a&p ca3
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary role of calcium ions (Ca2+) during muscle contraction?

  • To trigger calcium reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • To inhibit cross-bridge activity
  • To decrease muscle tension
  • To initiate the conformational change in troponin (correct)

Which muscle fiber type is characterized by high myosin-ATPase activity and rapid energy availability?

  • Fast-oxidative (Type IIa) fibers
  • Intermediate-oxidative fibers
  • Fast-glycolytic (Type IIx) fibers (correct)
  • Slow-oxidative (Type I) fibers

What process involves calcium-induced calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)?

  • ATP hydrolysis
  • Cross-bridge cycling
  • Muscle relaxation mechanisms
  • Excitation-contraction coupling (correct)

What occurs during muscle relaxation concerning calcium ions?

<p>Calcium is transported back to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of muscle fibers is more resistant to fatigue?

<p>Slow-oxidative (Type I) fibers (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these muscle types relies on calcium-dependent phosphorylation of myosin light chain for contraction?

<p>Smooth muscle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical duration for the time before the onset of contraction due to Ca2+ release?

<p>30-100 msec (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the sliding filament theory?

<p>It describes how myosin and actin filaments slide relative to each other during contraction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a function of muscles?

<p>Storing nutrients (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of muscle is characterized by involuntary, striated tissue?

<p>Cardiac muscle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature distinguishes skeletal muscles from smooth muscles?

<p>Striation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of myosin in muscle contraction?

<p>To form cross bridges with actin filaments (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does calcium play in muscle contraction?

<p>It triggers the shape change in troponin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pathways does not require oxygen for ATP production during muscle activity?

<p>Glycolysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional unit of skeletal muscle?

<p>Sarcomere (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the organization of cardiac muscle cells?

<p>They contain intercalated discs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?

<p>Thick and thin filaments overlap and slide past each other (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What correctly describes the structural organization of skeletal muscle?

<p>Composed of bundles of fascicles containing fibers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is responsible for the regeneration of ATP during intense exercise?

<p>Transfer from creatine phosphate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of limiting factors for ATP production, what is the role of lactic acid during anaerobic conditions?

<p>It limits ATP production by accumulating in the muscle tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appearance of smooth muscle tissue?

<p>Unstriated and spindle-shaped (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to tropomyosin when calcium binds to troponin?

<p>It undergoes a shape change and exposes binding sites. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the function of ATP in muscle fibers?

<p>ATP serves as the energy currency for muscle contractions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of skeletal muscle fibers?

<p>Involuntary control (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of muscle structure from largest to smallest?

<p>Whole muscle &gt; Muscle Fascicle &gt; Myofibrils &gt; Thick and thin filaments &gt; Sarcomere (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is produced during glycolysis in terms of energy yield?

<p>Net gain of 2 ATP molecules (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily determines the percentage of different muscle fiber types in an individual?

<p>Type of physical activity for which the muscle is specialized (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle adaptation is primarily associated with anaerobic high-intensity resistance training?

<p>Muscle hypertrophy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances can slow and fast muscle fibers become interconvertible?

<p>Low gravity conditions, such as space (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common effect of sarcopenia after the age of 50?

<p>Decrease in muscle mass at a rate of 1% per year (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does testosterone influence muscle fibers?

<p>Enhances synthesis and assembly of myosin and actin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor that contributes to muscle atrophy?

<p>Disuse and inactivity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the characteristics of muscle fibers?

<p>Type IIa fibers are a blend of fast and slow characteristics. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic change seen in muscle fibers as one ages?

<p>Permanent loss of muscle fibers and mass (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do tendons play in muscle contractions?

<p>They attach muscles to bones. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which contraction type maintains a constant length while tension increases?

<p>Isometric contraction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a disadvantage of the lever system in the context of skeletal muscle?

<p>Larger force needed for movement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens during eccentric contraction?

<p>Muscle lengthens while maintaining tension. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle fiber type is more susceptible to damage from eccentric exercises?

<p>Type II fibers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which best describes isokinetic contraction?

<p>Constant velocity while muscle shortens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors contribute to the amplification of velocity in skeletal muscles?

<p>Lever systems and muscle mass (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes concentric contraction from other types of muscle contraction?

<p>Muscle fibers shorten under load. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between load and velocity during concentric contractions?

<p>The heavier the load, the slower the lift (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily influences the strength of graded contractions in a whole muscle?

<p>Number of muscle fibers and tension developed by each fiber (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor does NOT influence muscle tension?

<p>Color of the muscle fibers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the optimal muscle length for maximal tension is true?

<p>Maximal tension occurs when actin is fully accessible to myosin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when there is an increase in muscle fiber fatigue?

<p>Muscle tension decreases (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does twitch summation occur in muscle contraction?

<p>Through sustained elevation of cytosolic Ca2+ levels (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does motor unit recruitment affect muscle contraction strength?

<p>More motor units recruited lead to stronger contraction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of energy used by muscles in eccentric contractions is converted into heat?

<p>75% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the Tibialis Anterior muscle?

<p>Dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does the Extensor Digitorum Longus muscle originate?

<p>Upper tibia and fibula (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve supplies the Extensor Hallucis Longus muscle?

<p>Deep fibular nerve (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the distal attachment of the Extensor Hallucis Longus?

<p>Base of the distal phalanx of the great toe (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle acts to extend digits 2-5 and assists in dorsiflexion of the foot?

<p>Extensor Digitorum Longus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is primarily responsible for adduction of the thigh at the hip, as well as flexion of the leg at the knee?

<p>Gracilis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary nerve supply for the long head of the Biceps Femoris muscle?

<p>Tibial nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles is involved in lateral rotation of the thigh?

<p>Obturator Externus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure serves as the proximal attachment point for the Gracilis muscle?

<p>Pubis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does the distal attachment of the Adductor Magnus occur?

<p>Adductor tubercle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action is primarily performed by the Adductor component of the Adductor Magnus?

<p>Adduction of the thigh (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which artery supplies blood to the Adductor muscles?

