Microbiology Module 4 Study Questions
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Questions and Answers

How is M. tuberculosis usually transmitted?

  • Puncture of the skin
  • Inhalation of aerosols (correct)
  • Ingestion of spore
  • Eating/drinking contaminated food/water

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a positive TB skin test? Select all that apply.

  • Indicates the individual may have latent tuberculosis (correct)
  • Positive test = no skin changes
  • Indicates the individual has been exposed to MTB (correct)
  • Indicates the individual could have active tuberculosis (correct)
  • Positive test = red indurated area (correct)

Which of the following are TRUE regarding interferon-gamma release assays? Select all that apply.

  • Less subjective to reader bias and errors (correct)
  • This test is not affected by the BCG vaccine
  • Testing requires a blood sample (correct)
  • Performed by injecting a small amount of tuberculin into the skin
  • Testing helps differentiate latent from active tuberculosis (correct)

What is the appearance of mycobacteria in gram-stained smears?

<p>Stain very poorly - if at all (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended specimen collection procedure for SPUTUM samples (for Mycobacterial cultures)?

<p>1 morning sample (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended specimen collection procedure for URINE samples (for Mycobacterial cultures)?

<p>1 morning sample (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the specimen with it's corresponding processing procedure.

<p>CSF = Decontaminate specimen &amp; inoculate 2 sets of media (30°C &amp; 35°C) Sputum = No decontamination - Centrifuge &amp; inoculate media Urine = Decontaminate specimen before inoculating media Pleural fluid = Decontaminate specimen before inoculating media Skin/Wound for <em>M. marinum</em> = No decontamination - Centrifuge &amp; inoculate media</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should gastric aspirates be handled if they cannot be processed within 4 hours?

<p>Add N-acetyl-L-cystine to the specimen (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mycobacteria are rapid growers? Select all that apply.

<p><em>M. fortuitum-chelonae</em> (B), <em>M. abscessus</em> (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How fast does a rapid grower grow?

<p>Less than 7 days (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a laboratory's contamination rate be used to evaluate its decontamination procedure?

<p>If the contamination rate is too HIGH, the decontamination process is not strong enough (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the following reagents?

<p>N-acetyl-L-cysteine = Decontaminating agent 2% NaOH = Mucolytic agent</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the requirements for storing Middlbrook agar? Select all that apply.

<p>Store in the dark (C), Incubate plates in air (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Indicate if the Mycobacteria media is egg-based or agar-based.

<p>Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) = Agar-based Middlebrook 7H10 = Egg-based Petragnani = Egg-based Mitchison 7H11 = Egg-based American Thoracic Society (ATS) = Agar-based</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the group with it's corresponding pigment production.

<p>Photochromogen = No pigment in light; no pigment in dark Scotochromogen = Pigment in light; Pigment in dark Nonchromogen = Pigment in light; No pigment in dark</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match each test with it's corresponding POSITIVE result. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.

<p>Arylsufatase = Yellow Catalase - 68°C = Green Catalase - Semiquantitative = No color change Iron Uptake = Rust color Niacin = Red Pyrazinamidase = No Growth Tween 80 = Growth Special MacConkey = No bubbles = Bubble column &lt; 45mm</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match each organism with it's corresponding description.

<p><em>M. tuberculosis</em> = • Rapid growers • Arylsufatase (+) • Growth on Special MacConkey <em>M. bovis</em> = • Buff, rough colonies • Niacin (+) • Nitrate (+) <em>M. kansasii</em> = • Scotochromogen • Non-pathogenic • Water contaminant <em>M. marinum</em> = • Photochromogen • &quot;Swimming pool granuloma&quot; • Grows at 30°C and 37°C <em>M. gordonae</em> = • Photochromogen • Causes a pulmonary disease • Nitrate (+) • Tween 80 (+) <em>M. haemophilum</em> = • Causes tuberculosis • Niacin (-) • T2H sensitive <em>M. avium complex</em> = • Nonchromogen • Slow grower • Requires X factor for growth • Grows at 30°C and 37°C <em>M. fortuitum-chelonae-abscessus complex</em> = • Nonchromogen • Slow grower • Negative for most biochemical tests</p> Signup and view all the answers

M. gordonae is a clinically significant isolate.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical incubation condition & time for Mycobacterial cultures?

<p>Incubate at 35-37°C in Air; Hold plates for 8 weeks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional step(s) should be taken when setting up a soft tissue/wound specimen for Mycobacterial culture? Select all that apply.

