nurs 8022 exam 1 practice test hard

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115 Questions

What is the driving force for the movement of water in osmosis?

Difference in solute concentration across the membrane

Which type of transport requires energy in the form of ATP?

Primary active transport

What is the function of Na+ K+ ATPase (Sodium Potassium Pump)?

Pumping Na+ out and K+ in

Which ion does the H+ ATPase concentrate where it is needed?

H+

What is the driving force for co-transport in secondary active transport?

Movement of Na+ down its concentration gradient

What happens if a membrane is permeable to a specific ion and the Nernst potential exactly balances the diffusion potential for that ion?

No further net diffusion occurs

What is the resting membrane potential (RMP) of a non-signaling neuron?

-70 to -85 mV

Osmotic pressure is the driving force for the movement of what substance?

Water

What type of transport does not move against electrochemical gradient?

Facilitated diffusion

Which process involves the 'dropping off' of cellular fragments called apoptotic bodies?

Apoptosis

What type of cell death does not involve inflammatory changes?

Apoptosis

What is the main feature of necrosis?

Inflammatory changes

Which process can lead to cancer, autoimmune disorders, neurodegenerative diseases, and ischemic injury if dysregulated?

Apoptosis

What is the main function of autophagy?

Recycling center; self-destructive

Which condition is characterized by progressive stiffness and rigidity in tissues/systemic structures?

Aging

What are the postmortem changes associated with postmortem autolysis?

Reduced temperature, purple skin discoloration, putrefactive changes

What is a key factor contributing to the loss of integrity of the cell membrane in cellular injury?

ATP depletion

What is the process of making the membrane potential less negative or more positive called?

Depolarization

Which ion flows into the cell during the upstroke of the action potential, leading to depolarization?

Sodium (Na+)

What is the structure on the muscle fiber where the synapse occurs between a myelinated axon of a motor neuron and the muscle fiber?

Motor end plate

What stops depolarization at the motor end plate in a neuromuscular junction?

AChE breaking down ACh

What is the role of acetylcholine (ACh) in skeletal muscle excitation?

Activates nicotinic ACh receptors

Which drug competes for the ACh binding site and blocks nicotinic ACh receptors?

Curariform drugs

What is the purpose of myelin in nerve fibers?

Acts as an electrical insulator

What is the portion of the action potential following repolarization where the membrane potential is more negative than its resting membrane potential called?

Undershoot

Which substance surrounds the nerve axon forming a myelin sheath?

'Schwann cells'

'Saltatory conduction' occurs at which sites along myelinated nerve fibers?

'Node of Ranvier'

Which drugs bind and activate nicotinic ACh receptors, resulting in prolonged effects due to lack of destruction by AChE?

'ACh-like drugs'

What prevents breakdown of ACh and prolongs depolarization at the neuromuscular junction?

'Anti-AChE'

What is the functional contracting unit of the muscle fiber?

Sarcomere

Which protein is responsible for blocking the myosin head from attaching to actin?

Tropomyosin

What regulates the interaction of actin and myosin in smooth muscle?

Calmodulin

What causes atrophy in cells?

Decreased workload

What type of hyperplasia is considered abnormal?

Pathologic hyperplasia

What is the process that involves the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another less mature cell type?

Metaplasia

During ischemic period, what causes excessive ATP consumption in cells?

Accumulation of purine catabolites

What process causes additional injury during restoration of oxygen in reperfusion injury?

Mitochondrial calcium overload

What triggers physiological hypertrophy in cells?

Increased demand and stimulation by hormones and growth factors

What protein is responsible for 'nailing on' tropomyosin and releasing it when calcium attaches?

Troponin T

What results from increased rate of cellular division and can be physiological or pathological?

Hyperplasia

What initiates the contractile process in smooth muscle by interacting with many types of receptor proteins?

ACh and norepinephrine

Which of the following is a common manifestation of lead poisoning in adults?

Peripheral nervous system effects

Which of the following is a characteristic of hypoxia caused by carbon monoxide?

symptoms include headache, tinnitus, and nausea

What is the most common form of cellular injury?

Ischemia

What is the primary cause of harm to cells in infiltrations/accumulations?

Crowding organelles and excessive metabolites

Which manifestation is associated with water infiltration into cells?

"Oncosis"

What is the primary effect of lead on calcium homeostasis?

Enhances intracellular calcium concentration

Which organ is primarily affected by ethanol-induced nutritional deficiencies?

Brain

What is the main characteristic of radiation capable of removing orbital electrons from atoms?

"Ionized radiation"

"Dystrophic calcification" and "metastatic calcification" are associated with the accumulation of which substance in cells?

"Calcium"

"Horizontal transmission" and "vertical transmission" are related to which effect of radiation exposure?

"Genetic changes"

"Decreased ATP" and "failure of pumps" are characteristic features of cellular injury due to which condition?

Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

Which type of feedback promotes stability and restores homeostasis?

Negative feedback

What is the main function of proteins in the membrane?

Provide selectivity to the membrane

Which substance is known for decreasing membrane fluidity and permeability?

Cholesterol

What is the chemical fuel for cellular processes?

ATP

Which molecules are processed into acetyl-coA for ATP production?

Glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids

Which process produces 38 ATP per molecule of glucose degraded?

Aerobic process

What is the primary function of ATP in cellular processes?

