Mosby CT Practice Test with Flashcards

Questions and Answers

Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

Corpus luteum

Leiomyoma (correct)

Endometriosis

Cystic teratoma

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Maxillary sinus

Frontal sinus

Sphenoid sinus

Ethmoid sinus (correct)

The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is:

3 mm (correct)

7 mm

5 mm

10 mm

Which number on the figure corresponds to the zygomatic bone?

2 Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

Liver Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following may be included as part of a routine preparation for general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?

1 and 2 only Signup and view all the answers

During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:

Iliac crests to the pubic symphysis Signup and view all the answers

The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for a CT examination of the cervical spine is:

50.0 cm Signup and view all the answers

Number 4 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Cuboid Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the type of image displayed in the figure?

Sagittal multiplanar reformation (MPR) Signup and view all the answers

Number 6 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Navicular Signup and view all the answers

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which of the following?

Talus Signup and view all the answers

Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears ____ on CT images.

Hyperdense Signup and view all the answers

What is the average range for activated PTT?

25-35 seconds Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for intravenous administration of a contrast agent?

15 degrees Signup and view all the answers

What is the flow rate for injecting 125mL of iodinated contrast agent in 50 seconds?

2.5mL/sec Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym CTDI describe?

The radiation dose to the patient during a CT scan Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous contrast agent administration method provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?

Bolus technique Signup and view all the answers

The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?

Corticosteroid Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a non-ionic contrast material?

Iohexol Signup and view all the answers

Which technical factor has a direct effect on patient dose?

mAs Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes a patient who is having difficulty breathing?

Dyspnea Signup and view all the answers

Which device is used to measure the patient dose from a CT examination?

Ionization chamber Signup and view all the answers

What describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable patient consents to medical treatment?

Implied consent Signup and view all the answers

Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

T wave Signup and view all the answers

During CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the?

Joint space Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM)?

Iodixanol Signup and view all the answers

What is a common site for IV administration of iodinated contrast media?

Antecubital space Signup and view all the answers

What is the condition called when there is a decline in renal function following IV administration of contrast material?

CIN (Contrast Induced Nephrotoxicity) Signup and view all the answers

What is the quantity of absorbed radiation dose based on the radiosensitivity of a particular tissue type called?

Effective dose Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT examination?

Sublingual nitroglycerine Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in an adult?

60-90 mm Hg Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

Intramuscular Signup and view all the answers

Radiation exposure and its potentially harmful effects have a relationship that is termed ______.

Stochastic Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?

Enteric precautions Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media (RCM)?

Iothalamate meglumine Signup and view all the answers

What is the radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening called?

CTDIw Signup and view all the answers

Which unit is used to express the total patient dose from a helically acquired CT examination?

mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter) Signup and view all the answers

Number 1 on the figure corresponds to which structure?

Left pulmonary artery Signup and view all the answers

Which number on the figure corresponds to the superior vena cava?

4 Signup and view all the answers

The abnormal density located in the posterior portion of the left lung field with an average attenuation value of +5.0 Hounsfield units most likely represents what?

Pleural effusion Signup and view all the answers

What is the average attenuation value for simple cysts of the kidney?

0 to +20 Hounsfield units Signup and view all the answers

After initiation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast enhancement occurs at approximately what time?

25-35 seconds Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following corresponds to number 2 on the figure?

Left internal carotid artery Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following corresponds to number 5 on the figure?

Right internal jugular vein Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following corresponds to number 1 on the figure?

Epiglottis Signup and view all the answers

At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate?

L4 Signup and view all the answers

During the R-R interval on an ECG, at which percentage is the heart muscle in diastole?

55%-75% Signup and view all the answers

What is the accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc called?

Oxygen saturation point Signup and view all the answers

Which CT study of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

CT of brain to R/O subdural hematoma Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder?

Excretory Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 5 on the figure?

Stomach Signup and view all the answers

Which positioning likely describes the patient position for demonstrating anatomical relationships?

Left lateral decubitus Signup and view all the answers

During CT examinations of the abdomen, which anatomical structures are often analyzed?

Duodenum and pancreatic head Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 3 on the figure?

Right ureter Signup and view all the answers

Which section width and spacing would be most suitable for a general survey CT of the neck?

3 mm thick every 3 mm Signup and view all the answers

What is the still viable ischemic cerebral tissue surrounding the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke called?

Ischemic penumbra Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following carpal bones are complex fractures most common?

Scaphoid Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended approach for a complex CT study of the orbits?

2.5 mm x 2.5 mm axial and coronal sections Signup and view all the answers

High resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is most commonly used for the evaluation of the?

Lungs Signup and view all the answers

Which technical maneuver may be used to remove unwanted pulsation artifacts from cardiac motion during a CTA of the chest for pulmonary embolism?

Retrospective ECG gating Signup and view all the answers

What is the range of flow rate that should be used for intravenous contrast agent during a general CT examination of the abdomen?

