Medical Statistics and Diagnostics Quiz

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What aspect should a clinician prioritize when evaluating multiple diagnostic tests using a ROC curve?

  • The test with the highest cost-effectiveness
  • The test with the largest area under the curve (AUC) (correct)
  • The test with the lowest false positive rate
  • The test with the highest sensitivity

Which of the following represents an incorrect interpretation of AUC in a ROC plot?

  • AUC closer to 1 means the test is very effective
  • Higher AUC values indicate better test performance
  • AUC of 0 implies a test performs no better than chance
  • AUC of 0.5 indicates an excellent diagnostic test (correct)

Which factor does not constitute a component of a good prognosis?

  • The possible outcome, preferably functional
  • The time frame required to achieve the outcome
  • The estimated cost to achieve that prognosis (correct)
  • The likelihood of the outcome to occur

Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for a higher likelihood of falls?

<p>Body mass index (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a large relative risk indicate about an outcome?

<p>The outcome is more likely to occur with a specific predictor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the evidence level of different study types?

<p>A systematic review has a higher level of evidence than a single RCT. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about primary research is inaccurate?

<p>Review articles are considered primary research. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statistical method is used to determine if observed frequencies significantly differ from expected frequencies?

<p>Chi-square test (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is relative risk interpreted when it equals 0.9?

<p>It signifies a higher risk than chance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a large Odds Ratio indicate?

<p>An outcome is more likely to occur with a specific predictor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about quasi-experimental design is incorrect?

<p>Quasi-experimental designs have better bias control than experimental designs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which correlation coefficient indicates a stronger association?

<p>0.8 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a correct characteristic of secondary research?

<p>Narrative reviews are a form of secondary research. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about relative risk is accurate?

<p>A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference in risk (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines a dependent variable in a study?

<p>The outcome that is measured. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding negative predictive value?

<p>Higher negative predictive values are always preferred (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding confounders is incorrect?

<p>Researchers should control all confounders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes meta-analysis?

<p>Meta-analysis has a comprehensive literature search and focuses on a specific question. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of quasi-experimental designs?

<p>Includes a control group in every situation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When researchers analyze the effects of confounders, they should do which of the following?

<p>Consider confounders during statistical analysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception about secondary research?

<p>Secondary researchers collect their own data. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of inclusion/exclusion criteria in research?

<p>To define the parameters for participant selection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about correlation analysis is true?

<p>A correlation coefficient can be negative. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about research design is false?

<p>RCT is a type of secondary research. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does MCD stand for in statistics?

<p>Minimal Detectable Change (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When comparing treatment effects from two different outcome measures, what should researchers use?

<p>Standardized effect size (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about effect size is incorrect?

<p>An effect size larger than 0.05 is considered small. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is least likely to drop out of a study?

<p>Subjects with high motivation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does MCID stand for?

<p>Minimally Clinically Important Difference (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding inferential statistics is true?

<p>It helps in making conclusions beyond the immediate data. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can result in non-random subject attrition in studies?

<p>Perceived lack of functional gain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group is most inclined to believe the study will be beneficial?

<p>Subjects with prior success in similar programs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of sampling method was used when a researcher invited specific PT clinicians with certain characteristics for a study?

<p>Non-probabilistic, purposive sampling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario illustrates a potentially biased sampling method?

<p>Selecting only graduate students without jobs for a stress study (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sampling method is likely to introduce internal validity threats in an experimental study?

<p>Convenience sampling (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In studying effects on older adults' cognitive function, what was a potential exclusion criterion?

<p>Exclusion of participants with diagnosed dementia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main issue with using snowball sampling in research?

<p>It relies on a non-random selection of subjects (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about group equivalence at baseline is true?

<p>It ensures that all groups are identical in every aspect before treatment (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might participants recruited from a senior sports club not represent the general older adult population?

<p>They are likely healthier than the general population (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sampling method is least likely to be beneficial for an experimental study requiring rigorous internal validity?

<p>Convenience sampling using volunteers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect may occur when a clinician uses a fitness measure suited only for triathlon athletes in a population of poor fitness?

<p>Floor effect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) is incorrect?

<p>A larger SEM makes it easier to detect true changes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly reflects the relationship between responsiveness, SEM, and MDC?

<p>A significantly larger result than MDC indicates a treatment effect. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Minimum Detectable Change (MDC) in clinical practice?

<p>It is the smallest effect that would lead to a change in patient management. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of outcome measures, what does a high Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) imply?

<p>Lower reliability of the test results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to determining Minimum Detectable Change (MDC)?

<p>Rater bias in test administration (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Responsiveness of a measurement instrument is best defined as:

<p>The ability of the instrument to detect true change when it exists. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for MDC to be larger than SEM?