Energy transfer

Which molecules are more abundant intracellularly?

$K$ (Potassium)

What type of substances move more readily through the membrane?

Lipid soluble (non-charged) substances

Which type of transport requires no energy or carrier?

Simple diffusion

What is the main characteristic of un-gated ion channel movement?

Dependent on substance size and shape only

Which type of tumor is usually encapsulated with connective tissue and contains fairly well-differentiated cells and well-organized stroma?

Benign tumor

What is the term for the loss of cellular differentiation in malignant tumors?

Anaplasia

Which genetic mechanism involves the activation of proto-oncogenes resulting in hyperactivity of growth-related gene products called oncogenes?

Activation of proto-oncogenes

What term refers to preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin that have not penetrated the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding stroma?

Carcinoma in situ (CIS)

What is the main characteristic of radiation capable of removing orbital electrons from atoms?

Ionizing radiation

What characteristic differentiates malignant tumors from benign tumors?

Rapid growth rate

Which type of tumor lacks a capsule and grows to invade nearby blood vessels, lymphatics, and surrounding structures?

Malignant tumor

What is the process during which a cell becomes a cancer cell called?

Carcinogenesis

"Carcinoma" is named by originating from which type of tissue?

"Epithelial tissue"

Which cells are thought to cause relapse and recurrence in cancer treatment?

Cancer stem cells

What is the term for the process that involves the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another less mature cell type?

Metaplasia

What is the primary characteristic that sets carcinoma in situ (CIS) apart from invasive and metastatic cancers?

Has not penetrated the local basement membrane

Which syndrome is characterized by elevated stature, moderate degree of mental impairment, and an elevated number of repeated DNA sequences?

Fragile X syndrome

What is the risk for each child if both parents affected by an autosomal dominant disease are heterozygotes?

75%

Which disease is characterized by delayed age of onset, incomplete penetrance, and variable expressivity, and is considered the most common recessive disease?

Cystic fibrosis

What does penetrance refer to in genetics?

The percentage of individuals with a specific genotype who also exhibit the expected phenotype

What causes variation in severity of Type I neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disease)?

Modifier genes

What is the primary function of carrier detection tests through genetic testing?

To identify the disease locus for mutation

What is the primary role of modifier genes in genetics?

They can modify the expression of disease-causing genes

Which gene mutation leads to tumor formation in Type I neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disease)?

a deletion

What causes variation in severity in diseases with variable expressivity?

All of the above

What is the primary effect of lead on calcium homeostasis?

increased calcium in ICF

What is the role of telomeres in cancer?

Restore and maintain cell division capabilities

Which process is associated with the spread of cancer cells to distant tissues and organs?

Metastasis

What is the basic function of tumor suppressor genes?

Block antigrowth signals

Which protein, when mutated, can turn from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene, stimulating cell growth even when growth factors are missing?

RAS

What is the significance of clonal proliferation in cancer development?

Increased growth rate and decreased apoptosis

Which mechanism causes high rate of chromosomal loss, heterozygosity, and chromosomal amplification in cancer?

Tumor suppressor gene overexpression

Which factor stimulates new blood vessel growth to promote cancer cell and tumor growth?

Angiogenic factors secreted by advanced cancers

What is the function of caretaker genes?

"Encode proteins involved in repairing damaged DNA"

What is the role of cytokine release from inflammatory cells in cancer development?

Stimulate cell proliferation

What is the primary function of RAS in cancer development?

Stimulates cell growth even when growth factors are missing

Which virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

Herpes virus

What is the primary cause of mesothelioma and lung cancer according to the text?

Asbestos exposure

Which type of cancer is associated with HPV type 16 and 18?

Cervical and anal cancers

What is the primary cause of basal cell carcinoma according to the text?

UV radiation

Which type of radiation is associated with acute leukemias, thyroid, breast, lung, stomach, colon, and esophageal cancers?

Ionizing radiation

Which genetic mechanism involves the activation of proto-oncogenes resulting in hyperactivity of growth-related gene products called oncogenes?

Oncogene activation

What is the primary characteristic of paraneoplastic syndromes according to the text?

Caused by biologic substances released from the tumor

Which substance is linked to indoor air pollution and associated with lung cancer?

Radon

Which condition is characterized by progressive stiffness and rigidity in tissues/systemic structures?

Scleroderma

What is the primary function of RAS in cancer development?

Stimulating cell growth

What is the most common form of cellular injury?

Ischemic injury

What is the primary effect of lead on calcium homeostasis?

Promotion of calcium deposition in tissues

Which of the following is a characteristic of aneuploidy?

Involves the depletion or duplication of genetic material

During transcription, what is the role of RNA polymerase?

Pulls DNA strands apart to allow exposure of DNA bases for mRNA synthesis

What is the main consequence of a frameshift mutation?

Premature stop codon and altered amino acid sequence

Which syndrome is characterized by short stature, webbing of the neck, and widely spaced nipples?

Turner Syndrome

What is a common outcome of Robertsonian translocation?

Serious deletions or duplications in offspring

Which statement best describes aneuploidy?

It involves the loss or gain of genetic material

What is the primary function of transcription factors during gene expression?

Activate or repress expression of genes by binding to DNA sequences

Which type of mutation can have profound consequences and lead to serious genetic diseases?

Missense mutation

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