MMSC 433 Exam 3 Study Notes
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Questions and Answers

Which mutation is specifically mentioned as associated with the presence of prePMF?

  • JAK2 mutation (correct)
  • MPL mutation
  • JAK1 mutation
  • CALR mutation

What is considered a major criterion for diagnosing prePMF related to bone marrow activity?

  • Presence of PDGFRA rearrangement
  • Leukocytosis > 10 x 10^9/L
  • Megakaryocytic proliferation without reticulin fibrosis (correct)
  • Increased basophils

Which of the following indicates leukocytosis as a minor criterion in prePMF?

  • Leukocytes > 11 x 10^9/L (correct)
  • Leukocytes < 10 x 10^9/L
  • Leukocytes < 11 x 10^9/L
  • Leukocytes = 11 x 10^9/L

In the context of WHO criteria for accelerated CML, what is the maximum percentage of basophils allowed?

<p>20% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a criterion for the diagnosis of accelerated CML according to WHO criteria?

<p>Presence of PDGFRA rearrangement (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following options is a minor criterion for diagnosing prePMF?

<p>LDH levels above normal limits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic finding in hypercellular bone marrow for prePMF diagnosis?

<p>Granulocytic proliferation and dysplasia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the diagnosis of prePMF, which condition must be present to meet a major criterion?

<p>Increased age-adjusted BM cellularity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the major criteria for diagnosing overt PMF according to WHO guidelines?

<p>Presence of JAK2, CALR, or MPL mutation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following criteria must be met to diagnose overt PMF?

<p>Reticulin fibrosis of grades 2 or 3 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a diagnosis of ET require regarding minor criteria?

<p>Meeting all 4 major criteria (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered a minor criterion for overt PMF?

<p>Leukoerythroblastosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mutation is NOT associated with a diagnosis of ET under WHO criteria?

<p>BCR-ABL1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following constitutes a treatment for MDS?

<p>Immunosuppressive therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum requirement for a diagnosis of ET concerning blood markers?

<p>Platelet count must exceed 450 x 10^9/L (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a major criterion for overt PMF?

<p>Low platelet count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Philadelphia chromosome associated with in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

<p>Translocation of the ABL proto-oncogene from chromosome 9 to chromosome 22 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which subtype of myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) is characterized by the presence of isolated del(5q)?

<p>MDS with isolated del(5q) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic mutation is primarily responsible for polycythemia vera (PV)?

<p>Point mutation JAK2V617F (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the characteristic clinical features of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

<p>Overproduction of white blood cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What etiological factor is NOT associated with the development of myelodysplastic syndromes?

<p>Viral infections (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical feature is NOT typically associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?

<p>Bone marrow fibrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the normal ABL gene play in cellular processes?

<p>Acts as a kinase by adding phosphate groups to proteins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is typical in the laboratory analysis of a patient with MDS?

<p>Cytopenias in peripheral blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the accelerated phase of CML, what are the expected changes in blood composition?

<p>Increased myeloblasts in the bone marrow (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical life span after treatment with chemotherapy or radiotherapy before therapy-related MDS might develop?

<p>4 to 7 years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the blastic phase of CML?

<p>Blasts constitute &gt;20% of total bone marrow cellularity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What treatment is commonly used for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

<p>Gleevec (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding is associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia during laboratory tests?

<p>Dutcher bodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In myelodysplastic syndromes with isolated dysplastic lineages, which mutation is commonly involved?

<p>MYD88 mutations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the function of the BCR gene?

<p>Acts as a GTPase activating protein (GAP) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best describes the nature of myelodysplastic syndromes?

<p>Acquired clonal hematologic disorders with progressive cytopenias (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic translocation is associated with mantle cell lymphoma?

<p>t(11;14) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with lymphoma?

<p>Frequent headaches (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In B-CLL, what is the significance of haploidy?

<p>It relates to a favorable prognosis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunophenotyping markers are present in follicular lymphoma?

<p>CD19+, CD10+, BCL6+ (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a distinguishing feature of plasma cell myeloma?

