Microbiology Techniques and Antibiotic Testing

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Questions and Answers

What does a small inhibition zone diameter indicate when comparing with the reference value?

  • Intermediate susceptibility
  • No significant growth
  • Susceptible
  • Resistant (correct)

Which of the following techniques is NOT classified as a genotypic method of microbe identification?

  • rRNA analysis
  • PCR
  • Plasmid fingerprinting
  • Antibiotic susceptibility testing (correct)

In what year was the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) developed?

  • 1990
  • 1995
  • 1983 (correct)
  • 1981

Which method allows for the detection of microorganisms even in low cell populations?

<p>Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily measured to determine the effectiveness of an antibiotic during susceptibility testing?

<p>Diameter of the inhibition zone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What color indicates the presence of cytochrome c oxidase when the reagent is oxidized?

<p>Purple (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the API test strips?

<p>To detect enzymatic activity related to carbohydrate fermentation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a key step in the Kirby–Bauer method?

<p>Placement of antibiotic discs on the agar plate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a colorless result indicate when the reagent is tested for the presence of cytochrome c oxidase?

<p>The enzyme is absent (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step in performing the Kirby–Bauer susceptibility test?

<p>Picking a colony to inoculate sterile water (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the MacFarland standard measure?

<p>The turbidity or cloudiness of bacterial suspension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to test pathogens for susceptibility to individual antimicrobials?

<p>To ensure appropriate chemotherapy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is used to rehydrate each well in the API test strips?

<p>A bacterial suspension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does high sensitivity in immunological tests primarily prevent?

<p>False negatives caused by low antigen presence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method involves the interaction between a soluble antigen and a soluble antibody to form an aggregate?

<p>Precipitation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding specificity in immunological tests is true?

<p>Specificity ensures the correct identification of particular antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary applications of serological tests?

<p>To evaluate the interaction between antigens and antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs when there is a reaction in an immunological test but antigens or antibodies are absent?

<p>False positive (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following techniques is NOT classified under immunological methods?

<p>Gas chromatography (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the use of EtBr in agarose gel electrophoresis indicate?

<p>It stains the gels to visualize DNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT associated with the sensitivity of an immunological test?

<p>Capacity to distinguish between similar antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is NOT part of the classic microbiological route?

<p>Amplification (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the catalase enzyme in microorganisms?

<p>To neutralize hydrogen peroxide by breaking it down (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following steps involves the introduction of bacteria into a growth medium?

<p>Inoculation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is NOT typically associated with anaerobes concerning catalase?

<p>They thrive in oxygenated environments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is essential for quickly transporting the specimen to the lab?

<p>Appropriate temperature control (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the outcome of the oxidase test?

<p>It identifies bacteria that produce cytochrome c oxidase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose for using proper aseptic techniques during specimen handling?

<p>To prevent contamination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following steps comes after incubation in the classic microbiological route?

<p>Isolation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of primers in the PCR process?

<p>Bind to the DNA template to initiate synthesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At which temperature does the denaturation step of PCR occur?

<p>94ºC (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the PCR reaction is essential for the extension of the new DNA strand?

<p>DNA polymerase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many copies of DNA are produced after 20 cycles of PCR starting with a single molecule?

<p>1 million (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of Taq polymerase makes it suitable for PCR?

<p>It remains stable at high temperatures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of the extension step in PCR?

<p>New DNA strands are synthesized (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component stabilizes the DNA polymerase and nucleotides during the PCR process?

<p>Buffer (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the amount of DNA after 30 cycles of PCR if starting from one molecule?

<p>It increases to about 1 billion copies (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method involves direct interaction between a fluorescent antibody and a surface antigen of an organism?

<p>Direct fluorescent antibody method (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main advantage of using passive agglutination tests in screening?

<p>They are simple and suitable for large scale screening. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does direct agglutination occur?

<p>Through interaction with a surface antigen of a cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of agglutination test is utilized for blood typing?

<p>Direct agglutination test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of agglutination does soluble antigen become linked to an inert carrier?

<p>Passive agglutination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which chemical modification allows antibodies to emit bright light in fluorescent antibody testing?

<p>Coupling with dye molecules (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of agglutination tests?

<p>Time-consuming (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during the indirect method of fluorescent antibody procedures?