<p>To avoid misinterpretation of measurement error. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Primary Research

Research where the researcher collects data themselves, directly studying a topic.

Secondary Research

Research that analyzes existing studies and data. It's a 'study of studies.'

Quasi-Experimental Design

Quantitative research with intervention, but missing a control group or random assignment.

RCT (Randomized Controlled Trial)

A type of experimental study where participants are randomly assigned to groups.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Level of Evidence

A ranking system for research designs, from lowest (e.g., single RCT) to highest (e.g., systematic review).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Systematic Review

A type of secondary research that analyzes multiple studies to summarize a specific research question.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Meta-analysis

A secondary research method. It combines the results of many studies to produce a summary of the findings.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Review Article

A summary of existing research on a specific topic, often used in secondary research.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ROC Curve

A graph used to evaluate diagnostic tests by plotting true positive rates against false positive rates at various threshold levels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AUC (Area Under the Curve)

An evaluation of the diagnostic test's overall performance. A higher AUC suggests a better test.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Negative Predictive Value

The probability of being disease-free given a negative test result.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Good Prognosis Components

The elements necessary for a positive outcome: potential outcome (functional), its likelihood, and the time required to achieve it.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fall Risk Factors

Characteristics that increase the likelihood of falling, including age, history of falls, and polypharmacy (taking multiple medications).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chi-square Test

A statistical method to determine if an observed frequency distribution is significantly different from an expected or hypothesized frequency distribution.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Odds Ratio

A measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. A large odds ratio suggests a higher likelihood of an outcome with a specific predictor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Relative Risk

A measure of association that quantifies the extent to which a specific risk factor (exposure) increases or decreases a particular outcome prevalence.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Relative Risk of 0.9

Indicates that an outcome is slightly less likely to occur with a specific predictor compared to chance. A value less than 1 suggests a protective effect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Correlation Coefficient

A statistical measure that describes the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables. It ranges from -1 to 1, with 0 indicating no correlation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dependent Variable

The variable being measured or observed in an experiment. It's the outcome or effect that is being studied.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Confounders

Variables that can affect the relationship between the independent and dependent variables, potentially causing misleading results. They aren't part of the study's focus but can influence the outcome.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inclusion/Exclusion Criteria

Specific characteristics that define who can and cannot participate in a research study. They help ensure the study is focused on a relevant population and avoid bias.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Control All Confounders?

Researchers can't control all confounders. It is impossible to completely eliminate all possible extraneous variables in a study.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Confounder Example

If studying the effect of a new medication on gait speed, baseline gait speed (before treatment) is a confounder. Subjects with different baseline speeds may experience different outcomes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Floor Effect

When a test is too difficult for the participants, so most score very low, regardless of their true ability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ceiling Effect

When a test is too easy for the participants, so most score very high, regardless of their true ability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Placebo Effect

When a participant experiences a change in their condition due to the expectation of improvement, regardless of whether they received real treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cause and Effect

A relationship where one event (cause) directly leads to another event (effect).

Signup and view all the flashcards

SEM: Standard Error of Measurement

The amount of variability or 'noise' around a person's true test score. It reflects how accurately the test measures the true value.

Signup and view all the flashcards

MDC: Minimal Detectable Change

The smallest amount of change in a test score that is considered meaningful, taking into account the SEM (variability) of the test.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Responsiveness

The ability of a test to detect meaningful changes in a participant's condition over time.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Treatment Effect

The change in a participant's condition that is directly caused by the intervention or treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

MCID

The smallest difference in an outcome measure that is considered clinically meaningful, indicating a real improvement or decline in a patient's condition.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Effect Size

A standardized measure that quantifies the magnitude of an effect or treatment, indicating how strong the relationship is between variables.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Standardized Effect Size

Used to compare treatment effects across different studies even if the outcome measures are different. It allows researchers to compare apples and oranges!

Signup and view all the flashcards

Subject Attrition

Participants dropping out of a study, which can bias results if it's not random and affects specific groups.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inferential Statistics

Used to draw conclusions about a larger population based on data from a sample. It helps us generalize findings.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Parametric Statistical Methods

Appropriate for data that follows a normal distribution, meaning it's symmetrical with most values clustered around the middle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Why Standardized Effect Size?

Researchers use standardized effect size to make comparisons of treatment effects for two similar studies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Subject Attrition: Who Drops Out?