<p>Profunda femoris artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle acts to extend the thigh and flex the knee?

<p>Biceps Femoris (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action associated with Fibularis Longus?

<p>Plantarflexion and eversion of the foot (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does the Fibularis Brevis attach distally?

<p>Tuberosity on the 5th metatarsal (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve supplies the Fibularis Longus muscle?

<p>Superficial fibular nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary arterial supply for both Fibularis Longus and Fibularis Brevis muscles?

<p>Fibular artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the action of Tibialis Anterior?

<p>Dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the gluteus maximus muscle?

<p>Extension and lateral rotation of the hip (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve supplies the gluteus medius muscle?

<p>Superior gluteal nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle primarily performs abduction and medial rotation of the thigh?

<p>Gluteus medius (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the distal attachment of the pectineus muscle?

<p>Lesser trochanter of femur (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is involved in lateral rotation, abduction, and extension of the hip joint?

<p>Piriformis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the medial and lateral boundaries of the femoral triangle?

<p>Adductor longus medially and sartorius laterally (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is responsible for both flexion and lateral rotation at the hip joint?

<p>Sartorius (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which artery primarily supplies the gluteus maximus muscle?

<p>Inferior gluteal artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the superior gluteal nerve?

<p>Innervates the muscles of the gluteal region for abduction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the linea aspera?

<p>Sartorius (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the nerve supply for the vastus intermedius muscle?

<p>Femoral nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in the abduction of the thigh?

<p>Adductor magnus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movement is primarily associated with the action of the gluteus minimus muscle?

<p>Medial rotation of the thigh (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the deep femoral artery play in the blood supply of the thigh muscles?

<p>Supplies blood to the adductor magnus and adductor longus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure does NOT contribute to the blood supply of the pectineus muscle?

<p>Inferior gluteal artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions is NOT performed by the vastus lateralis muscle?

<p>Flextion of the leg at the knee joint (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the adductor longus muscle?

<p>Strong adduction of the thigh (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vessel primarily supplies the rectus femoris muscle?

<p>Lateral circumflex femoral artery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of the vastus medialis muscle?

<p>Extension of the leg at the knee joint (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles originates from the anterior superior iliac spine?

<p>Sartorius (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscles are primarily involved in the movement at the subtalar joint?

<p>Tibialis posterior and Fibularis brevis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bones contribute to the medial arch of the foot?

<p>Calcaneus, navicular, and three cuneiforms (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which artery is primarily responsible for supplying blood to the foot?

<p>Anterior tibial artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two arteries branch from the common iliac artery?

<p>Internal iliac artery and external iliac artery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary venous drainage from the foot?

<p>Small saphenous vein (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is continuous with the femoral artery after it passes through the adductor hiatus?

<p>Popliteal artery (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is NOT part of the arterial blood supply to the leg?

<p>Medial plantar artery (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two arteries are branches of the femoral artery?

<p>Circumflex femoral artery and profunda femoris artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which artery is responsible for blood supply to the forearm?

<p>Radial artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the lymphatic system in the upper limb?

<p>Drain interstitial fluid and assist in immune defense (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following joints is not part of the upper limb's articulation?

<p>Knee joint (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of veins primarily drain the skin and fascia of the upper limb?

<p>Superficial veins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bone is NOT a carpal bone in the wrist joint?

<p>Capitate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structures are arranged in the correct order from lateral to medial in the cubital fossa?

<p>Tendon of the biceps brachii, brachial artery, median nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscles are primarily responsible for flexing the wrist and fingers in the forearm's anterior compartment?

<p>Flexors and pronators (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve innervates the muscles of the posterior extensor compartment of the forearm?

<p>Radial nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve primarily supplies the muscles of the back of the arm?

<p>Radial nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the flexor and extensor retinacula in the forearm?

<p>To prevent tendon bowing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the arterial supply that commences at the lower border of the teres major muscle?

<p>Brachial artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the forearm includes the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints?

<p>Head of radius (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure serves as the origin for many forearm extensor muscles?

<p>Lateral epicondyle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which boundary is NOT part of the cubital fossa?

<p>Inferior boundary formed by the radial artery (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the axillary artery is located beneath pectoralis minor?

<p>Second part (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which two components of the forearm assist in maintaining the alignment of the radius and ulna during movement?

<p>Flexor retinaculum and interosseous membrane (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What movement do the long head muscles primarily facilitate at the shoulder joint?

<p>Extension and adduction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the anterior flexor compartment of the forearm is accurate?

<p>It contains two pronators. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve specifically innervates the arm muscles from the medial cord of the brachial plexus?

<p>Musculocutaneous nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion and is classified as freely mobile?

<p>Synovial joint (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a component of a synovial joint?

<p>Ligamentous tendon (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of forearm muscles from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus?

<p>Median nerve (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which segment does NOT form part of the upper limb anatomically?

<p>Leg (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of joint is exemplified by the acromioclavicular joint?

<p>Synovial joint (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure in a synovial joint helps reduce friction and provides lubrication?

<p>Synovial fluid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood vessel is primarily responsible for supplying the upper limb with oxygenated blood?

<p>Brachial artery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the Pectoralis major muscle at the shoulder joint?

<p>Adduction and medial rotation of the humerus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the innervation source for the Serratus anterior muscle?

<p>Long thoracic nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle originates from the supraspinous fossa of the scapula?

<p>Supraspinatus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle acts to depress the tip of the shoulder and protract the scapula?

<p>Pectoralis minor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles does NOT contribute to the rotator cuff?

<p>Deltoid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main action of the Teres minor muscle?

<p>Adduction and lateral rotation of the arm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Levator scapulae muscle is primarily responsible for which of the following actions?

<p>Elevating the scapula (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these muscles attaches to the greater tubercle of the humerus?

<p>Infraspinatus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the action of the Rhomboid major muscle in relation to the scapula?

<p>Elevates and retracts the scapula (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve innervates the Deltoid muscle?

<p>Axillary nerve (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which joint is mainly involved in the articulation of the medial end of the clavicle?

