Antepartum Care

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Questions and Answers

During a routine prenatal examination, a client who is at 32 weeks gestation becomes dizzy, lightheaded, and pale. After placing the client in a supine position, what is the priority nursing action?

  • Ask the client to breathe deeply
  • Turn the client on her left side (correct)
  • Listen to fetal heart tones
  • Take the client's blood pressure

A nurse is assessing a client at 33-weeks' gestation. Leopold's maneuvers indicate that the fetus is in a breech position. Where can fetal heart tones best be heard?

  • Right lower quadrant of the abdomen
  • Midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
  • Above the level of the umbilicus (correct)
  • Right upper quadrant of the abdomen

In twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome, one fetus is considered the donor twin, and one becomes the recipient twin. What condition would an assessment of the recipient twin likely reveal?

  • Anemia
  • Oligohydramnios
  • Polycythemia (correct)
  • Small fetus

A client who reports painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with placenta previa. The placental edge reaches the internal os. Which type of placenta previa should the nurse suspect?

<p>Marginal placenta previa (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure or treatment should the nurse anticipate for a client with a placenta implanted in the lower uterine segment?

<p>A vaginal ultrasound examination every two to three weeks (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is teaching a client with painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks' gestation who has just been diagnosed with placenta previa. The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the client states:

<p>“I need to limit my activity and rest.” (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is teaching a client who has developed placenta accreta and a history of placenta previa. Which explanation of this condition would be the most correct?

<p>The placenta attaches to the myometrium. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is caring for a client suspected of having a hydatidiform mole. Which signs and symptoms confirm this diagnosis? Select all that apply.

<p>Snowstorm pattern on an ultrasound with no fetus or gestational sac (D), Maternal hypertension early in the second trimester. (@)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 21-year-old client who has just been diagnosed with having a hydatidiform mole asks the nurse about risk factors. What is the nurse's best response?

<p>“Having a previous molar gestation” (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 21-year-old client arrives at the emergency department with a report of cramping, abdominal pain, and mild vaginal bleeding. A pelvic examination shows a left adnexal mass that is tender when palpated. Culdocentesis shows blood in the cul-de-sac. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

<p>Ectopic pregnancy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse assesses a client at 34 weeks' gestation who has arrived at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and increased uterine tone. The client denies vaginal bleeding. The external fetal monitor shows fetal distress with severe, variable decelerations. Which condition does this client mostly likely have?

<p>Abruptio placentae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a routine visit to the clinic, a client tells the nurse that she may be pregnant. The health care provider orders a pregnancy test. Which indicator would most accurately confirm this client's pregnancy?

<p>Increase in human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client in her second trimester. The nurse understands that this client's respiratory status should show:

<p>increased tidal volume. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is scheduled for amniocentesis. What priority intervention should the nurse implement?

<p>Have the client void (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is taking an initial history on a pregnant client, who asks about the chances of having dizygotic twins. The nurse correctly states:

<p>“There's an increased risk with increased maternal age.” (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client in her fifth month of pregnancy is having a routine clinic visit. Which common condition would the nurse asses for in the client's second trimester?

<p>Physiologic anemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 21-year-old client at six weeks' gestation is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse understands that this client is most at risk of developing:

<p>electrolyte imbalance. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 29-year-old client has gestational diabetes. The nurse is teaching her about managing glucose levels. Which therapy would be most appropriate for this client?

<p>Diet (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client who is pregnant has developed preeclampsia. She asks the nurse why magnesium sulfate has been prescribed for her. What is the nurse's best response?

<p>“It prevents seizures.” (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While assessing a client in her 24th week of pregnancy, the nurse learns that the client has been experiencing signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension, or preeclampsia. Which sign or symptom helps differentiate preeclampsia from eclampsia?

<p>Seizures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant client has a negative contraction stress test (CST). How does the nurse interpret this result?

<p>Fetal heart rate (FHR) variability, and no decelerations from contraction in a 10-minute period in which there were three contractions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant client with sickle cell anemia has an increased risk for having a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy. The nurse anticipates that aggressive management of a sickle cell crisis would include:

<p>IV fluids. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is performing a cardiac assessment on a pregnant client. Which finding would the nurse recognize as normal?

<p>Systolic murmur (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 42-year-old client presents for her first prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She has severe morning sickness and no fetal heart tones. Her blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. Her fundal height is 24 cm. Which condition is most likely indicated by these symptoms?

