170 Questions
Which process involves synthesizing macromolecules from building blocks?
Anabolism
What is the primary function of stage 1 in the Anabolism of food?
Production of precursors
Which type of reaction requires energy from ATP for the activation of precursors?
Anabolic reactions
What is the major source of calories in a typical diet according to the text?
Carbohydrates
Which stage involves converting all basic monomers to Acetyl CoA in the Catabolism of food?
Stage Two
In what stage of Anabolism are activated precursors assembled into complex molecules?
Stage Three
What equation represents the relationship between catabolism, anabolism, and metabolism?
Catabolism + Anabolism = Metabolism
Which stage of the Anabolism process involves the activation of precursors into reactive forms?
Stage Two
What does a body mass index (BMI) over 25 signify?
Being overweight
What is described by the term Metabolically Healthy Obesity (MHO)?
Obese individuals with no metabolic complications
What is a possible factor contributing to Metabolically Healthy Obesity (MHO)?
Genetics and inflammatory factors
What is positively associated with Metabolically Healthy Obesity (MHO)?
Absence of metabolic syndrome
Which factor is NOT mentioned as potentially contributing to Metabolically Healthy Obesity (MHO)?
Visceral fat accumulation
How is Metabolically Healthy Obesity (MHO) defined according to the text?
Obesity without metabolic-associated complications
What is the primary emphasis of the text regarding health and body size?
Hold space for individual experiences within health factors
How is obesity defined in the adult world according to the text?
Defined by a body mass index (BMI) over 30
Which of the following vitamins require a transport protein for absorption?
Vitamin B12
During the absorptive state, what happens to glucose?
It is stored as glycogen
Which hormone is dominant in the postabsorptive state?
Glucagon
What is the primary function of the liver in the absorptive state?
Converting glucose to triglycerides
What is the result of insulin resistance?
Increased insulin production
What is the effect of epinephrine on glycogen breakdown?
It increases glycogen breakdown
What is the result of chronically elevated stress hormones on glucose levels?
Increased glucose levels
Which of the following is NOT a target tissue for insulin?
Kidney
Which macronutrient provides twice the amount of energy compared to carbohydrates?
Lipids
What is the primary source of nitrogen for the body?
Proteins
Which of the following macronutrients is stored in the liver and muscles for quick energy availability?
Complex carbohydrates
What are substances formed from linoleic (ω-6) and linolenic (ω-3) acids that are involved in cellular signaling and DNA regulation?
Lipoxins and Resolvins
Which amino acids are considered essential and cannot be synthesized by the body?
Histidine, isoleucine, leucine
Nutrients (except fats) absorbed by the small intestine capillaries are delivered to the liver via which system?
Hepatic Portal System
Which structures in the small intestine greatly enhance the absorption of nutrients due to their large surface area?
Microvilli
What is responsible for creating a hyponatremic intracellular environment in intestinal villus cells?
Na+/K+ Pumps
Which process relies on the movement of sodium through a sodium channel for transporting monosaccharides?
Absorption of carbohydrates
What enzyme is responsible for breaking down proteins in the small intestine?
Trypsin
How are monoglycerides and free fatty acids absorbed into the cells of the small intestine?
Diffusion
Which enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of macromolecules in digestion?
Peptidase
What happens to lipids after they are absorbed into the cells of the small intestine?
They are reformed into triglycerides within the cell
Which enzyme is crucial in breaking down lipids in the small intestine?
Lipase
What is the function of the pancreatic enzyme saccharidase?
Digest carbohydrates and polysaccharides
How are monosaccharides and amino acids absorbed by intestinal cells?
Active transport
What is the percentage of Hb A2 in adult hemoglobin?
1.5-3.5%
What is the function of phagocytic macrophages in the liver, spleen, bone marrow, and lymph nodes?
To break down RBCs
What is the PO2 at which hemoglobin is approximately 78% saturated with oxygen?