<p>Sternoclavicular joint (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Acromion process of the scapula articulates primarily with which part of the clavicle?

<p>Lateral end (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Teres major in shoulder movement?

<p>Medial rotation and adduction of the arm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles is responsible for lateral rotation of the arm?

<p>Teres minor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle primarily functions to flex and abduct the wrist?

<p>Flexor carpi radialis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary action of the Flexor digitorum profundus?

<p>Flexes distal interphalangeal joints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is primarily involved in pronation of the forearm?

<p>Pronator teres (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary nerve supply for the Flexor carpi ulnaris is from which nerve?

<p>Ulnar nerve (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The abductor pollicis longus plays a crucial role in which action?

<p>Abducting the thumb (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle originates from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and contributes to flexing the wrist?

<p>Flexor digitorum superficialis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is NOT part of the posterior compartment of the forearm?

<p>Flexor carpi radialis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the lumbricals in the hand?

<p>Extends the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexes the interphalangeal joints (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Flexor pollicis longus primarily acts on which part of the hand?

<p>Thumb (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure serves as the origin for the Extensor carpi radialis longus?

<p>Supracondylar ridge of humerus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intrinsic muscle of the hand is primarily innervated by the ulnar nerve?

<p>Adductor pollicis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which muscle is responsible for extending the index finger?

<p>Extensor indicis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What joint movements are possible at the wrist joint?

<p>Flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following muscles primarily flexes the elbow joint?

<p>Brachioradialis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structure is primarily responsible for conducting information away from the neuron's cell body?

<p>Axon (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell processes and transmits information in the nervous system?

<p>Neuron (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the myelin sheath in neurons?

<p>Insulate axons to speed up action potential propagation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the neuron receives signals from other neurons?

<p>Dendrite (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What essential organelle is contained within the neuron’s cell body that supports its functionality?

<p>Mitochondria (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes synaptic transmission?

<p>Release of neurotransmitters across the synaptic gap (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor primarily determines the resting membrane potential in neurons?

<p>Ion permeability, especially sodium and potassium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the neuron is involved in the integration of information from multiple sources?

<p>Soma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is primarily responsible for protecting the brain and spinal cord?

<p>Meninges (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

<p>Cushions delicate neural structures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the blood-brain barrier?

<p>To isolate CNS neural tissue from general circulation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes how cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the CNS?

<p>It flows into the subarachnoid space after exiting the fourth ventricle (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the choroid plexuses play in the central nervous system?

<p>They produce cerebrospinal fluid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the brain's reliance on glucose affect its function?

<p>It is vulnerable to damage when deprived of oxygen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the blood-brain barrier is true?

<p>It ensures that the chemical composition of blood and CSF can differ (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of cardiac output does the brain receive, despite being only 2% of body weight?

<p>13% - 15% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the explosive depolarization during an action potential?

<p>Na+ channels are activated, allowing Na+ to enter the cell (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the refractory period?

<p>It occurs after an action potential and prevents another action potential from being initiated (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does myelination affect the conduction of action potentials?

<p>It increases the speed of conduction by providing insulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Na+–K+ pump following an action potential?

<p>To gradually restore concentration gradients disrupted by action potentials (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does K+ leaving the cell have during an action potential?

<p>It generates the falling phase of the action potential (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the frequency of action potentials play in stimulus discrimination?

<p>It codes the strength of a stimulus, as the magnitude of each AP remains constant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In chemical synapses, how is information transmitted between neurons?

<p>Through neurotransmitters that cross a synaptic cleft (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during the after hyperpolarization phase of an action potential?

<p>Membrane potential overshoots the resting level due to continued K+ efflux (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of astrocytes in the nervous system?

<p>Chemical regulation of the extracellular environment (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during depolarization of a neuron's membrane potential?

<p>The membrane potential decreases from resting potential (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of glial cell is primarily involved in the production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

<p>Ependymal cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is characteristic of graded potentials?

<p>They occur at varying degrees based on the strength of the stimulus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sequence correctly describes the phases of an action potential?

<p>Depolarization, repolarization, resting potential, hyperpolarization (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of voltage-gated Na+ channels opening during an action potential?

<p>Reverses the membrane potential to become positive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of ion channels, what is the primary function of mechanically gated channels?

<p>Open in response to physical deformation of the membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the membrane potential during hyperpolarization?

<p>The membrane becomes more negative than resting potential (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of graded potentials spreading by passive current flow?

<p>They gradually diminish as they move away from the point of stimulus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the action of microglia support neuronal function?

<p>By removing cellular debris and waste products (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of neurotransmitters in synaptic transmission?

<p>Carry the signal across the synapse (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do excitatory synapses have on the postsynaptic neuron?

<p>Generate an EPSP (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens during the docking process in synaptic transmission?

<p>Vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do inhibitory synapses influence the postsynaptic neuron?

<p>Generate an IPSP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one way in which drugs can affect synaptic transmission?

<p>Enhance the binding of neurotransmitters to receptors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of neuron connectivity, what does divergence refer to?

<p>Neurons branching to affect multiple target cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of postsynaptic potential does acetylcholine primarily generate?

<p>Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do receptor channels play in synaptic transmission?

<p>Combine receptor and channel functions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the influx of calcium ions trigger during synaptic transmission?

<p>Fusion of vesicles with the presynaptic membrane (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these statements about neurotransmitter-receptor combinations is accurate?

<p>Each combination always produces the same response (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of stimuli does the afferent division of the peripheral nervous system carry to the CNS?

<p>Visceral stimuli and sensory stimuli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the somatic nervous system?

<p>Supplies voluntary control to skeletal muscles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Regulate involuntary functions in smooth and cardiac muscles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during sympathetic dominance in the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Increased heart rate and blood circulation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is part of an autonomic nerve pathway?

<p>A ganglion outside the CNS (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature distinguishes the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Sympathetic fibers are responsible for flight-or-fight responses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which state is the parasympathetic nervous system dominant?

<p>While resting and digesting food (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the ganglion in the autonomic pathway?