<p>Non-fluorescent antibodies bind before fluorescent antibodies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique utilizes a second antibody that has an enzymatic activity linked to it?

<p>ELISA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the ImmunoXpert tm diagnostic test?

<p>To distinguish between bacterial and viral infections (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which microorganisms can be detected using the ELISA technique?

<p>S.aureus, E.coli, and Salmonella (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes direct fluorescent antibody testing from indirect methods?

<p>Direct binding to an antigen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the immune response proteins play in the ImmunoXpert tm test?

<p>They help in distinguishing infection type (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which step of the classic microbiological route focuses on keeping microorganisms free from contaminants?

<p>Inoculation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main outcome of successful isolation in microbiology?

<p>A pure species of microorganism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the catalase test in identifying microorganisms?

<p>Bubbles indicate catalase-positive microorganisms. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily being measured when conducting an oxidase test?

<p>The presence of cytochrome c oxidase activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'pure culture' refer to in microbiology?

<p>A culture derived from a single type of microbe. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT essential for the incubation step in microbiological methods?

<p>Presence of toxic substances. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the Bunsen burner play in microbiological practices?

<p>It aids in inoculation through sterilization. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following methods is not a category used in microbial identification?

<p>Electrophoresis techniques (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of real-time PCR compared to traditional PCR?

<p>It continuously monitors amplification through fluorescent signals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is essential in the reverse transcriptase-PCR process?

<p>Reverse transcriptase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of plasmid fingerprinting in microbial identification?

<p>To identify the number of plasmids and their molecular weight (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of DNA sequencing, which part of the DNA is most commonly targeted for microbial identification?

<p>The 16S rRNA gene sequence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates DNA viruses from RNA viruses in terms of persistence within a host?

<p>DNA viruses tend to remain dormant within the host. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When separating DNA by size using an electric field, how does the size of the DNA fragments affect their migration?

<p>Larger DNA fragments migrate closer to the starting point. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the output of a PCR amplification plot in real-time PCR?

<p>It indicates the quantity of DNA at each cycle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of using small amounts of DNA for microbial identification?

<p>It enables the identification of rare microbial species. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using agarose gel electrophoresis in microbiological studies?

<p>To separate plasmids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes sensitivity in immunological tests?

<p>Ability to detect traces of antigens or antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of immunological test involves the interaction of soluble antigen with soluble antibody to form an insoluble complex?

<p>Precipitation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes a situation where there is no reaction in an immunological test, although antigens or antibodies are actually present?

<p>False negative (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In serology, what does specificity primarily ensure in immunological tests?

<p>Detection of a single target antigen among various others (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunological method is commonly used for the identification of microorganisms through the interaction of antigens and antibodies?

<p>Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of error occurs when there is a cross-reaction with another molecule in immunological testing?

<p>False positive (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which method is NOT typically associated with immunological testing of microbial antigens?

<p>Electrophoresis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome when tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine is oxidized by cytochrome c oxidase?

<p>It produces a purple color. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of API test strips?

<p>They evaluate enzyme activity related to catabolism. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Kirby–Bauer method, what is the purpose of placing discs containing antibiotics on the agar plate?

<p>To create a gradient of antibiotic concentration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a bacterium's classification as 'intermediate' indicate in antimicrobial susceptibility testing?

<p>The bacterium can grow but only at higher concentrations of the antibiotic. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of achieving a bacterial culture density equivalent to 1 MacFarland standard in susceptibility testing?

<p>It ensures consistency in assessing antibiotic effects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the Kirby–Bauer method, which media is typically used to incubate the antibiotic discs?

<p>Muller-Hinton agar plate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when cytochrome c oxidase is absent during the reagent test?

<p>The reagent remains colorless. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of specific antimicrobial susceptibility testing results imply for pathogen treatment?

<p>They ensure the chosen antibiotic will be effective. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the optimal temperature for the denaturation step in the PCR process?

<p>94ºC (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do primers play in the PCR process?

<p>They start the synthesis of new DNA strands. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After how many cycles of PCR would you expect to obtain approximately one billion copies of DNA starting from a single molecule?

<p>30 cycles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the PCR reaction is critical as a co-factor for the DNA polymerase?

<p>Mg++ ions (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ideal temperature for the extension step in PCR?