1.0-3.0 mL/sec Signup and view all the answers

Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as what?

Steatosis Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to the low attenuation area indicated by number 3 on the figure?

Renal pyramid Signup and view all the answers

In which renal enhancement phase was the data for this reformatted image of the abdomen most likely acquired?

Corticomedullary Signup and view all the answers

What does number 2 on the figure correspond to?

Adrenal gland Signup and view all the answers

What does number 6 on the figure correspond to?

Psoas muscle Signup and view all the answers

CT images of the chest should be acquired when the patient is:

At full inspiration Signup and view all the answers

During CT scanning of the head, the gantry should be angled how?

15 degrees above the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML) Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating the larynx during CT examination, the patient is often instructed to phonate which letter?

E Signup and view all the answers

What does number 2 correspond to?

Cochlea Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 4 on the figure?

Carotid canal Signup and view all the answers

Which display field of view (DFOV) value was most likely used to display the image?

9.6 cm Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 3 on the figure?

Vestibule Signup and view all the answers

During a CT examination of a female pelvis for a suspected malignancy, where may ascites be present?

The cul-de-sac Signup and view all the answers

What pathologic process may be considered an interstitial disease of the lungs?

Bronchiectasis Signup and view all the answers

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the?

Bladder Signup and view all the answers

What process may the patient undergo prior to a CT colonography for bowel cleansing?

Catharsis Signup and view all the answers

The imaging plane that is parallel to the foot's plantar surface is called the?

Axial plane Signup and view all the answers

The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the legs due to poor circulation is called?

Claudication Signup and view all the answers

Which pathologic process indicated by number 3 on the figure most likely corresponds to?

Ground-glass opacity Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 1 on the figure?

Ascending aorta Signup and view all the answers

This HRCT image of the chest was most likely acquired with a section width of:

1 mm Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 2 on the figure?

Anterior segment of the left upper lobe bronchus Signup and view all the answers

In which imaging plane is the pituitary gland best demonstrated during CT?

Coronal plane Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common site of organ injury due to blunt abdominal trauma?

Spleen Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 7 on the figure?

Pancreatic head Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 2 on the figure?

Superior mesenteric vein Signup and view all the answers

Which structure corresponds to number 8 on the figure?

Ascending colon Signup and view all the answers

At what vertebral level does the adult spinal cord end?

L1-L2 Signup and view all the answers

Which protocol would provide the best image quality for a 3D disarticulation study of the hip?

1.5 mm X 1.0 mm sections, bone algorithm Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Activated PTT Range

Activated PTT average range is 25-35 seconds.

Butterfly Needle Insertion Angle

Correct angle for butterfly needle insertion is 15 degrees.

Contrast Agent Flow Rate

Flow rate for administering 125mL iodinated contrast in 50 seconds is 2.5 mL/sec.

CTDI Definition

CTDI (Computed Tomography Dose Index) represents the radiation dose to a patient during a CT scan.

Patient History for Contrast Injection

Important topics to include: prior allergic reactions to contrast media, history of asthma, exclusion of conditions like HIV or hepatitis.

Factors Affecting GFR

A patient's calculated GFR can be affected by age, sex, and race.

Best Administration Technique for Contrast Agents

The bolus technique provides the highest overall plasma iodine concentration.

Symptoms of Shock

Patients in shock may show tachycardia, rapid shallow breathing, and cyanosis.

SOLU-CORTEF Classification

The drug SOLU-CORTEF is classified as a corticosteroid.

Non-Ionic Contrast Material

Iohexol is identified as a non-ionic contrast material.

Patient Dose Technical Factor

mAs (milliampere-seconds) has a direct effect on patient dosage in imaging.

Difficulty Breathing Term

Dyspnea describes a condition where a patient experiences difficulty breathing.

Patient Dose Measuring Device

An ionization chamber is used to measure patient dose in CT exams.

Implied consent is assumed for patients who are unconscious and unable to consent to treatment.

Electrocardiogram Phase

Complete cardiac diastole coincides with the T wave section of an ECG.

CT Arthrography Contrast Injection Site

Iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the joint space during CT arthrography.

Iso-Osmolar Contrast Media

Iodixanol is one of the iso-osmolar contrast media (IOCM).

Common IV Contrast Administration Site

The antecubital space is frequently used for IV administration of iodinated contrast media.

Contrast Induced Nephrotoxicity

CIN refers to the decline in renal function following the intravenous administration of contrast material.

Effective Dose Definition

The effective dose is defined as a quantity based on the radiosensitivity of specific tissue types.

Benefits of Saline Flush After Contrast

Saline flush benefits include reduced contrast agent dose, lower incidence of CIN, and decreased streaking artifact.

Medications Before Cardiac CT

Sublingual nitroglycerine may be administered to dilate coronary vasculature before a cardiac CT.

Normal Diastolic Blood Pressure Range

Normal diastolic blood pressure for adults is between 60-90 mm Hg.

Parenteral Medication Administration Route

Intramuscular is one of the parenteral routes for medication administration.

Reducing Pediatric Radiation Dose

Radiation dose reduction methods for pediatric CT include reducing mA, limiting acquisition phases, and increasing pitch.

Radiation Exposure Relationship Type

The term for the relationship between radiation exposure and its harmful effects is stochastic.

Isolation Technique for Fecal Transmission

Enteric precautions protect against infections transmitted through fecal material.

Ionic Radiopaque Contrast Material

Iothalamate meglumine is considered an ionic radiopaque contrast medium.

Radiation Dose Index

CTDIw is the calculated radiation dose index accounting for variations in absorption due to beam hardening.

Direct Contraindications for Contrast Material

Direct contraindications for iodinated contrast material include prior life-threatening reactions.

Total Patient Dose Unit from CT

Total patient dose from a helically acquired CT is expressed in mGy-cm (milligrays per centimeter).

CT Stroke Management Protocol Components

A comprehensive CT stroke management protocol includes pre-contrast brain sequences, CTA of brain and carotids, and CT perfusion.

Imaging Planes

Coronal plane best demonstrates the pituitary gland during CT.

Organs Commonly Injured from Blunt Trauma

The spleen is the most frequently injured organ due to blunt abdominal trauma.

Abnormal Communication in Fistula

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the bladder.

Bowel Cleansing for CT Colonography

Patients may undergo catharsis for bowel cleansing prior to a CT colonography.

Imaging Plane Parallel to Plantar Surface

The axial plane is defined as parallel to the plantar surface of the foot.

Condition from Poor Circulation

Claudication is characterized by cramping pain in the legs due to inadequate circulation.

Ground-Glass Opacity

Ground-glass opacity corresponds to a specific pathologic process observed in imaging.

Renal Pyramid Feature in CT

Number 3 in an imaging figure likely identifies areas corresponding to the renal pyramid.

Renal Enhancement Phase for TCC

The excretory phase best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the bladder.

Recommended Section Width for HRCT Study

A 3mm section width is optimal for high-resolution CT of the paranasal sinuses.

Significant Condition of Diffuse Fatty Liver

Steatosis is referred to as diffuse fatty infiltration of the liver parenchyma.

Spinal Cord Termination Level

The adult spinal cord ends at the vertebral level L1-L2.

Complex CT Study Requirement

A complex CT study for the orbits should include 2.5mm x 2.5mm axial and coronal sections.

Best Evaluation of Lung Pathology

High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is newly preferred for lung evaluations due to its detail.

Maneuvre to Remove Cardiac Motion Artifacts

Retrospective ECG gating is utilized during cardiac CT angiography to mitigate motion artifacts.

IV Contrast Flow Rate for General CT

Typical flow rate for intravenous contrast during a general CT abdomen exam is 1.0-3.0 mL/sec.

Standard Preparation for Abdomen and Pelvis CT

Routine preparations for a contrast-enhanced CT include NPO status for 4 hours and administering oral contrast 90 minutes prior.

CT Scan Field of View for Cervical Spine

The recommended scan field of view (SFOV) for cervical spine CT exam is 50.0 cm.

Patient Positioning for Lumbar Spine CT

Knees flexed over a cushion can aid in decreasing lumbar spine curvature and comfort during CT.

CT Examination Plan for Female Pelvis

Ascites during CT examination of the female pelvis is most notably checked in the cul-de-sac area.### Cuboid
The cuboid is a bone in the foot, specifically part of the tarsal bones.
It is often depicted in anatomical figures for identification and is commonly confused with adjacent bones.

Identification Questions

Number 4 in anatomical figures often corresponds to the cuboid, but can also be confused with the navicular, calcaneus, or talus.

Sagittal Multiplanar Reformation (MPR)

A specific image type in radiology that allows visualization of anatomy in the sagittal plane.
The use of MPR is crucial for accurately interpreting anatomical relationships in imaging studies.

Navicular

Identified in anatomical figures as number 6, the navicular is another important tarsal bone.
Frequently confused with the cuboid and other tarsal bones like calcaneus and talus.

Talus

The talus is often shown as number 1 in anatomical figures, serving as a crucial bone connecting the leg to the foot.
Works with the calcaneus, navicular, and other tarsal bones to facilitate foot movement.

Hyperdense

The thyroid gland appears hyperdense on CT images due to its iodine concentration.
Understanding the density characteristics is important for interpreting imaging results, distinguishing between hypodense, isodense, hyperdense, and mottled appearances.

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Description

Test your knowledge with Mosby's CT Exam Review Practice Test 1 flashcards. This quiz covers essential concepts including activated PTT ranges and the proper techniques for intravenous contrast administration. Perfect for anyone studying for the CT certification exam.