<p>Connect preganglionic and postganglionic neurons (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nerves innervates the heart in the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Cranial nerve X (Vagus nerve) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the peripheral nervous system regulates voluntary movements?

<p>Somatic nervous system (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these functions does the afferent division NOT perform?

<p>Regulating voluntary muscle movements (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What connection type exists in the autonomic nervous system pathways?

<p>A dual-neuron chain linking the CNS and effectors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of muscles are innervated by the autonomic nervous system?

<p>Smooth muscles, cardiac muscles, and glands (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What nervous response is associated with the sympathetic nervous system?

<p>Acceleration of heart rate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Myosin Structure

Myosin is a protein with two intertwined golf club-like subunits. The heads form cross-bridges.

ATP Role in Muscles

ATP is the energy source for muscle contractions. It's created in multiple ways, with or without oxygen.

Creatine Phosphate

Creatine phosphate provides a high-energy phosphate to regenerate ATP during exercise.

Glycolysis

A metabolic pathway to create ATP without oxygen, producing lactic acid during high intensity exercise.

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Oxidative Phosphorylation

A metabolic pathway that generates ATP with oxygen, used for prolonged exercise.

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Sliding Filament Theory

The theory explaining muscle contraction, where thick and thin filaments slide past each other.

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Sarcomere

The basic contractile unit of a muscle fiber.

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Muscle Contraction

Multiple sarcomeres shortening lead to overall muscle contraction.

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Muscle Function

Muscles produce tension and shorten (contract), causing movement.

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Skeletal Muscle Type

Voluntary, striated muscles that are multinucleated cells, with bundles of long, thick cells.

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Cardiac Muscle Type

Involuntary, striated muscles in the heart with short branched cells connected by intercalated discs.

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Smooth Muscle Type

Involuntary, unstriated muscles with short, spindle-shaped cells arranged in sheets.

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Actin

Thin filament in a sarcomere, interacting with myosin for muscle contraction.

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Myosin

Thick filament in a sarcomere that binds to actin and creates the power stroke during contraction.

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Calcium's Role

A crucial element required for muscle contraction — it exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin.

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Muscle Organization

Muscle tissue ordered in sheets, bundles and fibers in the following hierarchy: muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, sarcomere.

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Muscle fiber types

Different types of muscle fibers with varying characteristics, including Type I (slow-twitch), Type IIa (fast-twitch oxidative-glycolytic), and Type IIx (fast-twitch glycolytic).

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Muscle adaptation to exercise

Muscles change in response to exercise, improving oxidative capacity (aerobic endurance), increasing size (hypertrophy), and potentially converting fiber types (e.g., IIa to IIx).

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Oxidative capacity

The ability of muscles to use oxygen to produce energy for sustained activities.

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Muscle hypertrophy

Increase in muscle size due to resistance training.

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Fiber type interconversion

Certain muscle fiber types can change to another type, but slow to fast conversion is rare without special events.

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Muscle repair

Muscles can repair themselves after damage through specialized cells called satellite cells.

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Muscle atrophy

Loss of muscle mass due to disuse, disease, or aging.

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Sarcopenia

Gradual and progressive loss of muscle mass, strength, and function associated with aging.

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Slow-oxidative fibers (Type I)

These muscle fibers are slow to contract but fatigue-resistant, relying on oxygen for energy production.

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Fast-oxidative fibers (Type IIa)

These muscle fibers contract quickly and can use both oxygen and glucose for energy, so they are moderately fatigue-resistant.

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Fast-glycolytic fibers (Type IIx)

These muscle fibers contract very quickly but fatigue quickly, relying primarily on glucose for energy.

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Excitation-contraction coupling

The process where an action potential triggers muscle contraction, involving calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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Calcium's role in muscle contraction

Calcium ions initiate muscle contraction by binding to troponin, exposing cross-bridge binding sites on actin and allowing myosin to pull.

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Muscle Relaxation

Removal/reuptake of calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum is required for muscle relaxation, allowing the filaments to detach.

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Muscle Contraction Time

Muscle contraction consists of three phases: 1) time before contraction starts (Ca2+ release); 2) time for generating tension; 3) time for re-uptake of Ca2+.

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Load-Velocity Relationship

The heavier the load, the slower the muscle can contract.

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Graded Muscle Contractions

Contractions of a whole muscle can be of varying strength based upon the number of muscle fibers contracting and the amount of tension developed by each contracting fiber.

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Motor Unit Recruitment

A single motor unit consists of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. More motor units recruited results in a stronger contraction.

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Factors Influencing Muscle Tension

The amount of tension developed by a muscle is influenced by frequency of stimulation, muscle fiber length, fatigue, and fiber thickness.

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Twitch Summation

Sustained elevation in cytosolic calcium and stretching of the series-elastic component leads to greater tension due to increased frequency of stimulation.

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Optimal Muscle Length

Maximum muscle tension is achieved when the muscle is at its optimal length, allowing for maximal interaction between myosin cross-bridges and actin.

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Too Short Muscle Length

When a muscle is too short, overlapping filaments interfere with optimal cross-bridge formation, reducing tension.

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Too Long Muscle Length

When a muscle is too long, there are fewer actin sites accessible for myosin cross-bridges, resulting in reduced tension.

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Muscle Tension Transmission

Muscle tension generated within sarcomeres is transferred to bone via the tendon, which acts as a series-elastic component.

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Lever System in Muscles

Muscles, bones, and joints form lever systems where bones act as levers, joints are fulcrums, and muscles provide force.

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Muscle Contraction: Isotonic

Muscle contracts while maintaining constant tension, changing length. Think of lifting a weight.

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Muscle Contraction: Isometric

Muscle contracts without changing length, increasing tension. Think of pushing against a wall.

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Muscle Contraction: Isokinetic

Muscle contracts at a constant speed, allowing for controlled movement.

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Concentric Contraction

Muscle shortens under a load.

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Eccentric Contraction

Muscle lengthens while under a load.

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Exercise-Induced Muscle Damage

Eccentric exercises are more likely to cause muscle damage, particularly affecting fast-twitch muscle fibers.