<p>72ºC (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Taq polymerase is derived from which organism that allows it to withstand high temperatures during PCR?

<p>Thermus aquaticus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the configuration of DNA after the extension step in PCR?

<p>Two new double helices are formed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is used to stabilize the reaction in PCR?

<p>Buffer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Inoculation

The process of introducing a sample of bacteria into a growth medium under sterile conditions to prevent contamination during the culturing process.

Incubation

Providing the ideal conditions for microbial growth, such as specific temperature and oxygen levels, allowing the microbes to multiply within the chosen growth medium.

Isolation

The process of isolating a single type of microbe by separating it from a mixed population, yielding a pure culture of the chosen microbe for further study.

Inspection

Techniques that involve examining the characteristics of a microbe's growth, morphology, and behavior to identify specific traits and patterns.

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Identification

The process of using the observed characteristics and experimental data gathered from inspection to identify a microbe down to the exact species level.

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Selective media

A type of growth medium designed to favor the growth of specific types of microorganisms while inhibiting the growth of others.

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Catalase test

A biochemical test used to identify bacteria that produce the enzyme catalase, which breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, resulting in bubbles.

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Oxidase test

A test used to identify bacteria that produce cytochrome c oxidase, an enzyme involved in the electron transport chain of aerobic respiration.

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Cytochrome c Oxidase Test

A colorimetric test that detects the presence of cytochrome c oxidase, an enzyme found in aerobic bacteria. The reagent, tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine, changes color from colorless to purple when oxidized by the enzyme.

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Facultative Bacteria

A type of bacteria that can survive in environments with or without oxygen, using respiration or fermentation for energy.

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Aerobic Bacteria

A type of bacteria that requires oxygen to survive and grow.

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API test strips

A set of small test tubes or wells containing dehydrated substances used to detect enzymatic activity of bacteria. Each well represents a specific biochemical reaction.

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Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

A test used to determine if bacteria are susceptible (sensitive) to a particular antibiotic. The test evaluates the bacteria's ability to grow in the presence of the antibiotic.

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Kirby-Bauer Method

A standard method used to test bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics. It involves inoculating bacterial cultures on a special agar plate (Muller-Hinton), placing antibiotic-containing discs, and observing the growth inhibition zones.

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MacFarland Standard

A standard measure of turbidity (cloudiness) used to determine the density of bacterial cultures.

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Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A laboratory technique used to amplify a specific segment of DNA or RNA. It involves repeated cycles of heating and cooling, allowing for the replication of the desired DNA sequence.

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Muller-Hinton Agar

A type of agar plate used to differentiate bacteria based on their growth patterns and antibiotic susceptibility. It is commonly used in the Kirby-Bauer test.

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Genotypic Methods

A method of microbial identification that relies on examining the genetic material of the microorganism. It is becoming increasingly favored due to its speed and accuracy.

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Real-time PCR

A variant of PCR that allows for the detection and quantification of DNA or RNA in real-time. This means you can track the amplification process as it occurs.

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Reverse Transcriptase PCR

A specific type of PCR used to amplify RNA sequences. This is useful for studying gene expression, as RNA is the molecule that carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes.

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rRNA Analysis (Sequencing)

A method used for identifying microorganisms that involves sequencing and analyzing the rRNA genes. This is a standard method for classifying and identifying bacteria.

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Immune Response

A natural process triggered by infection, where the body's immune system activates to fight off the invading microbes.

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Cell-mediated Immunity

A type of immune response where cells, mainly T-cells, directly attack infected cells.

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Humoral Immunity

A type of immune response where antibodies produced by B-cells bind to specific antigens on pathogens marking them for destruction by other immune cells.

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Immunological Methods

Laboratory tests that utilize the interaction of antigens (microbial components) and antibodies (produced by the body in response to infection) to detect and identify microbes.

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Serology

The study of antibody-antigen reactions in a laboratory setting.

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Sensitivity

The ability of a test to accurately detect the presence of a small amount of the target substance (antigen or antibody).

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Specificity

The ability of a test to accurately identify a specific target substance (antigen or antibody) without reacting with similar but unrelated substances.

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False Negative

A test result that indicates a negative infection when the infection is actually present.