Subjects with more severe physical limitations, who don't perceive functional gain, or those who have constraints on social support (e.g., transportation issues) are more likely to drop out.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Purposive Sampling

A non-probabilistic sampling method where researchers specifically choose participants based on their characteristics or knowledge relevant to the study.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Convenience Sampling

A non-probabilistic sampling method where researchers recruit participants who are easily accessible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Snowball Sampling

A non-probabilistic sampling method where researchers ask participants to refer other potential participants.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Threats to Internal Validity

Factors that can make it difficult to determine if the independent variable truly caused the changes in the dependent variable.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Group Equivalence at Baseline

Ensuring that the groups in an experiment are similar in terms of relevant variables before the intervention is applied.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Simple Random Sampling

A probabilistic sampling method where every individual in the population has an equal chance of being selected.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Systematic Sampling

A probabilistic sampling method where researchers select individuals from a population at regular intervals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cluster Sampling

A probabilistic sampling method where researchers divide the population into clusters (groups) and then randomly select clusters to participate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

Final Exam Practice Questions

  • The exam is due December 4th at 9 AM.
  • The exam covers 151 points and 77 questions.
  • The exam is available from December 4th at 9 AM to December 8th at 11:30 AM.
  • There is no time limit.
  • The number of allowed attempts is unlimited.
  • The exam closes December 8th at 6 AM.

Attempt History

  • There is a record of past attempts with timestamps and scores.
    • Example: Attempt 2, time 20 minutes, score 143/151.
    • Example: Attempt 1, time 42 minutes, score 117.36/151.

Question 1

  • The question is about foreground questions in physical therapy practice.
  • Incorrect answer is 'How accurate is bone scan to assist clinician in osteoporosis diagnosis?'
  • Correct answers include whether Berg Balance scale or Four Square Step test is a better measure for balance test, risk factors for unfavorable outcomes in patients with low back pain (LBP) receiving PT or if high- or moderate-intensity training is more effective in increasing gait speed in patients with stroke?

Question 2

  • The questions are related to determining a null hypothesis.
  • The correct answer is "We hypothesize that there is no difference between Otago exercise and traditional PT intervention."

Question 3

  • The question is related to alternative hypotheses.
  • Alternative hypotheses are also called research hypotheses.

Question 4

  • The question is related to false statements about hypotheses.
  • The authors suggest that the treatment effect is larger in group A compared to group B.

Question 5

  • The question is about Qualitative research design
  • It focuses on using words to describe a subject's thoughts, opinions, experiences, beliefs, or attitudes.

Question 6

  • The question is about understanding qualitative research design.
  • Qualitative and quantitative research methods can be useful for different situations.
  • Researchers should implement controls to ensure quality.

Question 7

  • The question covers errors related to design based on timing factors.
  • A retrospective study uses old, existing data, while a prospective study collects new data.
  • A cross-sectional study looks at data at one point in time, and a longitudinal study looks at data over a long period of time.

Question 8

  • The question is about understanding level of evidence.
  • Studies using random controlled trials (RCTs) are lower in the level of evidence than systematic reviews.

Question 9

  • The question is related to identifying a correct statement about primary research.
  • A primary research study involves original data collection, while a review article summarizes other studies.

Question 10

  • The question is about distinguishing between quasi-experimental and experimental research.

Question 11

  • The question is about understanding secondary research.
  • The correct answer is that secondary research is "study of studies".

Question 12

  • A secondary research design involves using pre-existing data in a focused research strategy

Question 13

  • The question is related to which type of secondary research has the highest bias control.
  • Meta-analysis is a type of secondary research with high bias control

Question 14

  • This question is related to identifying the type of review that uses a quantitative method to summarize evidence.
  • Meta-analysis is a quantitative method used in reviews.

Question 15

  • The question is about understanding systematic review.
  • It involves a clear strategy for literature searches and summarizes evidence from existing studies, suggesting actions for clinicians.

Question 16

  • The statement about meta-analysis is correct: Meta-analysis is a quantitative method for summarizing evidence from existing studies.

Question 17

  • The question is about benefits of meta-analysis.
  • High-quality meta-analysis increases effect size and sample representativeness.

Question 18

  • The question is about sensitivity and specificity.
  • Sensitivity means accurately identifying people with the condition, while specificity means accurately identifying people without the condition.

Question 19

  • This question is about Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curves.
  • ROC curves are used to evaluate different test scores in terms of their true positive and negative values.

Question 20

  • The question is related to calculating negative predictive value.

Question 21

  • The question is related to prognosis for patient care.
  • It asks about components of good prognosis (e.g., likelihood of outcome) and what's excluded (e.g., estimated cost of treatment).

Question 22

  • The question is about risk factors for falls, and the incorrect answer is Body mass index.

Question 23

  • This question is about statistical method for examination of frequency distribution differences.
  • The correct answer is Chi-square test.