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Superior Gluteal Nerve

A nerve that supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae muscles, responsible for hip abduction, medial rotation, and flexion of the hip.

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Lateral Circumflex Femoral Artery

An artery that branches from the femoral artery and supplies blood to the gluteal muscles, including gluteus medius and gluteus minimus, as well as the hip joint.

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Inferior Gluteal Nerve

A nerve that supplies the gluteus maximus muscle, responsible for hip extension, lateral rotation, and abduction.

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Pectineus Muscle

A muscle that adducts, flexes, and medially rotates the thigh, located on the anterior surface of the thigh.

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Iliotibial Tract

A thick band of fibrous tissue that runs down the lateral side of the thigh, extending from the iliac crest to the lateral tibial condyle, acting as a stabilizer for the knee joint.

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Medial Circumflex Femoral Artery

An artery that branches from the femoral artery and supplies blood to the medial side of the thigh and the hip joint, including muscles like the adductors and the pectineus.

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Piriformis Muscle

A muscle that laterally rotates the thigh and extends the hip, located deep within the gluteal region.

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Obturator Nerve

A nerve that supplies the adductor muscles of the thigh, responsible for hip adduction, flexion, and medial rotation.

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Sciatic Nerve

A large nerve that descends from the lumbosacral plexus and supplies the muscles of the posterior thigh and leg, responsible for hip extension and knee flexion.

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Quadratus Femoris Muscle

It's a 'square' shaped muscle in the 'femoral' region.

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Adductor Magnus?

A large muscle that adducts the thigh, flexes the thigh, and assists with extension of the thigh.

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Hamstring Muscles

A group of three muscles (Biceps Femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus) that flex the knee and extend the thigh.

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Gracilis

A thin muscle that adducts the thigh and flexes the knee.

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Obturator Externus

A muscle that laterally rotates the thigh and has some adduction support.

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Biceps Femoris

A two-headed muscle that flexes the knee and extends the thigh, its long head also helps with hip extension.

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Profunda Femoris

An artery that supplies blood to the posterior thigh muscles, including the hamstrings.

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Femoral Triangle

A triangular space in the upper thigh bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, adductor longus medially, and sartorius laterally. It contains important structures like the femoral artery, vein, and nerve.

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Femoral Triangle Contents

The femoral triangle houses the femoral vein, femoral artery, and femoral nerve, crucial for blood supply and nerve innervation to the leg.

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Sartorius Muscle

The longest muscle in the human body, originating from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserting on the medial tibial surface. It contributes to hip flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation, as well as knee flexion and medial rotation.

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Quadriceps Femoris Group

A group of four muscles (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius) that work together to extend the leg at the knee and contribute to hip flexion.

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Thigh Medial Compartment

A muscular compartment on the inner thigh containing adductor muscles that act to pull the thigh towards the midline of the body.

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Adductor Longus

A powerful adductor muscle of the thigh, originating from the pubis and inserting onto the linea aspera, acting alongside other adductors to control thigh movement.

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Gracilis Muscle

A superficial muscle on the inner thigh, originating from the pubic bone and inserting on the medial tibial surface, contributing to knee flexion and hip adduction.

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Linea Aspera

A prominent ridge on the posterior surface of the femur, serving as an attachment point for several thigh muscles, including adductor longus and adductor magnus.

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Tibialis Anterior Action

This muscle dorsiflexes and inverts the foot. It helps lift the foot off the ground and turn it inward.

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Extensor Digitorum Longus Action

This muscle extends the 2nd to 5th toes and assists with dorsiflexion of the foot. It helps straighten the toes and lift the foot.

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Extensor Hallucis Longus Action

This muscle extends the big toe and contributes to dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot. It helps you point your big toe upwards and turn your foot inward.

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Fibularis Tertius Action

This muscle contributes to foot eversion and assists in dorsiflexion. It helps turn the foot outward and lift it off the ground.

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Extensor Retinaculum Function

This structure acts like a band that holds the extensor tendons of the foot in place. It helps keep the tendons organized and prevents them from slipping.

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Fibularis Longus action

The Fibularis Longus muscle helps with plantarflexion (pointing the toes down) and eversion (turning the sole of the foot outwards).

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Fibularis Brevis action

Fibularis Brevis muscle helps plantarflexion and eversion of the foot, like Fibularis Longus, but it primarily focuses on foot eversion.

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Gastrocnemius Location

The Gastrocnemius muscle is located on the back of your lower leg, above the calf muscle.

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Soleus Location

Soleus is a big, flat muscle located deep under the gastrocnemius, on the back of your lower leg.

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Subtalar Joint Movements

The subtalar joint allows for inversion and eversion movements of the foot, which are important for balance and walking. Inversion involves turning the sole of the foot inward, while eversion turns it outward.

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Foot Arches: Medial Longitudinal Arch

The medial longitudinal arch is the highest arch in the foot. It extends from the heel to the ball of the foot and is supported by ligaments and muscles. It helps distribute weight and provides shock absorption.

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Foot Arches: Lateral Longitudinal Arch

The lateral longitudinal arch is a lower arch than the medial arch. It runs along the outside of the foot and helps support the lateral side of the foot.

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Foot Arches: Transverse Arch

The transverse arch is a wider arch that runs across the foot, connecting the metatarsals to the tarsal bones. It helps support the arch of the foot and distributes weight evenly.

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Femoral Artery Branches

The femoral artery, a major artery in the leg, branches into several smaller arteries supplying different areas. These include the profunda femoris artery, circumflex femoral arteries and the popliteal artery.

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Popliteal Artery Branches

The popliteal artery, a continuation of the femoral artery, branches into the anterior tibial artery, posterior tibial artery, fibular artery, and genicular branches, providing blood to the lower leg and foot.

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Dorsalis Pedis Artery

The dorsalis pedis artery is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery in the foot, running along the dorsum (top) of the foot and supplying blood to the foot's dorsal surface.

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Superficial Veins of the Foot

The superficial veins of the foot drain blood from the foot and leg. Two main veins are the small saphenous vein and the great saphenous vein.