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Agglutination

A visible clumping of an antigen (Ag) when mixed with a specific antibody (Ab).

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Uses of Agglutination Tests

Agglutination tests are used for identifying blood groups, pathogens, and their products, thanks to being simple, fast, and cheap.

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Direct Agglutination

When an antibody (Ab) directly binds to an antigen (Ag) on the surface of a cell, causing it to clump. Used in blood typing and detecting Mycoplasma pneumonia.

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Indirect or Passive Agglutination

Antigens are attached to inert carriers like latex beads or charcoal particles. These beads then bind to antibodies, causing clumping.

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Fluorescent Antibodies

Antibodies are chemically modified with fluorescent dyes, making them visible under a microscope.

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Direct Fluorescent Antibody Technique

A fluorescent antibody binds directly to the surface antigen of a cell.

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Indirect Fluorescent Antibody Technique

A non-fluorescent antibody binds to the cell's antigen, and then a fluorescent antibody binds to the non-fluorescent antibody.

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Applications of Fluorescent Antibodies

Fluorescent antibody techniques are used for:

  1. Identifying specific microorganisms.
  2. Detecting certain types of cells or proteins.
  3. Diagnosing diseases.
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What is PCR?

PCR is a technique used to rapidly make copies of a specific DNA region. It involves multiple cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension.

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What happens during denaturation in PCR?

Denaturation separates the double-stranded DNA into two single strands by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs. It happens at high temperature (94°C).

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What happens during annealing in PCR?

Annealing allows short DNA sequences called primers to bind to complementary regions on the single-stranded DNA. It happens at a lower temperature (around 60°C).

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What happens during extension in PCR?

Extension is where DNA polymerase uses free nucleotides to create a new complementary strand of DNA using the original strand as a template. This happens at 72°C, the optimal temperature for DNA polymerase.

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How does PCR amplify DNA?

The PCR cycle - denaturation, annealing, and extension - is repeated multiple times (20-30 cycles). This amplifies the target DNA region exponentially, creating millions or billions of copies.

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What is Taq polymerase?

The Taq polymerase is a heat-stable enzyme extracted from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. It is used in PCR because it can withstand the high temperatures required for denaturation.

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How are PCR results visualized?

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments by size. The amplified DNA fragments are loaded into an agarose gel, and an electric current is applied. Smaller fragments move faster through the gel, resulting in a pattern of bands.

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What are the applications of PCR?

PCR is a vital tool in molecular biology research, used in various applications such as diagnosis of diseases, genetic testing, forensics, and cloning.

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ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

A serological test that uses antibodies to detect the presence of specific antigens in a sample. The test involves attaching the antigen to a solid surface, adding antibodies, and then detecting the presence of antibody-antigen complexes.

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ImmunoXpert tm

A diagnostic test that uses a combination of three host immune response proteins to differentiate between bacterial and viral infections.

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What is denaturation in PCR?

The process of separating the double-stranded DNA into two single strands by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs. This occurs at high temperature (94°C).

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What is annealing in PCR?

Short DNA sequences called primers bind to complementary regions on the single-stranded DNA at a lower temperature (around 60°C).

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What is extension in PCR?

DNA polymerase uses free nucleotides to create a new complementary strand of DNA using the original strand as a template at 72°C, the optimal temperature for DNA polymerase.

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What is the extension step in PCR?

The optimal temperature for DNA polymerase to copy the template, resulting in the creation of two new helixes from the original one.

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Gel Electrophoresis for DNA Analysis

A technique that uses an electric field to separate DNA fragments by size. Smaller fragments travel faster, resulting in distinct bands on a gel. The technique is used to analyze DNA fragments, like PCR products, based on their size.

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PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

A molecular technique used to amplify specific DNA segments. It involves repeated cycles of heating and cooling to create millions of copies of a target DNA sequence.

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16S rRNA Gene Sequencing for Microbial Identification

A technique used to identify microbial species based on the nucleotide sequence of the 16S rRNA gene. PCR is used to amplify the 16S rRNA gene, and the sequence is then determined.

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Plasmid Fingerprinting

This technique involves analyzing the number and size of plasmids (small circular DNA) found in bacteria. This method is particularly useful for identifying related strains or species., and it can help with antibiotic resistance profiling.