40
What is the effect of increased metabolic demand on hemoglobin's oxygen affinity?
It decreases hemoglobin's oxygen affinity
What is the lifespan of platelets in circulation?
9 days
What is the function of granules in granulocytes?
To kill microorganisms and catabolize debris
What is the percentage of neutrophils among total white blood cells?
60-70%
What is the lifespan of mature neutrophils?
4-5 days
What is the function of thrombopoietin (TPO)?
To stimulate platelet synthesis
What is the primary function of leukocytes?
To defend against microorganisms and remove debris
What is the role of albumin in the blood?
Maintenance of colloidal osmotic pressure
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood as mentioned in the text?
Synthesis of glucose
Which type of cells produce immunoglobulins in the blood?
Plasma cells
Which of the following is NOT a function of plasma proteins?
Synthesis of red blood cells
What is the primary function of fibrinogen in the blood?
Clotting
In the blood, which protein plays a vital role in regulating the passage of water and solutes through capillaries?
Albumin
Which of the following components creates oncotic pressure in the vasculature?
Plasma proteins
What is the function of clotting factors in the blood?
Clot formation
Which component of blood is responsible for binding and carrying molecules like iron, copper, and vitamins?
Plasma proteins
What is the primary source of most plasma proteins in the blood?
Liver
What hormone or growth factor increases red blood cell (RBC) production?
Erythropoietin
What is the primary site of hematopoietic stem cells in adults?
Bone Marrow
Which component of blood undergoes differentiation to produce granulocytes and monocytes?
Myeloid precursors
What is the lifespan of mature red blood cells (RBCs)?
120 days
Which vitamin is an important cofactor for the development of red blood cells?
Vitamin B12
What protein in red blood cells is responsible for transporting carbon dioxide (CO2)?
Hemoglobin
Which organ releases Erythropoietin (EPO) when it senses low oxygen levels?
Kidneys
Where do lymphopoietic stem cells become Pro NK and Pro T cells before migrating to differentiate into NK cells and T cells?
Thymus
Which type of bone marrow is characterized by being inactive with a large amount of fat?
Yellow Marrow
What is the function of a tetramer in hemoglobin with respect to oxygen?
Reversibly bind one oxygen molecule
What type of cells contains granules that have toxic chemicals to destroy parasites and viruses?
Eosinophils
Which cells differentiate in the thymus and are critical for cell-mediated immunity?
T-Lymphocytes
Which type of cells are involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
T-Lymphocytes
Which white blood cells can transform into macrophages and travel to sites of inflammation?
Monocytes
What deficiency puts the body at high risk for atypical infections, especially from fungi?
Neutropenia
Which leukocytes originate from lymphoid stem cells and have a kidney-shaped nucleus?
Monocytes
Which cells contain granules that stain blue with basic dye and contain histamine?
Basophils
What is the most common agranulocyte and makes up 30% of total leukocytes?
Lymphocytes
Which leukocytes are characterized by high numbers during Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions and asthma?
Eosinophils
Which cells are similar to mast cells and are involved in allergic and hypersensitivity reactions?
Basophils
What is the primary function of von Willebrand factor in hemostasis?
To act as a carrier protein for Factor VIII
What is the consequence of platelet activation during hemostasis?
Formation of a platelet plug
What is the role of endothelium in normal conditions?
To suppress spontaneous activation of platelets and the clotting system
What is the final step in the process of hemostasis?
Fibrinolysis and the beginning of the healing process
What is the consequence of endothelial damage during hemostasis?
Vasoconstriction and exposure of subendothelial matrix
What is the role of glycoprotein Ib (GPIb) in hemostasis?
To bind to von Willebrand factor
What is the function of tissue factor in hemostasis?
To activate the clotting system
What is the consequence of platelet adhesion during hemostasis?
Formation of a platelet plug
What is the role of fibrin in hemostasis?