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Radiocarpal Joint

The joint between the radius bone in the forearm and the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones in the wrist.

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Carpometacarpal Joint

This joint connects the carpal bones (wrist) to the metacarpal bones (hand). Each metacarpal bone has its own carpometacarpal joint.

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Metacarpophalangeal Joint

These joints connect the metacarpal bones (hand) to the phalanges (finger bones). It's where you bend your fingers at the knuckles.

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Proximal Interphalangeal Joint

The joint between the first and second phalanges of each finger. This is the middle joint on your fingers.

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Distal Interphalangeal Joint

This joint connects the second and third phalanges (the tip of your finger). This is the joint on the end of your fingers.

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Axillary Artery Location

The axillary artery starts at the outer border of the first rib and continues as the brachial artery at the lower border of the teres major muscle.

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Brachial Artery Location

The brachial artery begins below the teres major muscle and splits into the radial and ulnar arteries below the elbow joint.

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Median Nerve Location

The median nerve is located in the anterior part of the arm and forearm, supplying muscles and sensation to the hand.

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Radial Nerve Location

The radial nerve is located on the posterior (back) side of the arm and forearm, supplying muscles and sensation to the back of the hand.

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Ulnar Nerve Location

The ulnar nerve runs on the medial (pinky finger side) of the arm and forearm, supplying muscles and sensation to the pinky finger and part of the ring finger.

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Cubital Fossa Contents

The cubital fossa is a triangular space on the anterior elbow containing several crucial structures. From lateral to medial, these are the tendon of the biceps brachii, the brachial artery, and the median nerve.

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Forearm Compartments

The forearm muscles are divided into two compartments: anterior flexor compartment and posterior extensor compartment. These compartments are separated by the interosseous membrane and have distinct functions.

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Flexor Retinaculum Function

The flexor retinaculum is a thick band of collagenous tissue that helps keep the tendons of the flexor muscles from bowing out as they cross the wrist. This helps maintain the smooth movement of the hand.

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Radial Nerve Innervation

The radial nerve innervates the posterior extensor compartment of the forearm, controlling all the muscles that extend the wrist and fingers.

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What bone does the acromial end of humerus articulate with?

The lateral end of the humerus articulates with the acromion process of the scapula, forming the shoulder joint.

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What is the medial end of the humerus called?

The medial end of the humerus is called the sternal end.

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What does the sternal end of humerus articulate with?

The sternal end of the humerus articulates with the manubrium of the sternum, forming the sternoclavicular joint.

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What is the glenoid cavity?

The glenoid cavity is a shallow, pear-shaped depression on the scapula that articulates with the head of the humerus, forming the shoulder joint.

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What is the coracoid process?

The coracoid process is a curved bony projection on the scapula that serves as an attachment point for several muscles.

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What is the spine of the scapula?

The spine of the scapula is a prominent bony ridge on the posterior surface of the scapula that separates the supraspinous fossa from the infraspinous fossa.

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What are the rotator cuff muscles?

The rotator cuff muscles are four muscles that surround the shoulder joint, providing stability and control of movement.

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Name the 4 rotator cuff muscles.

The four rotator cuff muscles are: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.

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What is the action of the deltoid muscle?

The deltoid muscle abducts the arm, flexes and medially rotates the arm (anterior part), and extends and laterally rotates the arm (posterior part).

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What is the action of the trapezius muscle?

The trapezius muscle elevates, depresses, retracts, and rotates the scapula.

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What is the action of the levator scapulae muscle?

The levator scapulae muscle elevates the scapula.

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What is the action of the rhomboid muscles (major and minor)?

The rhomboid muscles retract and rotate the scapula.

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What is the action of the serratus anterior muscle?

The serratus anterior muscle protracts the scapula and helps it rotate.

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What is the action of the pectoralis major muscle?

The pectoralis major muscle adducts, medially rotates, and flexes the humerus.

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What is the action of the pectoralis minor muscle?

The pectoralis minor muscle depresses the tip of the shoulder and protracts the scapula.

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Pronator Teres

Muscle that helps pronate (rotate) the forearm inward.

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Flexor Carpi Radialis

Muscle that flexes (bends) the wrist and abducts (moves away from the midline) it.

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Palmaris Longus

Muscle that flexes the wrist and helps tighten the palmar fascia.

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Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Muscle that flexes and adducts (moves towards the midline) the wrist.

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Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Muscle that flexes (bends) the middle finger joints.

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Flexor Digitorum Profundus

Muscle that flexes (bends) the fingertip joints.

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Flexor Pollicis Longus

Muscle that flexes the thumb joint.

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Pronator Quadratus

Muscle that helps rotate the forearm inward (pronation).

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Brachioradialis

Muscle that flexes the elbow.

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Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus

Muscle that extends (straightens) and abducts (moves away) the wrist.

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Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

Muscle that extends (straightens) and abducts (moves away) the wrist.

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Extensor Digitorum

Muscle that extends (straightens) the fingers.

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Extensor Carpi Ulnaris

Muscle that extends (straightens) and adducts (moves towards the midline) the wrist.

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Supinator

Muscle that supinates (rotates) the forearm outward.

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Abductor Pollicis Longus

Muscle that abducts (moves away) the thumb.

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Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

The PNS is the part of the nervous system that connects the central nervous system (CNS) to the rest of the body. It's responsible for transmitting information from the CNS to muscles, organs, and glands, and bringing sensory information back to the CNS.

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Afferent Division

This division of the PNS carries sensory information from the body to the CNS. It's like an 'incoming' lane for signals.

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Efferent Division

This division of the PNS carries commands from the CNS to the body's muscles, organs, and glands. It's like the 'outgoing' lane for signals.

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Somatic Nervous System

This part of the efferent division controls voluntary movements of skeletal muscles. It's the part you consciously control.

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Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

This part of the efferent division controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, and digestion. It operates automatically.

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Sympathetic Nervous System

This branch of the ANS prepares the body for 'fight or flight' situations, increasing heart rate, breathing, and alertness.