<p>Sheets of large aggregates of plasma cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical finding in plasma cell leukemia?

<p>Lytic bone lesions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common laboratory finding in patients with plasma cell leukemia?

<p>Hypercalcemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common chromosomal translocation associated with Burkitt lymphoma?

<p>t(8;14) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following treatments is often used for Burkitt lymphoma?

<p>Cyclophosphamide, cytarabine, doxorubicin, and methotrexate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immunophenotype is characteristic of Burkitt lymphoma?

<p>CD19+, CD20+, CD10+ (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population is more likely to develop sporadic Burkitt lymphoma?

<p>Children and young adults (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a commonly observed histological characteristic of Burkitt lymphoma under low magnification?

<p>Starry sky appearance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients with which condition have the worst prognosis when diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma?

<p>Immunodeficiency (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Philadelphia Chromosome in CML

A chromosomal abnormality in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) characterized by a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, specifically involving the ABL and BCR genes.

JAK2V617F Mutation in PV

A point mutation (single base change) in the JAK2 gene, commonly found in Polycythemia Vera (PV), causing the protein to function abnormally.

CML (Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia)

Cancer of blood cells where a genetic mutation causes uncontrolled production of myeloid cells, leading to a higher number of immature white blood cells.

Normal ABL Gene Function

A kinase enzyme that adds phosphate groups to other proteins, regulating cell growth and proliferation.

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Normal BCR Gene Function

Acts as a GTPase Activating Protein (GAP), involved in cell signaling pathways.

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BCR-ABL Fusion Gene

A fusion gene formed by the translocation in CML; a genetic abnormality resulting in a malfunctioning protein that promotes uncontrolled cell proliferation

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CML Accelerated Phase

Advanced phase of CML with increased blasts (immature cells) in the bone marrow, and other characteristic changes in blood count and spleen size.

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CML Treatment

Gleevec is a common treatment for CML, focused on targeting the abnormal BCR-ABL protein

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Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

A type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, characterized by abnormal growth of lymphocytes in various tissues such as lymph nodes, spleen, and bone marrow.

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Mantle Cell Lymphoma

A type of Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma characterized by medium-sized lymphocytes with irregular nuclei, often found in the mantle zone of lymph nodes.

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Follicular Lymphoma

A type of Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma characterized by a follicular pattern of growth and specifically involves germinal center cells.

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Extranodal Marginal Zone Lymphoma of MALT

A type of Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma that originates in marginal zone B-cells, often associated with mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).

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Plasma Cell Myeloma

A cancer of plasma cells, characterized by the presence of large clusters of these cells in the bone marrow.

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Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)

A group of blood disorders causing progressive low blood cell counts, due to problems with blood cell development.

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MDS Etiology

MDS can be caused by exposure to harmful chemicals, radiation, or abnormal blood stem cells disrupting normal blood cell production.

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Therapy-related MDS

MDS occurring in patients after chemotherapy or radiation therapy, often years later, tending to be more aggressive than other types.

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MDS subtypes

MDS can encompass different subtypes such as those with single or multiple lineage dysplasia, those with isolated del(5q) or excess blasts, or a mutation in SF3B1.

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Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia (WM)

A blood cancer that causes an abnormal increase in a type of antibody called IgM.

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WM Clinical Features

WM can cause hyperviscosity, amyloidosis, cryoglobulins (related to blood clots), and various symptoms, including anemia.

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WM Lab Findings

Lab tests for WM show anemia, low platelets, increased white blood cells, abnormal protein structures, and increased inflammation markers.

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Electrophoresis in WM

Electrophoresis identifies distinctive protein "spikes" signifying the excess production of IgM proteins.

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WHO criteria for accelerated CML

Presence of leukocytosis, dysgranulopoiesis, and no significant basophilia or monocytosis. Bone marrow shows granulocytic proliferation and dysplasia, without a high blast count. No chromosomal rearrangements related to PDGFR, FGFR, or PCM1-JAK2 are seen, and criteria for other myeloid disorders are not met.

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Pre-PMF WHO criteria (major)

Megakaryocytic proliferation greater than grade 1, coupled with increased bone marrow cellularity, granulocytic proliferation, and often reduced erythropoiesis. This doesn't meet the criteria for BCR-ABL1/CML, PV, ET, MDS, or other myeloid neoplasms.

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Pre-PMF WHO criteria (minor)

Criteria include anemia unrelated to other diseases, leukocytosis above 11x10^9/L, splenomegaly, and elevated LDH (lactate dehydrogenase).

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JAK2 61VF mutation

A genetic change of JAK2 gene, a particular type of mutation is associated with certain blood disorders like polycythemia vera (PV).

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Serum EPO level

Amount of erythropoietin in the blood; reduced level is a sign (minor criterion) for polycythemia vera.

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Polycythemia Vera (PV)

A blood cancer associated with increased red blood cell production.

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Leukocytosis (elevated WBC count)

An abnormally high white blood cell count, often indicative of an inflammatory response or blood cell production issue.

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Myeloid Neoplasms

Cancer of the bone marrow that affects blood cells, a broader category

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Overt PMF (WHO criteria) - Major criteria

Presence of megakaryocytic proliferation with reticulin/collagen fibrosis grades 2 or 3, not meeting criteria for other myeloid neoplasms (ET, PV, BCR-ABL1, CML, MDS), and presence of a JAK2, CALR, or MPL mutation (or other clonal marker if no mutation).

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Overt PMF (WHO criteria) - Minor criteria

Anemia not due to other conditions; leukocytosis (above 11 x 10^9/L), palpable splenomegaly, elevated LDH, leukoerythroblastosis. At least one minor criterion is needed for overt PMF diagnosis, along with all the major criteria.

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Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) WHO Criteria - Major

Platelet count over 450 x 10^9/L, megakaryocytic lineage proliferation in the bone marrow, no significant increase in neutrophils or erythrocytes, and very rare, minor reticulin increase; no other similar conditions

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Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) WHO Criteria - Minor

Presence of a clonal marker or exclusion of reactive thrombocytosis to definitively diagnose ET .

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MDS Treatment Goals

Improving quality of life and extending survival through supportive care; utilizing FDA-approved drugs like lenalidomide, azacitidine, and decitabine; growth factors (EPO, TPO, G-CSF); immunosuppressive therapy; and potentially hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.

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MDS Treatment Approaches

FDA approved medications like lenalidomide, azacitidine, and decitabine, supportive care, growth factors, or immune suppression

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Lenalidomide, Azacitidine, Decitabine

FDA approved drugs for Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS), potentially improving quality of life and survival.

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Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation (HSCT)

Potentially a curative treatment option for Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS), aiming to cure the disease.

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Plasma Cell Leukemia

A rare and aggressive type of blood cancer where abnormal plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow and blood, leading to various complications.

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Plasma Cell Leukemia Symptoms

Common symptoms include bone pain due to lytic lesions, fatigue, hypercalcemia, kidney damage, and hepatosplenomegaly.

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Plasma Cell Leukemia Lab Findings

Diagnostic features include abnormal plasma cells exceeding 20% of total WBCs, elevated ESR, and presence of either kappa or lambda light chains, but not both, in the malignant clone.

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Plasma Cell Leukemia Treatment

Treatment often involves chemotherapy, such as Bortezomib and Lenalidomide, along with supportive care to manage complications.

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Burkitt Lymphoma

A highly aggressive type of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by rapid cell growth and a specific pattern of chromosomal translocation.

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Burkitt Lymphoma Etiology

The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a common factor, and chromosomal translocations such as t(8;14), t(8;22), and t(2;8) are characteristic.

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Burkitt Lymphoma Morphology

The lymphoma cells are medium-sized, with round nuclei, finely distributed chromatin, small nucleoli, and vacuolated cytoplasm.

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Burkitt Lymphoma Translocations

The most common translocation is t(8;14), followed by t(8;22) and t(2;8), all involving the MYC gene.