To form a clot that reinforces the platelet plug
What is the function of thromboxane A2 during hemostasis?
To cause vasoconstriction
What initiates the production of thromboxane A2 by platelets?
Degranulation of platelets
Which factor in the Common Pathway of the Clotting Cascade converts prothrombin into thrombin?
Factor X
What is the primary function of Antithrombin III in hemostasis?
Inhibiting thrombin
Which enzyme activates plasminogen into plasmin in the lysis of blood clots?
Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
Which deficiency does NOT result in prolonged bleeding according to the text?
Factor XII deficiency
What activates Protein C and S in the presence of the thrombomodulin/thrombin complex?
Thrombin
What is the primary role of Warfarin (coumadin) in hemostasis?
Decreasing thrombin production
Which of the following is a common function of Protein C and S in hemostasis?
Inactivating clotting factors Va and VIIIa
In the intrinsic pathway of the Clotting Cascade, what leads to the activation of Factor XII?
Contact with subendothelial collagen
Which isoform converts arachidonic acid to thromboxane A2 in platelets?
COX-1
What is the primary cause of microcytic-hypochromic anemia?
Iron deficiency
Which type of anemia is caused by a problem with RBC maturation from precursor cells?
Macrocytic anemia
What is the effect of acute blood loss on EPO production?
Increased EPO production
What is the consequence of chronic blood loss if it exceeds the replacement capacity of the bone marrow?
Anemia only occurs
What is the result of decreased RBC production in the bone marrow?
Aplastic anemia
What is the primary mechanism of anemia due to increased RBC destruction?
Increased RBC destruction
What is the consequence of ineffective erythropoiesis?
Macrocytic anemia
What is the primary cause of normocytic-normochromic anemia?
Blood loss
What is the effect of chronic blood loss on iron levels?
Decreased iron levels
What is the primary mechanism of anemia due to blood loss?
Loss of red cells out of the body
What is the main difference between Hemoglobin A and Hemoglobin A2?
Hemoglobin A has two alpha and two beta chains, whereas Hemoglobin A2 has two alpha and two delta chains
What is the primary cause of Anemia of Chronic Disease?
Decreased erythropoiesis and impaired iron utilization in people with chronic systemic disease or inflammation
What is the result of having four beta chains joined together in a hemoglobin molecule?
Hemoglobin H, which is a pathologic hemoglobin variant
What is the primary cause of Polycythemia Vera?
Genetic mutation that leads to the proliferation of erythroid precursor cells in the bone marrow
What is the function of cytochrome b5 reductase in the Embden-Meyerhof Pathway?
To convert Fe+3 to Fe+2 in hemoglobin molecules
What is the result of having four gamma chains joined together in a hemoglobin molecule?
Hemoglobin Barts, which is a fetal hemoglobin variant
What is the primary cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia?
All of the above
What is the primary feature of Thalassemia?
An absence of alpha globin chains in hemoglobin molecules
What is the result of having Hemoglobin with Fe+3 instead of Fe+2?
The hemoglobin molecule cannot bind to oxygen at all
What is the primary cause of Methemoglobinemia?
A genetic mutation that stabilizes iron in the Fe+3 form
What is the primary source of fuel for red blood cells?
Glycolysis
Which pathway converts glucose to pyruvate in red blood cells?
Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
What is the genetic basis of G6PD Deficiency?
X-Linked Recessive
Which stimulus can trigger significant damage to red blood cells in those with G6PD Deficiency?
Infections
Why does the Hexose Monophosphate Shunt take place in red blood cells?
To generate NADH
Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of G6PD Deficiency?
Jaundice
What is the most common trigger of significant symptoms in those with G6PD Deficiency?
Viral Infections
Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Methemoglobinemia?
Hyperthermia
What is the main purpose of the Hexose Monophosphate Shunt in red blood cells?
Generate NADH
What is the primary consequence of lack of NADH in red blood cells with G6PD Deficiency under oxidative stress?