<p>A plate containing hemin (CHOC) should be added to the media panel (A), Set up 2 set of media plates - incubate at 30°C and 37°C (C), A fungal culture plate (PDA or SAB) should be added to the media panel (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a POSITIVE result look like for a Ziehl-Neelsen or Kinyoun stain?

<p>Red rods (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of potassium permanganate in the fluorochrome acid fast stain?

<p>Quenches the background fluorescence (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Positive and negative control smears should be included with each batch when performing acid fast stains.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following are dimorphic fungi? Select all that apply.

<p>Coccidioides immitis (B), Histoplasma capsulatum (C), Blastomyces dermatitidis (F)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE regarding dimorphic fungi?

<p>Yeast form at 37°C - Mold form at 30°C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With respect to Malassezia furfur, what special type of media should be used to culture for this organism?

<p>Media supplemented with lipids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

With respect to Malassezia furfur, what type of patient is at risk for systemic disease?

<p>Patients on long-term antimicrobial therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disorder does Malassezia furfur cause?

<p>Tinea versicolor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended specimen collection procedure for SPUTUM samples (for Mycology cultures)?

<p>1 morning sample (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pencillium species is always a lab contaminant and is not known to cause disease.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is more reliable in diagnosing cryptococcal meningitis?

<p>Cryptococcal antigen test (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Cycloheximide inhibits the growth of Cryptococcus.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the gram stain reaction for Nocardia?

<p>Gram positive branching rods (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism shares a similar gram stain reaction as Nocardia?

<p>Actinomyces israelii (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which stain can be used to help differentiate Nocardia from other organisms?

<p>Modified Acid Fast (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What disease does Pneumocystis jirovecii typically cause?

<p>Pneumonia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Select the stains that are helpful in visualizing Histoplasma capsulatum and Pneumocystis jirovecii in specimen smear. Select all that apply.

<p>Periodic-Acid Schiff (PAS) stain (B), Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS) stain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the dermatophyte with it's corresponding macroconidia description.

<p>Epidermophyton = Spindle shaped Trichophyton = Beaver tail or club shaped Microsporum = Pencil shaped</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the following organisms with it's corresponding description.

<p>Blastomyces dermatidis = Closed fist formation Histoplasma capsulatum = Yeast phase: Broad based budding, double walled Coccidioides immitis = Mold phase: Alternating arthrospores Sporothrix schenckii = Mold phase: Tuberculate macroconidia Penicillium species = Yeast phase: Cigar shaped yeast cells Aspergillus species = Open fist formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical incubation condition & time for Mycology cultures?

<p>Incubate at 35-37°C in Air; Hold plates for 8 weeks (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many stool specimens should be submitted for "Ova & Parasite" exams? How often should they be collected?

<p>3 stool samples - collected every 2-3 days (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are Charcot-Leyden crystals?

<p>Degradation products of eosinophils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Indicate which protozoan stage is found in each type of stool.

<p>Liquid stools = Cysts Formed stools = Trophozoites</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the parasitic infection with the best specimen needed for diagnosis. Answers may be used more than once.

<p>Pinworm = Urine/Genital Extraintestinal amebiasis = Serum Primary Amebic Encephalitis = Stool Malaria = CSF Dysentery = Blood Chagas Disease = Sticky paddle prep Trichomoniasis = Urine/Genital</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the following specimens be handled/processed?

<p>Liquid fecal specimen for motile trophozoites = Reject and request new specimen Liquid fecal specimen for &quot;Ova &amp; Parasites&quot; = Prepare a wet mount and examine within 30 minutes of collection Fecal specimen with urine = Examine within 30 minutes of collection - Place in preservatives if unable to examine immediately Fecal specimen with barium = Examine within 30 minutes of collection - Place in preservatives if unable to examine immediately Fecal specimen with mineral oil = Examine within 30 minutes of collection - Place in preservatives if unable to examine immediately Urine or vaginal secretions for Trichomonas vaginalis = Examine within 30 minutes of collection - Place in preservatives if unable to examine immediately</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure(s) is/are appropriate for specimens placed in PVA preservative? Select all that apply?

<p>Permanent stained smear (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which procedure(s) is/are appropriate for specimens placed in FORMALIN preservative? Select all that apply?

<p>Permanent stained smear (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the procedure with it's intended purpose.

<p>Saline wet mount prepared from fresh specimen = Detection and identification of helminths &amp; protozoa Permanent stained smear of fecal specimen = Detection and identification of protozoa lodine wet mount (from concentrated specimen) = Detecting motile trophozoites</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the Plasmodium species with it's corresponding key characteristics.