Question 24

  • The question is related to odds ratios.
  • Large odds ratios indicate a higher likelihood of an outcome occurring with a predictor.

Question 25

  • The question is about Relative risk.
  • Large relative risk indicates a higher likelihood of the outcome occurring with a specific predictor.

Question 26

  • This question is about calculating relative risk.

Question 27

  • This is related to calculating correlation coefficients.

Question 28

  • The question defines dependent variables in a study.
  • Dependent variables are the measured outcomes in an experiment.

Question 29

  • This question asks to identify an incorrect statement related to confounders.
  • Researchers use statistical methods to analyze the effect of confounders after data collection.

Question 30

  • The question asks students to identify correct statements about inclusion/exclusion criteria.
  • Exclusion criteria are characteristics that would prevent a subject from participating in a study.

Question 31

  • This is related to what is wrong about probabilistic sampling, including that it's not always applied to qualitative studies.

Question 32

  • This question asks about a sampling type given the method of random number selection.

Question 33

  • This question asks about identification of a sampling type based on a given random number selection strategy

Question 34

  • This question asks what type of sampling is based on a strategy that selects subjects based on clinic assignment

Question 35

  • This question deals with purposive sampling rather than a probabilistic method.

Question 36

  • This question deals with the appropriate experimental design criteria based on sample subject selection.

Question 37

  • This question tests whether students understand sampling methods that introduce the potential threat to internal validity.

Question 38

  • This question assesses understanding of baseline group equivalence in studies.

Question 39

  • This question is related to the methods of blinding in research studies, and the methods involved to reduce bias in results

Question 40

  • This question is about defining the various types of measurement levels, including nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.

Question 41

  • This question focuses on correct methods for reporting outcomes using various levels of measurement.

Question 42

  • The question deals with false statements about level of measurement.

Question 43

  • This question deals with the concepts of reliability and validity in research.

Question 44

  • This question explores the relationship between reliability and validity in research studies.

Question 45

  • This question deals with statements incorrect about test reliability.

Question 46

  • This question is about the different types of reliability, including split-half reliability.

Question 47

  • This question is about internal consistency and test reliability.

Question 48

  • This question deals with the concept of split-half reliability.

Question 49

  • This question covers the necessary type of validity for outcome measures in research studies.

Question 50

  • The question covers content validity and other forms of validity assessment for measures.

Question 51

  • This question deals with an important aspect of outcome measure validity: its relationship to operational definitions.

Question 52

  • This question deals with outcomes measures in research studies.

Question 53

  • The question asks about properties of normative-referenced measures.
  • It addresses the need for a normative database that doesn't change after establishing.

Question 54

  • This question covers the ability of an outcome measure to detect change.

Question 55

  • This question addresses the concept of floor or ceiling effects.

Question 56

  • The question addresses ceiling and floor effects in research, as they relate to outcome measures and subject ability

Question 57

  • This question is about the concepts of standard error of measurement and minimal detectable change.

Question 58

  • This question deals with the relationship between responsiveness, standard error of measurement, and minimal detectable change in research studies.

Question 59

  • The question involves defining the concept of a minimal clinically important difference (MCID).

Question 60

  • This question is about calculating standardized effect sizes.

Question 61

  • This question focuses on using standardized effect sizes when comparing treatment effects from similar studies.

Question 62

  • The topic concerns non-random attrition, discussing reasons for study withdrawal.

Question 63

  • Question covers the core concept of inferential statistic application and use methods that take data distribution into account.

Question 64

  • The question tests understanding of the role of inferential statistics.

Question 65

  • This question asks to identify factors in studies that might require a larger sample size.

Question 66

  • The question covers how data distribution in a sample relates to the size of data range in a confidence interval

Question 67

  • This question tests knowledge about how to calculate Confidence Intervals (CIs), a range of values around means.

Question 68

  • This question evaluates understanding of the impact of effect size and standard deviation on group difference detection.

Question 69

  • This assesses understanding of the impact of effect size and sample size on the detectability of group differences.

Question 70

  • This question checks understanding of confidence intervals and their interpretation in regard to statistical significance.

Question 71

  • The question addresses the concept of alpha level in statistical hypothesis testing.

Question 72

  • This assesses understanding of the concepts of p-value and alpha level and their relationship in rejecting a null-hypothesis

Question 73

  • The question assesses the relationship between the alpha level and the interpretation of the p-value.

Question 74

  • This question is about the effect of statistical power on the ability to detect a true difference.

Question 75

  • This question links statistical power to the sample size needed for a study.

Question 76

  • The question is about statistical power in research studies.

Question 77

  • The question is about factors that affect the choice of statistical tests in research.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser