Questions and Answers
Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?
Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is:
Which number on the figure corresponds to the zygomatic bone?
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Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?
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Which of the following may be included as part of a routine preparation for general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?
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During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:
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The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:
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Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
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Which of the following best describes the type of image displayed in the figure?
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Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
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Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?
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Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears ____ on CT images.
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What is the average range for activated PTT?
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Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of a contrast agent?
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What is the flow rate for injecting 125mL of iodinated contrast agent in 50 seconds?
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What does the acronym CTDI describe?
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Which intravenous contrast agent administration method provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?
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The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?
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Which of the following is a non-ionic contrast material?
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Which technical factor has a direct effect on patient dose?
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Which term describes a patient who is having difficulty breathing?
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Which device is used to measure the patient dose from a CT examination?
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What describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?
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Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
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During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the?
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Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?
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What is a common site for IV administration of iodinated contrast media?
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What is the condition called when there is a decline in renal function following IV administration of contrast material?
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What is the quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radiosensitivity of a particular tissue type called?
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Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?
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What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult?
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Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?
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Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed ______.
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Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?
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Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?
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What is the radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening called?
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Which unit is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?
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Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which structure?
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Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?
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The abnormal density located in the posterior portion of the left lung field with an average attenuation value of +5.0 Hounsfield units most likely represents what?
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What is the average attenuation value for simple cysts of the kidney?
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After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast enhancement occurs at approximately what time?
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Which of the following corresponds to number 2 on the figure?
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Which of the following corresponds to number 5 on the figure?
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Which of the following corresponds to number 1 on the figure?
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At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate?
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During the R-R interval on an ECG, at which percentage is the heart muscle in diastole?
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What is the accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc called?
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Which CT study of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?
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Which phase of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?
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Which structure corresponds to number 5 on the figure?
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Which positioning likely describes the patient position for demonstrating anatomical relationships?
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During CT examinations of the abdomen, which anatomical structures are often analyzed?
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Which structure corresponds to number 3 on the figure?
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Which section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT of the neck?
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What is the still viable ischemic cerebral tissue surrounding the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke called?
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In which of the following carpal bones are complex fractures most common?
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What is the recommended approach for a complex CT study of the orbits?
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High resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is most commonly used for the evaluation of the?
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Which technical maneuver may be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?
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What is the range of flow rate that should be used for intravenous contrast agent during a general CT examination of the abdomen?
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Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as what?
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Which structure corresponds to the low attenuation area indicated by number 3 on the figure?
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In which renal enhancement phase was the data for this reformatted image of the abdomen most likely acquired?
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What does number 2 on the figure correspond to?
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What does number 6 on the figure correspond to?
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CT images of the chest should be acquired when the patient is:
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During CT scanning of the head, the gantry should be angled how?
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When evaluating the larynx during CT examination, the patient is often instructed to phonate which letter?
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What does number 2 correspond to?
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Which structure corresponds to number 4 on the figure?
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Which display field of view (DFOV) value was most likely used to display the image?
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Which structure corresponds to number 3 on the figure?
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During a CT examination of a female pelvis for a suspected malignancy, where may ascites be present?
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What pathologic process may be considered an interstitial disease of the lungs?
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An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the?
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What process may the patient undergo prior to a CT colonography for bowel cleansing?
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The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface is called the?
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The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called?
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Which pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to?
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Which structure corresponds to number 1 on the figure?
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This HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of:
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Which structure corresponds to number 2 on the figure?
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In which imaging plane is the pituitary gland best demonstrated during CT?
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What is the most common site of organ injury due to blunt abdominal trauma?
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Which structure corresponds to number 7 on the figure?
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Which structure corresponds to number 2 on the figure?
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Which structure corresponds to number 8 on the figure?
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At what vertebral level does the adult spinal cord end?
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Which protocol would provide the best image quality for a 3D disarticulation study of the hip?
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Study Notes
Activated PTT Range
- Activated PTT average range is 25-35 seconds.
Butterfly Needle Insertion Angle
- Correct angle for butterfly needle insertion is 15 degrees.
Contrast Agent Flow Rate
- Flow rate for administering 125mL iodinated contrast in 50 seconds is 2.5 mL/sec.
CTDI Definition
- CTDI (Computed Tomography Dose Index) represents the radiation dose to a patient during a CT scan.
Patient History for Contrast Injection
- Important topics to include: prior allergic reactions to contrast media, history of asthma, exclusion of conditions like HIV or hepatitis.
Factors Affecting GFR
- A patient's calculated GFR can be affected by age, sex, and race.
Best Administration Technique for Contrast Agents
- The bolus technique provides the highest overall plasma iodine concentration.
Symptoms of Shock
- Patients in shock may show tachycardia, rapid shallow breathing, and cyanosis.
SOLU-CORTEF Classification
- The drug SOLU-CORTEF is classified as a corticosteroid.
Non-Ionic Contrast Material
- Iohexol is identified as a non-ionic contrast material.
Patient Dose Technical Factor
- mAs (milliampere-seconds) has a direct effect on patient dosage in imaging.
Difficulty Breathing Term
- Dyspnea describes a condition where a patient experiences difficulty breathing.
Patient Dose Measuring Device
- An ionization chamber is used to measure patient dose in CT exams.
Type of Consent for Unconscious Patients
- Implied consent is assumed for patients who are unconscious and unable to consent to treatment.
Electrocardiogram Phase
- Complete cardiac diastole coincides with the T wave section of an ECG.
CT Arthrography Contrast Injection Site
- Iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the joint space during CT arthrography.
