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Questions and Answers
Molecular cloning is used to construct recombinant ______ molecules.
Molecular cloning is used to construct recombinant ______ molecules.
DNA
The original PCR-restriction-ligation based cloning methods are still widely used for ______-scale investigations.
The original PCR-restriction-ligation based cloning methods are still widely used for ______-scale investigations.
small
E. coli is typically the host organism used for maintaining ______ DNA.
E. coli is typically the host organism used for maintaining ______ DNA.
foreign
A popular choice for cloning vectors when the DNA is relatively small is a ______-based cloning vector.
A popular choice for cloning vectors when the DNA is relatively small is a ______-based cloning vector.
Cloning vectors include a selectable ______ to allow positive selection of transformants.
Cloning vectors include a selectable ______ to allow positive selection of transformants.
Molecular cloning has applications in the production of recombinant protein products such as ______.
Molecular cloning has applications in the production of recombinant protein products such as ______.
The final application of the cloning vector can involve protein ______ and purification.
The final application of the cloning vector can involve protein ______ and purification.
Elements necessary for propagation and maintenance are required for plasmid ______ in E. coli.
Elements necessary for propagation and maintenance are required for plasmid ______ in E. coli.
A common technique to insert a PCR product into a cloning vector is to use restriction ______ to linearise the vector.
A common technique to insert a PCR product into a cloning vector is to use restriction ______ to linearise the vector.
PCR is widely used in molecular cloning to amplify the target ______ from the chosen organism.
PCR is widely used in molecular cloning to amplify the target ______ from the chosen organism.
If the target DNA is prokaryotic, genomic DNA can be purified from ______ and directly used as a template.
If the target DNA is prokaryotic, genomic DNA can be purified from ______ and directly used as a template.
To create complementary DNA, RNA can be converted using a retroviral enzyme called ______ transcriptase.
To create complementary DNA, RNA can be converted using a retroviral enzyme called ______ transcriptase.
In a typical PCR reaction of 30 cycles, each target sequence can theoretically generate 2^30 copies, which is over ______ billion.
In a typical PCR reaction of 30 cycles, each target sequence can theoretically generate 2^30 copies, which is over ______ billion.
DNA polymerase synthesises new complementary DNA strands in the ______ to 3' direction during the extension step.
DNA polymerase synthesises new complementary DNA strands in the ______ to 3' direction during the extension step.
Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to check the purity and ______ of the PCR product.
Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to check the purity and ______ of the PCR product.
To visualise DNA in the agarose gel, a nucleic acid ______ is used.
To visualise DNA in the agarose gel, a nucleic acid ______ is used.
One commonly used fluorescent dye for staining DNA is ______ Safe.
One commonly used fluorescent dye for staining DNA is ______ Safe.
T4 DNA ligase is used to ligate the compatible sticky ends of the vector and ______ product.
T4 DNA ligase is used to ligate the compatible sticky ends of the vector and ______ product.
The annealing temperature during PCR should not be too ______ nor too high.
The annealing temperature during PCR should not be too ______ nor too high.
Prior to ligation, the vector DNA may be treated with Antarctic ______ to prevent self-ligation.
Prior to ligation, the vector DNA may be treated with Antarctic ______ to prevent self-ligation.
During the primer binding step, the temperature is reduced to ______ - 68°C.
During the primer binding step, the temperature is reduced to ______ - 68°C.
Transformation allows the plasmid to be stably maintained and ______ for further experiments.
Transformation allows the plasmid to be stably maintained and ______ for further experiments.
Samples are loaded into the wells of a polyacrylamide gel under ______, and an electric field is applied across the gel to separate proteins.
Samples are loaded into the wells of a polyacrylamide gel under ______, and an electric field is applied across the gel to separate proteins.
Proteins can either be separated in their native state (native PAGE) or in a ______ state by using a chemical such as sodium dodecyl sulphate.
Proteins can either be separated in their native state (native PAGE) or in a ______ state by using a chemical such as sodium dodecyl sulphate.
SDS is a negatively charged anionic ______ that denatures proteins by destroying their secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure.
SDS is a negatively charged anionic ______ that denatures proteins by destroying their secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure.
In SDS-PAGE, the samples are heated to ______ °C for 5 – 10 min in a loading buffer containing SDS.
In SDS-PAGE, the samples are heated to ______ °C for 5 – 10 min in a loading buffer containing SDS.