<p>Hydatidiform mole (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with gestational hypertension is receiving magnesium sulfate to prevent seizure activity. The nurse reviews the client's magnesium level and identifies a therapeutic level as:

<p>4 to 7 mEq/L. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is receiving IV magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which is the priority assessment for this client?

<p>Decreased urine output (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is planning care for a client receiving IV magnesium sulfate for hypertension. Which medication should the nurse have available for an emergency?

<p>Calcium gluconate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is screened for tuberculosis during her first prenatal visit. An intradermal injection of purified protein derivative (PPD) of the tuberculin bacilli is administered by the nurse. This client is considered to have a positive test when:

<p>an indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 23-year-old client who is at 27 weeks' gestation arrives at her health care provider's office with reports of fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, unilateral flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness. Which diagnosis is most likely?

<p>Pyelonephritis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clients with which condition would be appropriate for trial of labor after cesarean section (TOLAC), after a prior cesarean birth?

<p>Premature rupture of membranes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is teaching a client who received a dose of Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation to prevent Rh isoimmunization. Which statement most accurately describes isoimmunization?

<p>Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is administering Rho(D) immune globulin to a pregnant client at 28 weeks' gestation. Which dose would be appropriate for this client?

<p>300 mcg in an unsensitized client (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client hospitalized for preterm labor tells the nurse that she's having occasional contractions. Which nursing intervention would be the most appropriate?

<p>Encourage the client to empty her bladder, give IV fluids, and encourage oral fluids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client's prenatal history shows her to be a 23-year-old gravida 4, para 2. The nurse correctly interprets this history when she states:

<p>“This client has been pregnant four times, and has had two children born after 20 weeks' gestation.” (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is planning the care of a pregnant client. Which condition would require more frequent office visits?

<p>A history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To detect life-threatening complications as early as in a client receiving a tocolytic agent, the nurse should be alert for:

<p>bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client has been in early labor, with contractions ever 10 to 12 minutes, for the past 12 hours with no progression. What medication should the nurse anticipate to help stimulate this client's uterine contractions?

<p>Oxytocin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client asks the nurse when maternal and fetal blood are exchanged during a pregnancy. What is the nurse's most accurate response?

<p>Maternal and fetal blood are never exchanged (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant client asks the nurse why she should lie on her left side when resting or sleeping in the later stages of pregnancy. What is the best response by the nurse?

<p>To prevent compression of the inferior vena cava (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant client voices concerns about her perceived lack of fetal movement. How should the nurse best respond to this client?

<p>“Lie down once a day, and count the number of fetal movements for 15 to 30 minutes.” (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant client reports swelling in her feet and ankles. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to recommend?

<p>Sit and elevate the feet (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intervention should a nurse recommend to a client who has severe heartburn during her pregnancy?

<p>Eat several small meals daily (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which maternal complication is most commonly associated with obesity in pregnancy?

<p>Preeclampsia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nonstress test (NST) is ordered for a client with preeclampsia. The nurse is aware that this test will be performed to assess:

<p>fetal well-being. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is checking the blood sugar level of a client who is at 33-weeks' gestation. This client has had type 1 diabetes since she was 12 years old. Which value would indicate to the nurse that this client's disease is controlled?

<p>85 mg/dl (4.7 mmol/L) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with diabetes who is late in her third trimester has a fetal non-stress test (NST) twice weekly. The 20-minute test showed three fetal heart rate accelerations that exceeded the baseline by 15 beats/min, and that lasted longer than 15 seconds. How should the nurse interpret these NST results?

<p>Reactive test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client is diagnosed with preterm labor at 28 weeks' gestation. At 32 weeks, this client comes to the emergency department saying, “I think I'm in labor.” Which should the nurse expect during this client's physical examination?

<p>Regular uterine contractions with cervical dilation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is teaching a client, who, at 18 weeks' gestation, reports a fluttering sensation in her abdomen. The nurse's teaching has been successful when the client states:

<p>“This is my baby moving.” (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A pregnant client is visiting the clinic and reports tiny, blanched, slightly raised-end arterioles on her face, neck, arms, and chest. The nurse explains that these are normal during pregnancy and referred to as:

<p>telangiectasias. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which nursing intervention is priority for a pregnant adolescent during her first trimester?

<p>Refer the client to a dietitian for nutritional counseling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is discussing a healthy diet with a prima gravida client. The client states that she doesn't consume much milk or other dairy, even though she knows they are important. What advice should the nurse give this client?

<p>“You should consume other non-dairy foods that are high in calcium.” (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug should a nurse choose as an antagonist for magnesium sulfate?

<p>Calcium gluconate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse receives an order to start an infusion of blood for a client who is hemorrhaging due to a placenta previa. Which equipment will the nurse need to initiate the infusion? Select all that apply.

<p>Y tubing (A), 18-gauge catheter (B), Normal saline solution (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a normal pregnancy. Which assessment would the nurse find in a normal pregnancy?

<p>A 2-breath/min increase in respiratory rate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is teaching a student nurse about the GTPAL system. GTPAL documents a client's previous pregnancies. Which statement most accurately describes this system?

<p>Term neonates, Preterm neonates, Abortions, and Living children (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is reviewing the glucose tolerance test results of a client who is at 26 weeks' gestation. The nurse determines further intervention is necessary when the results identify:

<p>a two-hour glucose level of 180 mg/dl (10.0 mmol/L) during a three-hour glucose tolerance test. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old woman is at 15 weeks' gestation when she's admitted to the labor unit. According to the GTPAL system, she is a G5 P1212. Which description best describes this client?

<p>Total of five pregnancies, one full-term pregnancy, two pre-term pregnancies, one abortion, and two living children (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse is assessing a 32-year-old woman who is 15 weeks' gestation and has a history of hypertension. The nurse is aware that the client is most at risk for:

<p>abruptio placentae. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old client has her first prenatal visit at 15 weeks' gestation. Her pre-pregnancy weight was 135 lb (61.2 kg). Which finding is abnormal during this visit?

<p>Fundal height of 18 cm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old primiparous client arrives for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks' gestation. She seems nervous and has many questions. What is the most important intervention by the nurse?

<p>Reassure the client that all her questions will be answered during the visit (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Accompanied by her father, a primiparous 15-year-old client arrives for her first prenatal visit at 30 weeks' gestation. Her father refuses to leave the room. He tells the nurse that the girl is shy, and that he will answer the questions for her. What should concern the nurse the most about this situation?

<p>Possible child abuse or domestic violence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best way for a nurse to determine if a pregnant client is the victim of domestic abuse or violence?

<p>Interview the client alone in a nonjudgmental way (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with gestational hypertension is experiencing abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Which assessment should the nurse perform first?

<p>Fetal heart tones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to find in client, during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy? Select all that apply.

<p>Ankle edema (A), Shortness of breath (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client with mild preeclampsia is being prepared for discharge from the hospital. The client understands the discharge instructions when she states:

<p>“I will lie on my left side.” (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The nurse describes the cardinal mechanisms of labor while teaching an antepartum client about the passage of the fetus through the birth canal during labor. Select the events that are in the proper sequence as they would occur.

<ol> <li>Descent</li> <li>Flexion</li> <li>Internal rotation</li> <li>Extension</li> <li>External rotation</li> <li>Expulsion (B)</li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is palpating the uterus of a client who is at 20 weeks' gestation to measure fundal height. Identify the area of the abdomen where the nurse should expect to feel the uterine fundus.

<p>should be at about the umbilicus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is the initial nursing action when a pregnant client becomes dizzy and lightheaded in the supine position at 32 weeks gestation?

Placing a pregnant client in a supine position can compress the inferior vena cava, leading to decreased blood flow to the fetus and maternal hypotension. Turning the client onto her left side alleviates pressure on the vena cava and improves blood flow.

Where are fetal heart tones best heard in a breech presentation?

In a breech presentation, the fetal heart tones are typically heard above the level of the umbilicus, as the baby's bottom is positioned lower in the uterus.

What is a common finding in the recipient twin of TTTS?

Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) occurs when blood vessels connect the placentas of twins. The recipient twin receives more blood and nutrients, which can lead to polycythemia (high red blood cell count).

What type of placenta previa is suspected when the placental edge reaches the internal os?

Marginal placenta previa occurs when the placental edge reaches the internal os, but does not cover it. This type of placenta previa can often resolve on its own during pregnancy.

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What procedure is performed regularly for a client with placenta previa?

Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment. This can pose a risk of bleeding during pregnancy and delivery. Regular ultrasounds are performed to monitor the position of the placenta and assess for any changes.

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What advice should the nurse give to a client with placenta previa?

Placenta previa, especially marginal, often requires careful monitoring and limited activity. Rest is essential to reduce the risk of bleeding.

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What is the key difference between placenta previa and placenta accreta?

Placenta accreta is a serious condition in which the placenta attaches deeper into the uterine wall, even reaching the myometrium. This often occurs in conjunction with a history of placenta previa.

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What are the characteristic signs of a hydatidiform mole?

Hydatidiform mole, also known as molar pregnancy, is a rare condition in which abnormal tissue grows inside the uterus instead of a fetus. It's characterized by a distinctive appearance on ultrasound, with no fetal heart tones or gestational sac.

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What is a significant risk factor for developing a hydatidiform mole?

A previous molar gestation increases the risk of developing another hydatidiform mole. This is important to discuss with a client concerned about risk factors.

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What condition is suspected when a client presents with cramping, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding, and culdocentesis shows blood in the cul-de-sac?

Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition where a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube. Symptoms include cramping, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. Culdocentesis, a procedure to check for blood in the pelvic cavity, can confirm the diagnosis.

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What condition is suspected when a client presents with severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and fetal distress?

Abruptio placentae is a serious condition where the placenta prematurely detaches from the uterine wall. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, increased uterine tone, and fetal distress.

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What indicator would most accurately confirm pregnancy?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. Its presence in a woman's urine or blood confirms pregnancy.

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What change in respiratory status is expected in a pregnant client in her second trimester?

During the second trimester, a woman's tidal volume (the amount of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath) increases, leading to improved oxygenation.

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What is a priority pre-procedure nursing intervention for a client scheduled for amniocentesis?

Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty her bladder to reduce the risk of puncture. A full bladder can displace the uterus and make the procedure more challenging.

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What is one factor that can increase the risk of having dizygotic twins?

Dizygotic twins are fraternal twins. Increased maternal age is one of the factors that can increase the chances of having dizygotic twins.

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What is a common condition in the second trimester that refers to a decrease in red blood cells?

Physiologic anemia, a common finding in the second trimester, occurs because the plasma volume increases more rapidly than red blood cell production.

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What is a major risk for a client diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum?

Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness that can lead to dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. It is crucial to monitor electrolyte levels and ensure adequate hydration to maintain the client's health.

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What is the most appropriate management strategy for a pregnant client with gestational diabetes?

Gestational diabetes, a type of diabetes that develops during pregnancy, is often manageable with lifestyle changes, including adjustments to diet. It is important to educate clients on how to manage their glucose levels.

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Why is magnesium sulfate prescribed for a pregnant client with preeclampsia?

Magnesium sulfate is a medication commonly prescribed for preeclampsia to prevent seizures, a serious complication that can occur in this condition.

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What differentiates preeclampsia from eclampsia?

Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Eclampsia is distinguished by the presence of seizures, which are absent in preeclampsia.

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How is a negative contraction stress test interpreted?

A negative contraction stress test (CST) is a reassuring result. It indicates that the fetus is tolerating contractions without showing signs of distress, such as heart rate decelerations.

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What is a key aspect of managing a sickle cell crisis during pregnancy?

Sickle cell crises are a serious complication in pregnant clients with sickle cell anemia. Aggressive treatment involves intravenous fluids to improve blood flow and hydration, preventing further complications.

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What cardiac finding is considered normal during pregnancy?

A systolic murmur, a heart sound heard during systole (the heart's contraction phase), is often a normal finding in pregnancy. This is due to increased blood volume circulating through the heart.

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What condition is most likely indicated by severe morning sickness, high blood pressure, and no fetal heart tones in a pregnant client?

Hydatidiform mole is a gestational trophoblastic disease characterized by the growth of abnormal tissue instead of a fetus. This can lead to high blood pressure, severe morning sickness, and lack of fetal heart tones.

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What is the therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for a client with severe preeclampsia?

The therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate in a client receiving it for severe preeclampsia is 4 to 7 mEq/L. This range ensures effectiveness in preventing seizures without reaching toxic levels.

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What is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate?

Magnesium sulfate can cause a decrease in urine output, a sign of potential toxicity. Monitoring urine output is essential in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia.

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What medication should be readily available for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for hypertension?

Calcium gluconate is an antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It is essential to have this medication readily available when caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate for hypertension.

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What indicates a positive tuberculin skin test (TST) in a pregnant client?

A positive tuberculin skin test (TST) is indicated by an indurated wheal (raised, firm area) over 10 mm in diameter appearing 48 to 72 hours after the injection. This suggests previous exposure to tuberculosis.

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What condition is suspected when a pregnant client presents with fever, nausea, vomiting, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness?

Pyelonephritis, a kidney infection, is a common complication during pregnancy. Symptoms include fever, nausea, vomiting, flank pain, and costovertebral angle tenderness.

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What condition is an exception to TOLAC, making it inappropriate?

Trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) is a possible option for clients who have had a prior cesarean birth, if certain criteria are met. Premature rupture of membranes is a common indication for primary cesarean birth, but once the membranes are ruptured, TOLAC is no longer a possibility.

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What is Rh isoimmunization and how is it prevented?

Rh isoimmunization occurs when a pregnant woman who is Rh-negative is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood, triggering her immune system to produce antibodies. This can be prevented by administering Rho(D) immune globulin.

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What is the appropriate dose of Rho(D) immune globulin for an Rh-negative, unsensitized client at 28 weeks gestation?

A pregnant client who is Rh-negative and unsensitized should receive 300 mcg of Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation to prevent Rh isoimmunization.

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What is a hallmark of preterm labor?

Preterm labor is characterized by regular uterine contractions that cause cervical dilation. With preterm labor, the contractions will continue despite interventions.

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What does the obstetric history term 'gravida 4, para 2' indicate?

A client's obstetric history is a summary of her pregnancies, births, and other reproductive events. The term 'gravida' refers to the number of pregnancies, while 'para' refers to the number of births after 20 weeks' gestation.

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What condition requires more frequent prenatal visits?

A client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus requires more frequent prenatal visits to monitor her blood sugar levels and ensure the fetus's well-being. Close monitoring is essential to manage the risks associated with diabetes in pregnancy.

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What life-threatening complication should the nurse be alert for in a client receiving a tocolytic agent?

Tocolytic agents are used to stop preterm labor. It's important to monitor for signs of pulmonary edema, which can be a life-threatening complication of tocolytic therapy.

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What medication is used to stimulate uterine contractions?

Oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, is often used to induce labor or augment labor that is not progressing effectively.

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When does maternal and fetal blood exchange?

Maternal and fetal blood never mix during pregnancy. They are separated by the placental barrier, which allows for nutrient and gas exchange without direct blood contact.

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Why should a pregnant client lie on her left side during the later stages of pregnancy?

Lying on the left side during rest or sleep in later pregnancy helps prevent compression of the inferior vena cava, a major vein that carries blood back to the heart. Compression can reduce blood flow to the fetus and the mother.

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How should a nurse respond to a pregnant client who is concerned about a perceived lack of fetal movement?

It's important to encourage a pregnant client to count fetal movements to monitor fetal well-being. If there is a decrease in movement or a change in pattern, it could indicate a problem.

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What is the most appropriate recommendation for a pregnant client who reports swelling in her feet and ankles?

Swelling in the feet and ankles during pregnancy is common, especially in the later stages. Elevating the feet can help reduce swelling by improving circulation.

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What intervention is recommended for a pregnant client with severe heartburn?

Heartburn, a common complaint in pregnancy, can be alleviated by eating several small meals throughout the day instead of large, infrequent meals.

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What maternal complication is often associated with obesity in pregnancy?

Obesity during pregnancy increases the risk of developing preeclampsia, a serious condition that can lead to complications for both mother and baby.

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What is the purpose of a nonstress test (NST)?

A nonstress test (NST) is used to assess fetal well-being. It monitors the fetal heart rate to detect any signs of distress during pregnancy.

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What blood sugar level indicates good control for a pregnant client with type 1 diabetes?

A blood sugar level of 85 mg/dl (4.7 mmol/L) in a pregnant client with type 1 diabetes indicates good disease control. Maintaining stable blood sugar levels is crucial for both mother and baby.

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How are reactive nonstress test (NST) results interpreted?

A reactive NST shows at least three heart rate accelerations exceeding the baseline by 15 beats/min and lasting longer than 15 seconds. This suggests fetal well-being.

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What is expected during the physical examination of a client in preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation?

A client in preterm labor at 32 weeks' gestation will likely present with regular uterine contractions and cervical dilation. This signifies the onset of labor, despite efforts to prevent it.

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What is the fluttering sensation in a pregnant client's abdomen at 18 weeks gestation?

The fluttering sensation in the abdomen felt by a pregnant client at 18 weeks' gestation is fetal movement. It's a reassuring sign of fetal health.

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What are tiny, blanched, slightly raised arterioles on the face, neck, arms, and chest of a pregnant client?

Telangiectasias, also known as spider veins, are tiny, branched blood vessels that appear as slightly raised red lines or dots. They are a common cosmetic change during pregnancy, usually resolving after delivery.

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What is a priority nursing intervention for a pregnant adolescent during her first trimester?

Providing nutritional counseling to a pregnant adolescent during her first trimester is a priority to ensure that she receives adequate nutrients for her own health and the baby's growth.

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