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DNA Sequencing for Microbial Identification

A rapid technique used to identify microbial species using a limited set of DNA. This technique is often used in clinical settings to determine the species of bacteria causing an infection.

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Biochemical Tests for Microbial Identification

A technique used to identify microorganisms based on their ability to utilize or produce certain biochemicals. It involves using a panel of substrates and observing the microorganism's ability to break them down or produce specific substances.

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Study Notes

Diagnostic Microbiology

  • Diagnostic microbiology aims to identify microbes.
  • Accurate identification depends on proper aseptic techniques, specimen collection, and rapid transport to the lab.
  • Successful microbial identification relies on proper aseptic techniques, correct specimen handling, and rapid transport.

Microbe Identification: Arrival to the Lab

  • Accurate identification of microbes relies on:
    • Proper aseptic technique.
    • Correct specimen acquisition and handling.
    • Speedy specimen transport to the lab.
  • The successful identification of microbe depends on using the proper aseptic techniques, correctly obtaining and handling the specimen, and quickly transporting the specimen to the lab.

Identification of Microorganisms

  • Microbiologists use three main categories of methods:
    • Classic microbiology.
    • Molecular microbiology (genetic tests).
    • Immunological analysis.

Where do we start?

  • Initial steps depend on suspected infectious disease and route:
    • Immunological route: Blood sample analyzed for antibodies against the suspected pathogen. Antibody assays (agglutination, RIA, ELISA, etc.) are performed.
    • Microbiological route: Blood, feces, urine, tissue, or mucosal swabs are collected and processed conventionally. Enrichment cultures, selective media, differential media, and pure culture isolation are used.

Classic Microbiology

  • Classic microbiology involves 5 steps (the five I's):
    • Inoculation: Making a pure culture of the microbe.
    • Incubation: Growing the microbe under appropriate conditions (e.g., optimal temperature and oxygen).
    • Isolation: Separating individual microbes to obtain a pure culture.
    • Inspection: Observing and recording characteristics (e.g., morphology).
    • Identification: Using data to identify the organism to species level (e.g., biochemical tests).

Inoculation

  • Introducing bacteria to a growth medium using aseptic technique (e.g., Bunsen burner, platinum loop).

Incubation

  • Allowing microbes to grow under optimal temperature and oxygen conditions. Methods include the use of incubators, methyl blue indicator strips, and GasPak jars.

Isolation

  • Separating individual colonies on media to obtain a pure culture.

Identification

  • Determining characteristics (e.g., shape, size, color, biochemical properties) to identify an organism to species level.

Identification in selective media

  • Table (with limited details since format does not support tables). Shows different colony characteristics on various media useful for identifying microbes. Specific examples of media (e.g. Blood agar, Enteric agar, CA, MTM, ANA) and their use for different specimens are illustrated in the table.

Confirmation tests: catalase

  • Catalase is an enzyme produced by microorganisms in oxygen-rich environments. It neutralizes hydrogen peroxide and helps protect them from pathogens. Anaerobes generally lack this enzyme.
  • A positive test displays evidence of foaming.

Confirmation tests II: oxidase

  • The oxidase test identifies microbes that produce the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase.
  • The reagent (tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine) turns purple if the enzyme is present.
  • The absence of color indicates the absence of the enzyme.

Confirmation tests III: API systems

  • API test strips contain dehydrated substrates that react with microbial enzymes to create a color change. This reveals data about their metabolic and enzymatic activity.
  • A bacterial suspension rehydrates the wells for testing, and incubation helps organisms react with the strips.

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing

  • Antimicrobial drugs treat infectious diseases. Testing pathogens' susceptibility is vital for appropriate chemotherapy.
  • The Kirby-Bauer method is a standard antimicrobial susceptibility test procedure.

The Kirby-Bauer method

  • A picked colony is inoculated into a tube with sterile water, achieving a specific density (e.g., MacFarland standard 1).
  • A swab is dipped into the liquid culture and streaked evenly over a plate of sterile agar (e.g., Muller-Hinton agar), which allows for proper antibiotic diffusion.
  • Discs with different antibiotics are placed on the plate; after incubation, the inhibition zones give information regarding microbial resistance to those antibiotics.

Molecular Microbiology

  • Molecular methods examine the genetic material of microorganisms.
  • Techniques have become dominant in identifying microbes due to speed and accuracy.