The reducing agent disrupts ______ bonds, helping to fully denature the proteins in the samples.
The reducing agent disrupts ______ bonds, helping to fully denature the proteins in the samples.
Coomassie Brilliant Blue R-250 is a negatively charged dye commonly used to ______ proteins in a gel following PAGE.
Coomassie Brilliant Blue R-250 is a negatively charged dye commonly used to ______ proteins in a gel following PAGE.
After PAGE, the gel is placed onto a ______ membrane, which has a high affinity for proteins.
After PAGE, the gel is placed onto a ______ membrane, which has a high affinity for proteins.
The membrane is soaked for 1 – 2 hr in Tris-buffered saline containing 0.2% ______ to prevent non-specific binding of detection antibodies.
The membrane is soaked for 1 – 2 hr in Tris-buffered saline containing 0.2% ______ to prevent non-specific binding of detection antibodies.
The primary antibody specifically binds to your ______ of interest during the Western blotting process.
The primary antibody specifically binds to your ______ of interest during the Western blotting process.
The enzyme that generates smaller fragments which stimulate growth of the gland is called ______ Secretory Protease (AsP).
The enzyme that generates smaller fragments which stimulate growth of the gland is called ______ Secretory Protease (AsP).
Disruption of pituitary function can result in rapid atrophy of the ______.
Disruption of pituitary function can result in rapid atrophy of the ______.
The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones including ______ and cortisol.
The adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones including ______ and cortisol.
AsP is produced as a zymogen, which is an ______ precursor.
AsP is produced as a zymogen, which is an ______ precursor.
The activation peptide must be cleaved before the enzyme is ______.
The activation peptide must be cleaved before the enzyme is ______.
As a research scientist, you wish to investigate the substrate ______ and the enzyme kinetics of AsP.
As a research scientist, you wish to investigate the substrate ______ and the enzyme kinetics of AsP.
To achieve both aims you need a source of pure ______
To achieve both aims you need a source of pure ______
You decide to generate recombinant protein by cloning the AsP ______ into a bacterial expression vector.
You decide to generate recombinant protein by cloning the AsP ______ into a bacterial expression vector.
His tags allow rapid purification of the protein by affinity chromatography on an immobilized ______ column.
His tags allow rapid purification of the protein by affinity chromatography on an immobilized ______ column.
The vector pET32A enables high expression levels in ______.
The vector pET32A enables high expression levels in ______.
You will clone the rat adrenal secretory serine protease (AsP) cDNA into the pET32A vector to express a C-terminal ______ fusion protein.
You will clone the rat adrenal secretory serine protease (AsP) cDNA into the pET32A vector to express a C-terminal ______ fusion protein.
Digestion of pET32a with NdeI and ______ will result in the release of two fragments.
Digestion of pET32a with NdeI and ______ will result in the release of two fragments.
Since AsP is a secreted protein, you need to create a construct that does not encode the secretory ______ sequence.
Since AsP is a secreted protein, you need to create a construct that does not encode the secretory ______ sequence.
You need to include an AseI site in the forward primer and a ______ site in the reverse primer sequences.
You need to include an AseI site in the forward primer and a ______ site in the reverse primer sequences.
The STOP codon is removed because you use the STOP codon present on the plasmid after the ______ tag coding sequence.
The STOP codon is removed because you use the STOP codon present on the plasmid after the ______ tag coding sequence.
You will need to check that the AsP cDNA is correctly expressed as a recombinant C-terminal HIS tag ______ protein.
You will need to check that the AsP cDNA is correctly expressed as a recombinant C-terminal HIS tag ______ protein.
You will analyze the proteins using SDS-PAGE and ______ staining.
You will analyze the proteins using SDS-PAGE and ______ staining.
Following IPTG induction, you should see a band at approximately ______ kDa in the induced culture.
Following IPTG induction, you should see a band at approximately ______ kDa in the induced culture.
You check the plasmid correctness by screening transformants using colony ______.
You check the plasmid correctness by screening transformants using colony ______.
The GeneRuler 1kb DNA Ladder mix contains ______ DNA fragments.
The GeneRuler 1kb DNA Ladder mix contains ______ DNA fragments.
The Tris-acetate-EDTA running buffer consists of 0.04 M Tris-acetate; 0.001 M ______.