Iso-Osmolar Contrast Media
- Iodixanol is one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM).
Common IV Contrast Administration Site
- The antecubital space is frequently used for IV administration of iodinated contrast media.
Contrast Induced Nephrotoxicity
- CIN refers to the decline in renal function following the intravenous administration of contrast material.
Effective Dose Definition
- The effective dose is defined as a quantity based on the radiosensitivity of specific tissue types.
Benefits of Saline Flush After Contrast
- Saline flush benefits include reduced contrast agent dose, lower incidence of CIN, and decreased streaking artifact.
Medications Before Cardiac CT
- Sublingual nitroglycerine may be administered to dilate coronary vasculature before a cardiac CT.
Normal Diastolic Blood Pressure Range
- Normal diastolic blood pressure for adults is between 60-90 mm Hg.
Parenteral Medication Administration Route
- Intramuscular is one of the parenteral routes for medication administration.
Reducing Pediatric Radiation Dose
- Radiation dose reduction methods for pediatric CT include reducing mA, limiting acquisition phases, and increasing pitch.
Radiation Exposure Relationship Type
- The term for the relationship between radiation exposure and its harmful effects is stochastic.
Isolation Technique for Fecal Transmission
- Enteric precautions protect against infections transmitted through fecal material.
Ionic Radiopaque Contrast Material
- Iothalamate meglumine is considered an ionic radiopaque contrast medium.
Radiation Dose Index
- CTDIw is the calculated radiation dose index accounting for variations in absorption due to beam hardening.
Direct Contraindications for Contrast Material
- Direct contraindications for iodinated contrast material include prior life-threatening reactions.
Total Patient Dose Unit from CT
- Total patient dose from a helically acquired CT is expressed in mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter).
CT Stroke Management Protocol Components
- A comprehensive CT stroke management protocol includes pre-contrast brain sequences, CTA of brain and carotids, and CT perfusion.
Imaging Planes
- Coronal plane best demonstrates the pituitary gland during CT.
Organs Commonly Injured from Blunt Trauma
- The spleen is the most frequently injured organ due to blunt abdominal trauma.
Abnormal Communication in Fistula
- An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the bladder.
Bowel Cleansing for CT Colonography
- Patients may undergo catharsis for bowel cleansing prior to a CT colonography.
Imaging Plane Parallel to Plantar Surface
- The axial plane is defined as parallel to the plantar surface of the foot.
Condition from Poor Circulation
- Claudication is characterized by cramping pain in the legs due to inadequate circulation.
Ground-Glass Opacity
- Ground-glass opacity corresponds to a specific pathologic process observed in imaging.
Renal Pyramid Feature in CT
- Number 3 in an imaging figure likely identifies areas corresponding to the renal pyramid.
Renal Enhancement Phase for TCC
- The excretory phase best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder.
Recommended Section Width for HRCT Study
- A 3mm section width is optimal for high-resolution CT of the paranasal sinuses.
Significant Condition of Diffuse Fatty Liver
- Steatosis is referred to as diffuse fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma.
Spinal Cord Termination Level
- The adult spinal cord ends at the vertebral level L1-L2.
Complex CT Study Requirement
- A complex CT study for the orbits should include 2.5mm x 2.5mm axial and coronal sections.
Best Evaluation of Lung Pathology
- High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is newly preferred for lung evaluations due to its detail.
Maneuvre to Remove Cardiac Motion Artifacts
- Retrospective ECG gating is utilized during cardiac CT angiography to mitigate motion artifacts.
IV Contrast Flow Rate for General CT
- Typical flow rate for intravenous contrast during a general CT abdomen exam is 1.0-3.0 mL/sec.
Standard Preparation for Abdomen and Pelvis CT
- Routine preparations for a contrast-enhanced CT include NPO status for 4 hours and administering oral contrast 90 minutes prior.
CT Scan Field of View for Cervical Spine
- The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for cervical spine CT exam is 50.0 cm.
Patient Positioning for Lumbar Spine CT
- Knees flexed over a cushion can aid in decreasing lumbar spine curvature and comfort during CT.
CT Examination Plan for Female Pelvis
- Ascites during CT examination of the female pelvis is most notably checked in the cul-de-sac area.### Cuboid
- The cuboid is a bone in the foot, specifically part of the tarsal bones.
- It is often depicted in anatomical figures for identification and is commonly confused with adjacent bones.
Identification Questions
- Number 4 in anatomical figures often corresponds to the cuboid, but can also be confused with the navicular, calcaneus, or talus.
Sagittal Multiplanar Reformation (MPR)
- A specific image type in radiology that allows visualization of anatomy in the sagittal plane.
- The use of MPR is crucial for accurately interpreting anatomical relationships in imaging studies.
Navicular
- Identified in anatomical figures as number 6, the navicular is another important tarsal bone.
- Frequently confused with the cuboid and other tarsal bones like calcaneus and talus.
Talus
- The talus is often shown as number 1 in anatomical figures, serving as a crucial bone connecting the leg to the foot.
- Works with the calcaneus, navicular, and other tarsal bones to facilitate foot movement.
Hyperdense
- The thyroid gland appears hyperdense on CT images due to its iodine concentration.
- Understanding the density characteristics is important for interpreting imaging results, distinguishing between hypodense, isodense, hyperdense, and mottled appearances.
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Description
Test your knowledge with Mosby's CT Exam Review Practice Test 1 flashcards. This quiz covers essential concepts including activated PTT ranges and the proper techniques for intravenous contrast administration. Perfect for anyone studying for the CT certification exam.