<p><em>P. vivax</em> = • Crescent-shaped gametocytes • Multiple rings in RBCs common • Double chromatin dots in ring forms <em>P. malariae</em> = • Enlarged RBCs infected • Schuffner's dots • Schizont contains 12-14 merozoites <em>P. falciparum</em> = • Produces &quot;band&quot; forms • Schizont has rosette appearance • Schizont contains 6-12 merozoites</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which Plasmodium Species causes the most severe malaria?

<p>P. falciparum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the organism with the appropriate stain used for detection/identification.

<p>Plasmodium = Trichrome/Iron Hematoxylin stain Cryptosporidium species = Wrights/Giemsa stain Entamoeba species = Acid Fast Stains Giardia = Acid Fast Stains Ascaris lumbricoides = Acid Fast Stains Trypanosoma brucei = Acid Fast Stains</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the organism with the disease it typically causes.

<p>Acanthamoeba species = Nonpathogen Giradia intestinalis = Keratitis Naegleria fowleri = Diarrhea Stronglyoides stercoralis = Primary amebic encephalitis Trichomonas hominis = Diarrhea Entamoeba coli = Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

Match the organism with it's parasitic classification.

<p>Entamoeba histolytica = Cestode Giradia intestinalis = Flagellate Strongyloides stercoralis = Nematode Trichomonas vaginalis = Ciliate Trichinella spiralis = Amoebae Balantidium coli = Trematode Paragonimus westermani = Trematode Hymenolepis nana = Cestode Ascaris lumbricoides = Nematode</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

M. tuberculosis Transmission

Usually transmitted by inhaling aerosols.

Positive TB Skin Test

Indicates exposure to M. tuberculosis, possibly latent or active.

Interferon-gamma Release Assays

Blood tests to detect TB infection, less prone to reader bias.

M. tuberculosis Gram Stain

Stains very poorly, if at all.

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Sputum Specimen Collection (Mycobacteria)

Collect 3-5 morning samples over a week.

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Urine Specimen Collection (Mycobacteria)

Collect 3-5 morning samples over a week.

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CSF Processing

Decontaminate and inoculate media at 30°C and 35°C.

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Sputum Processing

No decontamination, centrifuge and inoculate media

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Gastric Aspirate Storage

Neutralize if not processed in 4 hours or store in refrigerator

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Rapid Growing Mycobacteria

M. abscessus, M. fortuitum-chelonae, and M. marinum grow quickly (less than 3 days).

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Rapid Grower Growth Time

Less than 3 days.

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Decontamination Procedure Evaluation

A low contamination rate indicates the decontamination procedure is effective

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N-acetyl-L-cysteine Function

Mucolytic agent to loosen mucus.

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Middlbrook Agar Storage

Store in the dark and incubate in air.

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Lowenstein-Jensen Media

Agar-based media for mycobacteria.

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Middlebrook 7H10 Media

Egg-based media for mycobacteria.

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Photochromogen Pigment Production

No pigment in the dark, but pigment in the light

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Scotochromogen Pigment Production

Pigment in both light and dark.

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Nonchromogen Pigment Production

Pigment in the light, but no pigment in the dark

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Mycobacterial Culture Incubation

Incubate at 35-37°C in air for 8 weeks

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Soft Tissue/Wound Specimen Handling

Set up two media plates for incubation at 30°C and 37°C.

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Study Notes

Module 4 Study Questions

  • Question 1: Transmission of M. tuberculosis

    • Inhalation of aerosols
    • Puncturing the skin
    • Eating/drinking contaminated food/water
  • Question 2: Positive TB Skin Test

    • A positive test shows a red, indurated (hardened) area.
    • A positive test does not involve any skin changes.
    • A positive test indicates exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB).
    • A positive test suggests the individual might have active tuberculosis or latent tuberculosis
  • Question 3: Interferon-gamma release assays (IGRA)

    • Performed using a blood sample.
    • Less prone to error based on the reader's subjectivity
    • Effective in distinguishing latent from active tuberculosis.
    • Not affected by the BCG vaccine
  • Question 4: Gram-stained appearance of mycobacteria

    • Gram-positive rods
    • Poor staining performance
  • Question 5: SPUTUM sample collection procedure for Mycobacterial cultures -Three-five morning (3-5) samples over a week

  • Question 6: URINE sample collection procedure for Mycobacterial cultures -Three-five morning (3-5) samples over a week

  • Question 7: Specimen processing procedures

    • CSF: Decontaminate specimen & inoculate 2 sets of media (30°C & 35°C)
    • Sputum: No decontamination. Centrifuge & inoculate media
  • Question 8: Handling gastric aspirates -Neutralize specimen with sodium bicarbonate -Store in a refrigerator, if not processed within four hours

  • Question 9: Rapid-growing mycobacteria -M. abscessus -M. fortuitum-chelonae

  • Question 10: Time for rapid-growing mycobacterial growth -Less than 3 days.