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Study Notes

MMSC 433 Exam 3 Study Notes

  • Chromosomal Abnormality in CML: Philadelphia chromosome (95% of cases) - translocation of AB: proto-oncogene from band q34, chromosome 9 to BCR of band q11, chromosome 22. JAK2V617F mutation found in most cases.

  • Chromosomal Abnormality in PV: Point mutation replacing guanine with thymine at exon 4, changes amino acid at position 617 from valine to phenylalanine.

  • CML (Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia): Overproduction of white blood cells in the bone marrow. Caused by a genetic translocation in a pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell. Leads to clonal overproduction of myeloid cells and a predominance of immature cells (infection, bleeding, anemia, splenomegaly).

  • Normal ABL Gene: Functions as a kinase involved in cell growth and proliferation. Can be active or inactive. Adds phosphate groups to other proteins.

  • Normal BCR Gene: Acts as a GTPase activating protein (GAP) involved in cell signaling, active when bound to GTP.

  • BCR-ABL 1 Fusion Gene: Identified with Philadelphia chromosome; present in 20% of adults and 2-5% of children.

  • CML Morphology Changes in PB: Increased white blood cell count (total WBCs), neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, myelocytes, platelets. Decreased red blood cell count (erythrocytes), low LAP score (normally 15-170). Myeloblasts increase in bone marrow, elevated basophils in blood. Spleen size increases, high leukocyte count. Characterized by more genetic lesions not linked to therapy.

  • CML Accelerated Phase: Myeloblasts in bone marrow constitute >20% of the total bone marrow cellularity. Elevated basophils and spleen size increase.

  • CML Treatment: Gleevec.

  • PV (Polycythemia Vera): A neoplastic clonal myeloproliferative disorder characterized by overproduction of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow. Thickened blood leads to poor circulation. Increased hemoglobin, hematocrit, total white blood cells(WBCs), granulocytes, and platelets in the peripheral blood (PB).

  • PV PB Morphology Changes: increased Hemoglobin, hematocrit, total WBCs, granulocytes, platelets, increase in RBC mass.

  • PV Treatment: Phlebotomy, hydroxyurea.

  • ET (Essential Thrombocythemia): A clonal myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) marked by overproduction of platelets in the bone marrow. Causes include primary thrombocytosis, idiopathic thrombocytosis, and hemorrhagic thrombocytopenia. Symptoms include vascular occlusion, hemorrhage, increased platelet count, splenomegaly, and erythromelagia.

  • ET Clinical Presentation: Vascular occlusion, hemorrhage, increased platelet count, splenomegaly, and erythromelagia are symptoms.

  • Common Morphology Changes in PB for ET: Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, increased total white blood cells (WBCs), neutrophils, and platelets.

  • ET Treatment: Hydroxyurea, ruxolitinib, and/or aspirin.

  • PMF (Primary Myelofibrosis): Splenomegaly, ineffective hematopoiesis, fibrosis, and increased megakaryocytes associated with areas of hypercellularity in the bone marrow. Fatigue, pruritus, bone pain, palpitations, night sweats, and splenomegaly are symptoms.

  • PMF Morphology: Immature granulocytes, normoblasts, and dacrocytes.

  • PMF Treatment: Hydroxyurea, ruxolitinib, and/or CYT387 and TG101348 (JAK inhibitors).

  • WHO Major Criteria for PV: Increased hemoglobin (or hematocrit) above normal limits, Bone Marrow increased erythrocyte production, and presence of JAK2V617F mutation.

  • WHO Minor Criteria for PV: Subnormal serum EPO level.

  • WHO Criteria for Accelerated CML: Presence of neutrophils and their precursors. No or minimal absolute basophilia or monocytosis. Hypercellular bone marrow with granulocytic proliferation and dysplasia, with or without dysplasia of other lineages. No or minimal evidence of other clonal markers.

  • PrePMF (WHO Criteria): Anemia not linked to a comorbid condition, Leukocytosis >11 x10^9/L, Palpable Splenomegaly, elevated LDH to values exceeding normal limits, and Leukoerythroblastosis.

