their respective definitions:

<p>Molds and yeasts = Members of the fungi kingdom Mycology = Study of fungi Mycelium = Thick mass of hyphae Spores = Sexual stage of fungi</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following facts with their correct fungi:

<p>Birds as reservoirs for infection = Chlamydia psittaci Used in gut fermentation syndrome cases = Saccharomyces cerevisiae Causes pneumonia in humans = Cryptococcus neoformans Associated with Ergot Rye Poisoning = Claviceps purpurea</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its associated characteristic:

<p>Sporotrichosis = Found in wood and soil Blastomycosis = Resembles TB and can cause meningitis Candida Auris = Thrives in the oral cavity as whitish overgrowth Aspergillus flavus = Forms round ball of mycelium in lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its common nickname:

<p>Gilchrist’s disease = Blastomyces dermatidis Rose Thorn Disease = Sporothrix schenckii Valley Fever = Coccidioides immitis Bridge Builder’s Disease = Histoplasmosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its primary symptom:

<p>Candida albicans = Causes petechiae Pneumocystis Pneumonia = Presents with chest pain similar to TB Coccidiomycosis = Resembles non-gonococcal urethritis Aspergillus fumigatus = Leads to pulmonary and disseminated forms</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its preferred treatment method:

<p>Candida Auris = Treated with antifungals ('azoles') Blastomycosis = Requires surgery to remove aspergilloma from lungs Histoplasmosis = Treated with antibiotics due to being antibiotic resistant Sporotrichosis = Therapy involves managing pus-filled lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its source of transmission:

<p>Candida albicans = Transmitted through bird droppings Pneumocystis Pneumonia = Transmitted via pigeon droppings Aspergillus flavus = Found in dusty soil and pigeon droppings Aspergillus fumigatus = Transmitted through grains and peanuts</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the fungal infection with its potential severity:

<p>Sporotrichosis = Often fatal and antibiotic resistant Aspergillus flavus = Can affect heart or brain if disseminated Blastomycosis = Most dangerous candida causing cutaneous ulcers/blisters Coccidiomycosis = Can lead to meningitis and resembles TB</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following prokaryotic cell structures with their descriptions:

<p>Flagella = Involved in motility; spin-like propellers to move cell Pili = A few types are used for twitching or gliding motility Capsules = Distinct and gelatinous; allows bacteria to adhere to specific surfaces Cytoplasmic Membrane = Phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins; surrounds the cytoplasm, separating it from the external environment</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following internal components of a prokaryotic cell with their functions:

<p>Chromosomes = Carries the genetic information required by a cell; typically, a single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule Plasmid = Generally carries only genetic information that may be advantageous to a cell in certain situations Endospore = A type of dormant cell that is extraordinarily resistant to heat, desiccation, ultraviolet light, and toxic chemicals Cytoskeleton = Protein framework involved in cell division and control of cell shape</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following structures outside the prokaryotic cell wall with their characteristics:

<p>Gas vesicles = Small, rigid structures that provide buoyancy to a cell Granules = Accumulations of high molecular weight polymers, synthesized from a nutrient available in relative excess; helps to identify certain bacteria Ribosomes = Involved in protein synthesis; two subunits, 30S and 50S, join to form the 70S ribosome Fimbriae = Allows cells to adhere to surfaces</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following viral diseases with their descriptions:

<p>RSV = RNA virus; more serious in young children and older adults Influenza = Causes antigenic drift and antigenic shift; has types A, B, and C Hantavirus = Reservoir: deer mouse; can lead to respiratory failure Smallpox = Causes pink-red macules on face and trunk; leaves pitted scars (pocks)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following DNA viruses with their associated diseases:

<p>Herpes simplex (HSV-1, HSV-2) = Causes cold sores, genital herpes; transmitted through skin-to-skin contact or sexual contact Cytomegalovirus (CMV) = Can cause mono and complications of AIDS; most common congenital infection Varicella-Zoster Virus = Causes Chickenpox and Shingles; leads to fluid-filled teardrop lesions or band-like pattern on skin Epstein-Barr Virus = Associated with mono and lymphoma; causes red patches with white grain-like centers</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following RNA viruses with their respective symptoms:

<p>Parainfluenza = RSV-like virus with milder symptoms than RSV and influenza; causes croup and bronchitis Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum) = 'Slap cheek' disease causing a fiery red rash on cheeks, ears, or trunk; adult symptoms similar to rheumatoid arthritis Measles (Rubeola) = 'Sneezles' spread by respiratory droplets causing Koplik spots and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis Kaposi Sarcoma (HHV 8) = Purplish tumors found in people with AIDS</p> Signup and view all the answers

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