  • Question 11: Evaluation of decontamination procedures -High contamination rate indicates a weak decontamination process

  • Question 12: Function of reagents -N-acetyl-L-cysteine: Decontaminating agent -2% NaOH: Mucolytic agent

  • Question 13: Middlbrook Agar storage requirements:

    • Store in the dark. Avoid light.
    • Incubate plates in air, not CO2
  • Question 14: Mycobacterial media types -Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) media is agar-based. -Middlebrook 7H10 media is egg-based. -Petragnani media is egg-based. -Mitchison 7H11 media is egg-based. -American Thoracic Society (ATS) media is egg-based

  • Question 15: Pigment production by groups (Matching)

  • Question 16: Positive test results (Matching)

  • Question 17: Organism descriptions (Matching)

  • Question 18: Clinical significance of M. gordonae -True, M. gordonae is clinically significant

  • Question 19: Mycobacterial culture incubation -Incubate at 35-37°C in air, hold plates for 8 weeks.

  • Question 20: Additional steps for soft-tissue specimen culture -Add a fungal culture plate (PDA or SAB media) and a plate containing hemin (CHOC media.) -Incubate all plates at 30°C

  • Question 21: Ziehl-Neelsen or Kinyoun stain positive result -Red rods

  • Question 22: Potassium permanganate in fluorochrome stain: -Used to stain the background blue

  • Question 23: Positive and negative controls in acid-fast stains -True

  • Question 24: Dimorphic fungi -Blastomyces dermatitidis -Coccidioides immitis -Histoplasma capsulatum

  • Question 25: Dimorphic fungi growth conditions -Yeast form at 37°C, mold form at 25°C or 30°C

  • Question 26: Malassezia furfur culture media -Media supplemented with lipids.

  • Question 27: Malassezia furfur and systemic disease risk -Patients on long-term antimicrobial therapy.

  • Question 28: Malassezia furfur causes (Matching/disease associated with organism)

  • Question 29: SPUTUM collection procedure for mycology cultures -3–5 morning samples over a week (3-5)

  • Question 30: Penicillium species and disease -Penicillium species is not known to cause diseases. -This is false

  • Question 31: Testing for cryptococcal meningitis -Cryptococcal antigen test

  • Question 32: Effect of cycloheximide on Cryptococcus -Cycloheximide inhibits Cryptococcus growth -This is true

  • Question 33: Gram stain reaction for Nocardia -Gram-positive branching rods.

  • Question 34: Organism also sharing similar gram stain reaction with Nocardia -Actinomyces israelii

  • Question 35: Stain for identifying Nocardia -Modified Acid Fast stain

  • Question 36: Disease caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii -Pneumonia

  • Question 37: Stains for visualizing Histoplasma capsulatum and Pneumocystis jirovecii -GMS stain and KOH

  • Question 38: Dermatophyte macroconidia descriptions (Matching)

  • Question 39: Organism descriptions (Matching)

  • Question 40: Incubation conditions for mycology cultures -Incubate at 35-37°C in air; hold plates for 8 weeks.

  • Question 41: Stool samples for Ova and Parasite exams -Two stool samples, one day apart.

  • Question 42: Charcot-Leyden crystals -Degradation products of eosinophils

  • Question 43: Protozoan stages in different stool types -Liquid stools: Cysts. Forme stools: Trophozoites

  • Question 44: Parasitic infection and best specimen for diagnosis (Matching)

  • Question 45: Handling of specimen-related questions (Procedures and processing guidelines for specimen handling and collection)

  • Question 46: Specimens with PVA preservative -Permanent stained smear.

  • Question 47: Specimens and appropriate staining (Matching and procedures for specimens in formalin and other preservatives)

  • Question 48: Intended purposes of procedures (Matching: Procedures and what they do to specimens and diagnoses)

  • Question 49: Plasmodium species characteristics (Matching)

  • Question 50: Plasmodium species causing most severe malaria -Plasmodium falciparum

  • Question 51: Organism and appropriate stain (Matching: organisms and stains based on visual determination)

  • Question 52: Organisms and diseases they cause (Matching)

  • Question 53: Parasitic classification of organisms (Matching)

  • Question 54: Organism descriptions (Matching)

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Test your knowledge on tuberculosis transmission, diagnosis, and microbiological techniques with these study questions. This quiz covers important concepts related to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, including TB skin tests and sputum sample collection. Enhance your understanding of the microbiology surrounding tuberculosis.

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