Genotypic methods

  • PCR, real-time PCR, reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR), rRNA analysis, and plasmid fingerprinting are used in genotypic methods of microbe identification.

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

  • A technique widely used in microbe identification and pathogen detection.
  • Specific primers amplify target DNA/RNA sequences, enabling even single-cell detection.
  • Primers for food monitoring exist to detect Salmonella and Staphylococcus.

PCR Reaction Components

  • Necessary components of PCR, including: water, buffer, DNA template, primers, nucleotides (dATP, dGTP, dCTP, dTTP), Mg++ ions and an appropriate thermostable DNA polymerase (e.g., Taq polymerase).

How PCR Works

  • Denaturation (94°C): DNA is heated to separate DNA strands;
  • Annealing (60°C): Primers bind to complementary strands ;
  • Extension (72°C): DNA polymerase copies the template.

PCR: first cycle

  • The steps involved in the first cycle of a PCR reaction: denaturing, annealing, and extension.

PCR overview

  • PCR cycle results in exponential growth of target DNA, allowing for millions or even billions of copies in a matter of hours.

Taq polymerase

  • A heat-stable DNA polymerase from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus, commonly used in PCR.

PCR: Visualizing results

  • After cycling, separated DNA fragments are loaded onto an agarose gel, stained (e.g., with ethidium bromide) and visualized as distinguishable bands.

Real Time PCR

  • Real-time PCR monitors the amplification of PCR products in real time through fluorescence.

Reverse Transcription-PCR (RT-PCR)

  • Using RNA as template to produce cDNA. RT-PCR useful to detect HIV (RNA virus).

DNA sequencing

  • DNA sequence analysis identifies microbes by sequencing the 16S rRNA gene.

### Plasmid fingerprinting

  • Analyzing the plasmid profiles in bacteria for identification. This is an accurate method used for species and strain recognition.
  • Plasmid fingerprinting typically entails isolating plasmids, separating them via agarose gel electrophoresis, and staining for visualization; comparative data for similarities and differences aid in identification.

Immunological Route

  • Diagnoses focus on testing for the immune response to microbial infections. Antibody assays are performed (e.g., agglutination, RIA, ELISA).

Immunological methods

  • The methods of interaction of microbial antigens with antibodies produced by the host's immune system.
  • Tests for detecting microbial antigens or antibodies production are available for identifying numerous microbes via testing. This method is a very useful tool for confirming infection.

Immunological Methods (II)

  • Serology tests the reactions of antibodies to antigens.
  • Useful serological tests are based on parameters of sensitivity (ability to detect small amounts of antigen/antibody) and specificity (ability to detect particular antigens/antibodies without cross-reactions with similar molecules).

False Negatives/Positives

  • High sensitivity reduces false negative results. False negatives happen when there is no reaction despite the presence of the antigen or antibody.
  • High specificity reduces false positive test outcomes. False positives result from cross-reactions with similar molecules.

Immunological tests

  • Includes precipitation, agglutination, fluorescent antibody techniques, ELISA, and Immunoxpertâ„¢ tests.

Precipitation Reactions

  • A reaction that involves the interaction of soluble antigens and antibodies to form an insoluble complex (precipitate).

Agglutination Reactions

  • Microbes are clumped together by the interaction of an antigen and antibody. This is a rapid and accurate approach to diagnosis and identification (e.g., blood typing).

Direct Agglutination

  • Direct interaction of antibodies and antigens to form visible clumps and used in blood typing and identifying Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Indirect or Passive Agglutination

  • Measuring pathogens or antibodies using soluble antigens as targets adsorbed or coupled to reagents (latex beads/charcoal). This facilitates a large-scale screening method.

Fluorescent Antibodies

  • Fluorescent antibodies are used to detect microorganisms directly in tissue or fluid samples, even before isolation, allowing early organism detection.

ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

  • ELISA tests involve detecting microbes using antibodies linked to enzymes, producing color changes, which are measured, useful in assessing many microbes (e.g., S. aureus, E. coli, Salmonella).

Immunoxpertâ„¢

  • This is a pioneering in-vitro diagnostic test that can accurately distinguish between bacterial and viral infections using an algorithm based on measurements of three host immune response proteins in human serum.

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