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Parasympathetic Nervous System

This branch of the ANS promotes 'rest and digest' activities, slowing heart rate, promoting digestion, and relaxing muscles.

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Dual Innervation

Many organs receive input from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, allowing for balanced control.

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Preganglionic Neuron

The first neuron in an autonomic pathway that originates in the CNS and synapses with a postganglionic neuron in a ganglion.

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Postganglionic Neuron

The second neuron in an autonomic pathway that originates in a ganglion and sends its axons to the target organ.

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Autonomic Nerve Pathway

A two-neuron chain that carries signals from the CNS to the target organ in the autonomic nervous system.

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What is the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?

The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for 'fight or flight', while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes 'rest and digest'. They work together to maintain homeostasis.

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What is the role of the autonomic nervous system?

The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, digestion, and blood pressure, ensuring the body functions properly.

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What is the function of ganglia in the autonomic nervous system?

Ganglia are clusters of nerve cell bodies that act like relay stations in the autonomic nervous system. They connect preganglionic neurons to postganglionic neurons, allowing signals to be transmitted to target organs.

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Blood-brain barrier (BBB)

A protective barrier formed by tight junctions between endothelial cells in CNS capillaries, regulating what passes from blood to brain tissue. It prevents harmful substances from entering the brain while allowing necessary nutrients.

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BBB Function

The blood-brain barrier (BBB) selectively isolates the brain from chemicals in the blood that might disrupt neural function. It allows the chemical composition of blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to differ, ensuring the brain's optimal environment.

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Lumbar Puncture

A medical procedure that samples cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the subarachnoid space, typically in the lower back.

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CSF Functions

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) acts as a protective cushion for the brain and spinal cord. It transports nutrients, chemical messengers, and waste products within the CNS.

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Meninges

Three layers of protective membranes (dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater) that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord. They also provide nourishment.

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Choroid Plexuses

Specialized structures located within the ventricles of the brain, responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

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Ventricles

Fluid-filled cavities within the brain that connect and allow for CSF circulation. There are four ventricles in the brain.

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CNS Nourishment

The brain relies on a constant supply of oxygen and glucose from the blood. It primarily uses glucose for energy and cannot store it. Brain damage can occur if oxygen is deprived.

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Neuroglia

Supporting cells in the nervous system that help neurons function properly. They make up about half of the total cell population.

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Astrocytes

A type of neuroglia that regulates the chemical environment around neurons, ensuring proper communication.

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Myelinating Glia

Neuroglia that form a myelin sheath around axons, which insulates and speeds up nerve impulses.

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Oligodendrocytes

Myelinating glia found in the central nervous system (CNS).

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Schwann Cells

Myelinating glia found in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

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Microglia

Neuroglia that act as 'scavengers' by removing cell debris and waste products.

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Ependymal Cells

Neuroglia that produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which cushions and protects the brain.

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Membrane Potential

The electrical charge difference across a cell's membrane, usually negative inside compared to outside.

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Depolarization

A decrease in membrane potential, making the inside of the cell less negative.

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Action Potential

A rapid, short-lived change in membrane potential that allows neurons to communicate.

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Presynaptic Terminal

The end of an axon where neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft.

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Synaptic Cleft

The tiny gap between the presynaptic terminal and the postsynaptic terminal.

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Postsynaptic Terminal

The part of the neuron receiving the signal, receiving the neurotransmitters.

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Synaptic Transmission

The process of signal transmission across a synapse, involving neurotransmitter release and binding.

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What is an EPSP?

Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential. An EPSP is a temporary depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane that makes the neuron more likely to fire.

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What is an IPSP?

Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential. An IPSP is a temporary hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane that makes the neuron less likely to fire.

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Convergence

When multiple neurons synapse on a single neuron.

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Divergence

When a single neuron synapses on multiple other neurons.

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Neurotransmitter Function

A chemical released by neurons that carries signals across a synapse.

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Acetylcholine Function

A neurotransmitter with diverse functions, such as muscle contraction, memory, and learning.

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Neurons

The fundamental units of the nervous system, specialized cells that conduct information (electrical and chemical) throughout the body.

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Cell Body (Soma)

The central part of a neuron, containing the nucleus and other organelles essential for the neuron's survival and function.

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Dendrites

Short, branched extensions from the cell body of a neuron, responsible for receiving information from other neurons.

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Resting Membrane Potential

The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane of a neuron when it is not transmitting a signal, typically around -70mV.

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Myelin Sheath

A fatty insulating layer that wraps around the axons of some neurons, significantly increasing the speed of electrical signal transmission.

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Synapse

The specialized junction between two neurons, where the axon of one neuron communicates with the dendrite of another neuron.

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Action Potential: Rising Phase

The rapid depolarization of a neuron's membrane potential due to the influx of sodium ions (Na+) through open sodium channels.

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Action Potential: Falling Phase

The repolarization of a neuron's membrane potential back towards the resting potential due to the efflux of potassium ions (K+) through open potassium channels.

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Refractory Period

The period after an action potential during which it is difficult or impossible to initiate another action potential.

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Myelination

The process of wrapping axons in a fatty sheath, called myelin, to increase the speed of action potential conduction.

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Saltatory Conduction

The rapid conduction of action potentials along myelinated axons, where the signal jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next.

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Electrical Synapse

Direct connection between neurons through gap junctions, allowing for rapid and synchronized communication.

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Chemical Synapse

Communication between neurons through the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft.

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Study Notes

Muscle Physiology I

  • Muscles are specialized tissues enabling tension and shortening (contraction) to produce movement.
  • Muscle functions include producing purposeful movements, propelling contents through hollow internal organs, and emptying contents to the external environment.

Muscle Functions

  • Maintaining posture and body position
  • Stabilizing joints
  • Generating heat
  • Assisting in circulation, digestion, and breathing
  • Protecting internal organs

Muscle Types

  • Skeletal Muscles: Voluntary, striated muscle bundles of long, thick, cylindrical, striated, contractile, multinucleated cells extending the length of the muscle. Multiple nuclei in a single cell.
  • Cardiac Muscles: Involuntary, striated, interlinked network of short, slender, cylindrical, striated, branched contractile cells connected by intercalated discs.
  • Smooth Muscles: Involuntary, unstriated, loose network of short, slender, spindle-shaped, unstriated, contractile cells arranged in sheets.