Hemolysis
What is the primary function of bile salts in the digestive process?
Creating emulsification of fats for absorption
What triggers the release of bile salts from the gallbladder into the duodenum?
Entry of fatty acids and amino acids into the duodenum
What is the purpose of creating micelles in the digestive process?
Facilitate the absorption of fats by increasing surface area
Where do triglycerides get reassembled into their original form after absorption into the small intestine cells?
Ileum
What is the fate of triglycerides once they are exocytosed from the cells into the lymphatic channel?
Directly enter the thoracic duct near the heart
What is the main function of bile salts in the digestion and absorption of fats?
Aiding in the emulsification of fats for absorption
What is the viral structure of hepatitis A virus (HAV)?
Linear, single-stranded RNA in a protein coat
Which antibody is diagnostic evidence of recent hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection?
IgM
In which phase of the disease does hepatitis A virus (HAV) typically cause liver cell damage?
Icteric phase
What is the primary mode of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) among sexual workers?
Sexual
Which body fluid has the highest concentration of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)?
Blood
What is a key characteristic of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) that hinders the host immune system's response?
Release of immunogenic decoy particles
What is the primary function of the hepatic portal system in the liver?
Mixing nutrient-rich and oxygen-poor blood from the gut
What is the main role of sinusoids in the liver lobules?
Functioning as the capillaries of the liver
In which zone of the liver lobules do hepatocytes specialize in glycolysis and lipogenesis?
Zone III
What best describes the role of a bile canaliculus in the liver?
Diluted intercellular spaces between hepatocytes
What is the main purpose of liver sinusoids in relation to blood flow?
Allowing significant flow of larger molecules
What distinguishes a bile canaliculus from a duct in the liver?
Intercellular space vs. hollow tubular structure
What is the primary role of conjugated bilirubin in the body?
Turns feces brown upon excretion
Why does the liver convert unsoluble bilirubin into conjugated bilirubin?
To make it water-soluble for excretion
What happens to unconjugated bilirubin after binding to albumin in the bloodstream?
Travels to the liver for conjugation
How is biliverdin produced in the breakdown of hemoglobin?
By separation of globin from heme
When is bilirubin considered a bad thing in the body?
When it is constantly being created in large amounts
Why is the passive process of reabsorption of bile salts in the colon important?
To facilitate the recycling of bile salts
What is one of the major functions of the liver described in the text?
Creation and secretion of bile
Where do the absorbed nutrients go first upon arriving in the body?
Liver
Which vessel carries absorbed nutrients to the liver for processing?
Hepatic portal vein
Apart from filtering, what is another function of the liver mentioned in the text?
Synthesis of plasma proteins
Where does the blood go after traveling through the Hepatic Veins?
Superior vena cava
What does the liver serve as before nutrients enter the general circulation?
A processing site for absorbed nutrients
What is the primary function of HBeAg in Hepatitis B infection?
Reflects active replication of the virus
What is the significance of anti-HBs Ab’s in Hepatitis B infection?
Documents recovery and/or immunity to HBV infection
Which sexually transmitted infection is most commonly transmitted through sharing injection equipment and in healthcare settings?
Hepatitis C
What is the risk of developing cirrhosis of the liver within 20 years for people with chronic HCV infection?
15–30%
Which is the primary cause of Cirrhosis?
Chronic alcohol abuse
What is the primary diagnostic test for assessing the degree of liver damage in patients with chronic Hepatitis C infection?
Liver biopsy
How is chronic Hepatitis C diagnosed after testing positive for anti-HCV antibodies?
Nucleic acid test for HCV RNA
What does cirrhosis of the liver result from?
Chronic inflammation
What causes capillary hydrostatic pressure to exceed capillary osmotic pressure in the context of Cirrhosis?
Reduced serum albumin levels
What is the primary function of anti-HBe in Hepatitis B infection?
Confirms immunity to HBV
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