The Tris-acetate-EDTA running buffer consists of 0.04 M Tris-acetate; 0.001 M ______.
E.coli is not naturally competent, but there are two main methods used to transform E.coli in the laboratory by artificially inducing a temporary state of ______.
E.coli is not naturally competent, but there are two main methods used to transform E.coli in the laboratory by artificially inducing a temporary state of ______.
In chemical transformation, E.coli cells are treated with divalent cations, typically Ca2+ in the form of calcium ______.
In chemical transformation, E.coli cells are treated with divalent cations, typically Ca2+ in the form of calcium ______.
During chemical transformation, E.coli cells are subjected to a temporary heat shock at typically ______°C for 30 sec.
During chemical transformation, E.coli cells are subjected to a temporary heat shock at typically ______°C for 30 sec.
Electroporation punctures tiny holes in the cell membrane using a temporary ______ field.
Electroporation punctures tiny holes in the cell membrane using a temporary ______ field.
Cells that do not take up a plasmid with a selectable marker cannot survive on selective ______.
Cells that do not take up a plasmid with a selectable marker cannot survive on selective ______.
When an E.coli cell takes up a plasmid, the plasmid replicates within the cell ______.
When an E.coli cell takes up a plasmid, the plasmid replicates within the cell ______.
Bacteria that have successfully taken up exogenous DNA are referred to as ______.
Bacteria that have successfully taken up exogenous DNA are referred to as ______.
Colony PCR can be used to screen transformants for the presence or absence of a foreign DNA ______.
Colony PCR can be used to screen transformants for the presence or absence of a foreign DNA ______.
It is possible to use colony PCR to check the ______ of the insert within the MCS.
It is possible to use colony PCR to check the ______ of the insert within the MCS.
Plasmid DNA can be purified from a sample of each culture using ______ kits.
Plasmid DNA can be purified from a sample of each culture using ______ kits.
If you have successfully cloned a gene of interest into an expression ______, you can transfer your construct into a host strain.
If you have successfully cloned a gene of interest into an expression ______, you can transfer your construct into a host strain.
The presence of the inducer Isopropyl β-D-1-thiogalactopyranoside (IPTG) enables T7 polymerase to transcribe the recombinant ______.
The presence of the inducer Isopropyl β-D-1-thiogalactopyranoside (IPTG) enables T7 polymerase to transcribe the recombinant ______.
A common method to detect recombinant proteins is through ______, which separates proteins based on their electrophoretic mobility.
A common method to detect recombinant proteins is through ______, which separates proteins based on their electrophoretic mobility.
Acrylamide is highly toxic to humans in powder form, so pre-cast ______ gels are often used for safety reasons.
Acrylamide is highly toxic to humans in powder form, so pre-cast ______ gels are often used for safety reasons.
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Study Notes
Molecular Cloning
- Molecular cloning involves constructing recombinant DNA molecules for replication in host organisms.
- Traditional methods like PCR-restriction-ligation are used for small-scale cloning, while ligation-free methods are favored for larger projects such as cDNA libraries.
- Applications include protein expression, recombinant protein production (e.g., insulin, growth hormone), vaccines, and genetically modified organisms.
Cloning Vectors
- Integrating foreign DNA into suitable cloning vectors is essential for molecular cloning.
- Factors in selecting a cloning vector include foreign DNA size, host organism (commonly E. coli), and intended application.
- Plasmid vectors are often used for small foreign DNA, featuring:
- A cloning site (Multiple Cloning Site or MCS).
- A selectable marker (e.g., antibiotic resistance gene).
- Elements for propagation (e.g., origin of replication).
- Vectors may also contain expression elements (promoters) and reporter genes (e.g., LacZα, GFP).
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
- PCR is crucial for amplifying target DNA, especially from eukaryotic organisms where introns must be removed.
- Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized from RNA using reverse transcriptase to allow PCR amplification.
- PCR typically uses a ready-to-use formulation called PCR Master Mix, consisting of DNA polymerase, dNTPs, MgCl2, and buffer.
- A PCR cycle includes:
- Denaturation (94-98°C): Separates DNA strands.
- Annealing (48-68°C): Primers bind to target sequences.
- Extension (72°C): DNA polymerase synthesizes complementary DNA.
- Theoretical exponential amplification can generate billions of DNA copies in standard cycles.
- Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to check PCR product size and purity.
Restriction Endonucleases and Ligation
- Restriction endonucleases linearize cloning vectors and create compatible ends for the insert DNA.
- T4 DNA ligase joins sticky or blunt ends to form a new vector construct.
- To prevent self-ligation, Antarctic phosphatase (AnP) dephosphorylates vector DNA ends.
Transformation of Competent E. coli
- Transformation introduces the cloned construct into E. coli for maintenance and propagation.
- E. coli is made competent via:
- Chemical transformation using CaCl2 and heat shock.
- Electroporation using electric fields to facilitate DNA uptake.
- Transformants are selected on antibiotic-containing media.
Screening Transformants
- Not all transformants carry the correct construct; screening is essential.
- Colony PCR can identify the presence of foreign DNA inserts and their orientation.
- Plasmid DNA is purified for confirmation through restriction mapping or sequencing.
Expression of Recombinant Proteins
- Cloning a gene of interest into an expression vector allows protein expression in a suitable host strain.
- For instance, the T7 expression system in E. coli utilizes T7 promoter and lac operon components.
- Protein expression can be either constitutive or regulated based on the expression vector.
Detection of Recombinant Proteins
- Proteins are detected using methods like SDS-PAGE and Western blotting.
- SDS-PAGE involves denaturing proteins using SDS to ensure uniform charge-to-mass ratios for size-based separation.
- After gel electrophoresis, proteins are transferred to membranes for detection with specific antibodies and visualized via various methods (e.g., chemiluminescence).
Adrenal Glands and AsP Research
- Adrenal glands produce hormones such as adrenaline, noradrenaline, cortisol, and aldosterone, essential for stress response.
- The adrenal cortex is regulated by anterior pituitary hormones, which also maintain gland size.
- N-POMC is a peptide important for adrenal growth, cleaved at the gland to produce active fragments by Adrenal Secretory Protease (AsP).
- AsP is a 279 amino acid serine protease produced as a zymogen with a 22 residue signal sequence and a 25 residue activation peptide.
- The study aims to explore the substrate specificity and enzyme kinetics of AsP.### Recombinant Protein Production Strategy
- Aim to produce pure AsP enzyme through recombinant protein expression.
- Cloning AsP cDNA into a bacterial expression vector, avoiding purification from tissue samples.
Fusion Protein and His Tag
- Creation of a fusion protein by adding a His tag to the C-terminal of AsP.
- His tags facilitate detection with commercial antibodies and allow for efficient purification via affinity chromatography on immobilized nickel columns.
Expression Vector Choice
- Selection of pET32A vector for high expression levels in E. coli.
- pET32A also includes a thioredoxin tag for N-terminal fusion, though the construct designed excludes this.
Cloning Strategy
- Restriction enzyme digestion and ligation are used to clone AsP cDNA into pET32A.
- NdeI and XhoI chosen for vector linearization, enabling cloning while maintaining the His tag sequence.
Construct Design for E. coli
- AsP gene will be expressed without the secretory signal sequence; necessary ATG (start codon) added at the N-terminal.
- Confirm no XhoI sites in AsP cDNA, with one NdeI site located between positions 531-536.
Alternative Restriction Enzyme
- AseI recognized for producing compatible ends with NdeI, ensuring no AseI sites present within the AsP sequence.
Primer Design
- Forward primer includes AseI site, reverse primer includes XhoI site.
- Reverse primer lacks the AsP stop codon for correct termination post-His tag translation.
Verification Process
- Colony PCR screening for correctly cloned plasmid using designed primers.
- Confirmation through restriction enzyme digestion to verify proper insertion of AsP cDNA.
Protein Induction and Visualization
- Transfer recombinant plasmid to E. coli BL21(DE3) cells and induce with IPTG.
- Separation and visualization of proteins via SDS-PAGE, expecting a band at approximately 29 kDa for successfully expressed AsP fusion protein.
Electrophoresis Buffers and Reagents
- TAE running buffer (0.04 M Tris-acetate, 0.001 M EDTA, pH 8.0) used for DNA gel electrophoresis.
- 1x SDS running buffer contains 25 mM Tris, 192 mM glycine, 0.1% SDS, pH 8.3.
- InstantBlue® Coomassie Protein Stain employed for visualizing proteins in SDS-PAGE.
Protein Standards
- Bio Rad Precision Plus Protein Dual Colour Standard used as a reference for protein molecular weight estimation.
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