Skeletal Muscle Organisation

  • Whole muscle → Fascicles → Muscle Fibers (cells) → Myofibrils → Sarcomeres
  • Thick and thin filaments within sarcomeres are responsible for contraction.
  • Tendons attach muscles to bones.

Sarcomere: Functional Unit

  • Sarcomeres are the basic contractile units of skeletal muscle.
  • Contain overlapping thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments.
  • The sliding filament theory explains how these filaments interact to cause muscle contraction.
  • Band designations: I band (light), A band (dark), H zone (lighter region of A band), Z line (junction between sarcomeres)

Actin (Thin Filament)

  • Actin is a protein forming the thin filament in the sarcomere.
  • Tropomyosin and troponin block the myosin binding site on actin when the muscle is relaxed.
  • Calcium binding to troponin causes a conformational change, moving tropomyosin and exposing the binding sites.

Myosin (Thick Filament)

  • Myosin is a protein forming the thick filament in the sarcomere.
  • Myosin heads form cross-bridges binding to actin filaments.
  • ATP is crucial for the detachment and "cocking" of myosin heads, enabling the power stroke.

Role of ATP

  • ATP is the energy source for muscle contraction.
  • Hydrolysis of ATP provides energy for the myosin head to detach from actin and "cock", enabling the power stroke.

ATP Production

  • Muscle fibers generate ATP through various pathways, including creatine phosphate transfer, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation.
  • Oxidative phosphorylation is the primary source of ATP for prolonged exercise.

Aerobic vs Anaerobic

  • Aerobic: Uses oxygen to produce ATP (32 ATP). This is for prolonged exercise and is more efficient.
  • Anaerobic: Does not require oxygen to produce ATP (2 ATP); lactic acid fermentation is used. This is for short, high-intensity exercise and is less efficient.

Sliding Filament Theory

  • Thick and thin filaments slide past each other, increasing their overlap during contraction. This shortens the sarcomere which causes the whole muscle to shorten.
  • Muscle contraction is based on the interaction of myosin and actin filaments.

Presence of Ca2+

  • Calcium regulates actin-myosin binding by causing a shape change in troponin, exposing the myosin-binding sites on actin.
  • This allows the myosin heads to bind and create cross bridges.

Power Stroke

  • The myosin head rotates, pulling the actin filament inwards, shortening the sarcomere. Repeating cross-bridge cycling shortens the muscle.

Role of ATP in Muscle Relaxation

  • ATP is needed to detach myosin heads from actin, allowing the muscle to relax.
  • Active removal through reuptake of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum further contributes to relaxation.

Sarcomere Bands and Structure

  • Z lines: The borders of a sarcomere. Shortens with muscle contraction, I band shortens, and H zone gets smaller.
  • H zone: A portion of the A band, contains only myosin filaments, and shrinks with contraction.
  • A band: Part of the sarcomere occupied by the myosin filament. Remains the same size through contraction.
  • I band: Part of the sarcomere where there are only actin filaments.
  • M line: Proteins that hold the myosin filaments together within the center of the A band.

What Happens When There is No ATP?

  • Rigor mortis, the stiffening of muscles after death, occurs because the myosin heads are unable to detach from actin without ATP, causing persistent tension.

Smooth and Cardiac Muscles

  • Smooth muscles: Involuntary control, single-unit smooth muscle is myogenic, slow-wave potentials, modification by the autonomic nervous system, rearrangement of cross-bridge attachments to restore tension, and "latch" phenomenon (prolonged tension while saving energy). Contraction differs from skeletal muscle due to structural differences (No troponin or tropomyosin in actin) and Ca2+-dependent phosphorylation of myosin.
  • Cardiac muscles: Found only in the heart, myogenic, innervated by the autonomic nervous system, highly organized, striated, short and slender fibers, and interconnected by gap junctions for coordinated contractions.

Functional Syncytium (beating as one)

  • Wave of depolarization that spreads via gap junctions in cardiac muscles to coordinate contractions.

Muscle Adaptations

  • Exercise: Increases oxidative capacity, muscle hypertrophy.
  • Testosterone: Promotes myosin and actin synthesis and muscle growth.
  • Interconversion: Type IIa fibers can transform into Type IIx fibers (not easily reversible unless in special circumstances)
  • Repair: Satellite cells become myogenic precursor cells for repair following muscle damage.
  • Atrophy: Loss of muscle mass.

Sarcopenia

  • Gradual muscle loss after the 4th decade of life.
  • Loss through inactivity comprises 1% per year, accelerating in males after age 50.
  • Affects activities of daily living and bone mass.

Muscle Mechanics: Contractions

  • Isometric: No change in muscle length (e.g., holding a weight).
  • Isotonic: Constant tension, muscle length changes (e.g., lifting a weight).
  • Isokinetic: Constant velocity, muscle length changes at constant velocity.

Other Types of Contractions

  • Concentric: Muscle shortens.
  • Eccentric: Muscle lengthens.
  • Example: Bicep curl involves concentric contraction (lifting) and eccentric contraction (lowering) of the bicep muscles.

Exercise-Induced Muscle Damage

  • Eccentric exercise is more likely to damage muscles, resulting in sarcomere disruption and/or widening of space between thick and thin filaments. Fast (Type II) are more susceptible.

Load-Velocity Relationship

  • The relationship shows that the maximum velocity of muscle shortening decreases as the load increases.

Graded Contractions

  • Contractile strength: Dependent on the number of muscle fibers contracting and the amount of tension generated by each fiber.

Motor Unit Recruitment

  • A motor unit comprises a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
  • Increasing the number of motor units recruited increases the force of contraction.

Factors Influencing Muscle Tension

  • Frequency of stimulation
  • Length of the fiber at the onset of contraction
  • Extent of fatigue
  • Thickness of the fiber

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