  • Overt PMF (WHO Criteria): Megakaryocytic proliferation accompanied by reticulin and/or collagen fibrosis grades 2 or 3. Does NOT meet criteria for ET, PV, BCR-ABL1+CML, MDS, or other myeloid neoplasms, and lacks evidence of a reactice myelofibrosis. Presence of JAK2, CALR, or MPL mutation.

  • ET WHO Criteria Major: Platelet count > 450 x 10^9/L; Bone marrow biopsy showing increased megakaryocytic proliferation predominantly with enlarged, mature megakaryocytes and hyperlobulated nuclei. No significant erythro/myeloid increase. No evidence of other hematological malignancies. Identification of JAK2, CALR, or MPL mutation.

  • **ET WHO Criteria Minor:**Presence of a clonal marker and absent evidence of reactive thrombocytosis.

  • MDS Treatment: Supportive care, lenalidomide, azacitidine, decitabine (these are FDA approved). Growth factors (EPO, TPO, G-CSF), Immunosuppressive Therapy and/or Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.

  • MDS Etiology: Radiation or chemical insult. Pathological clone of progenitor cells that interferes with normal hematopoiesis. "Crowding out"/dyspoiesis.

  • Therapy Related MDS: Patients receiving chemotherapy or radiotherapy treatment. 4-7 years post treatment. MDS is often more aggressive than de novo MDS; tends to transition into AML.

  • MDS with Isolated del(5q) Lab Findings: Dysplastic lineages, cytopenias, thrombocytosis can be present.

  • MDS Morphology (PB): Oval macrocytes, hypochromic microcytes, dimorphic red blood cell population, poikilocytosis, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, and Pappenheimer bodies.

  • MDS Morphology (BM): RBC precursors with >1 nucleus, abnormal nuclear shapes, nuclear lobes/buds, nuclear fragments, nuclear bridging, ringed sideroblasts, and megaloblastoid cellular development.

  • Common Childhood Leukemia: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

  • Myeloperoxidase: ALL negative, AML positive, AMML positive, AMOL negative, and Megakaryocytic leukemia negative.

  • Sudan Black B: ALL negative, AML positive.

  • WHO Classification of Acute Leukemias: Acute megakaryocytic leukemia, AML with recurrent genetic abnormalities.

  • Normal Lymph Node Function: Filter substances in lymphatic fluid. Contains lymphocytes which combat infection.

  • Cells found in Lymph Nodes: Lymphocytes, B cells, T cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, and plasma cells.

  • Preferred Workup for Lymphoproliferative Disorders: Touch imprint of nodes, Lymph node biopsy.

  • Diagnostic Workup for Lymphoproliferative Disorders: Touch imprint of nodes, lymph node biopsy.

  • TRAP (Tartrate-resistant Acid Phosphatase): A stain used to identify hairy cells. Red color persists in hairy cells. Dissipates in other cells.

  • Classic Cell that defines B cell neoplasm: Popcorn cells.

  • Hodgkin's Lymphoma: Normal lymph node architecture replaced by nodular proliferation of neoplastic cells with "popcorn" cells.

  • Multiple Myeloma Etiology: IL-6 stimulates osteoclast formation, breaking down bone. RANKL binds to RANK leading to osteoclast proliferation. DKK1 blocks osteoblast formation and accelerates osteoclast formation. MIP-osteoclast recruitment.

  • Multiple Myeloma Sxs: Lytic bone lesions (skull), bone pain, pathologic fractures, infections. Increased susceptibility to infections, renal insufficiency.

  • Multiple Myeloma Lab Findings: N/N anemia, rouleaux formation, increased ESR, elevated serum calcium, Increased plasma cells (1-90% BM), proteinuria, "flame cells" (IgA)., Russell bodies, hyper viscosity.

  • Immunoglobulins in Multiple Myeloma: 25% light chains (Bence Jones proteins), hypogammaglobulinemia.

  • Multiple Myeloma Treatment: Lenalidomide, Dexamethasone.

  • Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia Etiology: Abnormal IgM immunoglobulin production from pathological plasma cells. Mutations in MYD88 (chromosome 3) and 6q

  • Waldenstrom Clinical Features: Hyperviscosity, amyloidosis, cryoglobulinemic purpura, anemia, prolonged PT/PTT/BT, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.

  • Waldenstrom Lab Findings: N/N anemia, thrombocytopenia, lymphocytosis, Dutcher bodies, rouleaux formations, increased ESR, and bence jones proteins.

  • Waldenstrom Treatment: Chemotherapy, plasmapheresis.

  • Plasma Cell Leukemia: Increased plasma cells in blood (> 20%) in peripheral blood smear. Fatigue, kidney damage, hepatosplenomegaly, hypercalcemia.

  • Plasma Cell Leukemia Tx: chemo. Bortezomib, Lenalidomide.

  • Burkitt Lymphoma Etiology: EBV. Chromosomal translocations (t(8;14), t(8;22), t(2;8)).

  • Burkitt Lymphoma Sxs: Abdominal mass, occurs in GI tract, gonads, breast tissue, and organ transplant.

  • Burkitt Lymphoma Tx: chemotherapy. Cyclophosphamide, cytarabine, doxorubicin, methotrexate.

  • Burkitt Lymphoma Lab Findings: Low magnification "starry sky" appearance. Macrophages phagocytize apoptotic debris.

  • Burkitt Cell Lymphoma Morphology: Diffuse proliferation of lymphoid cells; medium size with round nuclei, and fine chromatin; small nucleoli; cytoplasm is vacuolated.

  • Most Common Burkitt Lymphoma Translocation: t(8;14)

  • Immunophenotype of Burkitt Lymphoma: CD19+, CD20+, CD10+.

  • Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma (NHL): A malignant neoplasm of lymphoid tissue. Cancer cells originate in tissue such as the thymus, lymph nodes, bone marrow, or spleen.

  • Symptoms of NHL: Swollen lymph nodes, unexplained fever, weight loss, drenching night sweats, cough, breathlessness, fatigue.

  • Marginal Zone Lymphoma of Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT): A subtype of lymphoma occurring in extranodal locations.

  • Follicular Lymphoma Morphology: Predominantly diffuse nodular or mantle zone pattern. Medium to large-sized lymphocytes with irregular nuclei, CD20+, CD19+, CD5+, and FMC7+. t(14;18).

  • Mantle Cell Lymphoma Morphology: Diffuse, nodular, or mantle zone pattern. Medium-sized lymphocytes with irregular nuclei. CD20+, CD19+, CD5+, FMC7+. t(11;14).

  • Types of Plasma Cell Myeloma: B-CLL with hypoidy, B-CLL with hyperploidy.

  • CLL Lymphocytes Morphology: Sheets / large aggregates of plasma cells; "soccer ball" appearance in PB.

  • B-CLL With Hypo- or Hyperploidy: B-CLL with hypo or hyperploidy are related to the number of chromosomes of B-lymphocytes. B-CLL with hypoidy has fewer than 46 chromosomes, blasts contain <46 chromosmes; poor prognosis. Neoplasm of B cell lineage, immunophenotyping: CD10+, CD19+. B-CLL with hyperploidy has more than 46 chromosomes, blasts contain >50 chromosomes without translocations. Favorable prognosis. Affects 25-35% of children aged 3-5, immunophenotyping: CD19+, CD10+, CD34+, CD45 negative.

  • Plasma cell myeloma Morphology: Sheets/large aggregates of plasma cells, "soccer ball" appearance in peripheral blood (PB)

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MMSC 433 Exam 3 PDF

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Prepare for your MMSC 433 Exam 3 with these detailed study notes on chromosomal abnormalities in CML and PV. Understand the genetic mutations involved, the role of ABL and BCR genes, and the implications of these findings in leukemias. This quiz covers critical concepts essential for mastering the subject.

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