Medical Statistics and Diagnostics Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What aspect should a clinician prioritize when evaluating multiple diagnostic tests using a ROC curve?

The test with the highest cost-effectiveness

The test with the largest area under the curve (AUC) (correct)

The test with the lowest false positive rate

The test with the highest sensitivity

Which of the following represents an incorrect interpretation of AUC in a ROC plot?

AUC closer to 1 means the test is very effective

Higher AUC values indicate better test performance

AUC of 0 implies a test performs no better than chance

AUC of 0.5 indicates an excellent diagnostic test (correct)

Which factor does not constitute a component of a good prognosis?

The possible outcome, preferably functional

The time frame required to achieve the outcome

The estimated cost to achieve that prognosis (correct)

The likelihood of the outcome to occur

Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for a higher likelihood of falls?

Body mass index Signup and view all the answers

What does a large relative risk indicate about an outcome?

The outcome is more likely to occur with a specific predictor. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the evidence level of different study types?

A systematic review has a higher level of evidence than a single RCT. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about primary research is inaccurate?

Review articles are considered primary research. Signup and view all the answers

Which statistical method is used to determine if observed frequencies significantly differ from expected frequencies?

Chi-square test Signup and view all the answers

How is relative risk interpreted when it equals 0.9?

It signifies a higher risk than chance. Signup and view all the answers

What does a large Odds Ratio indicate?

An outcome is more likely to occur with a specific predictor Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about quasi-experimental design is incorrect?

Quasi-experimental designs have better bias control than experimental designs. Signup and view all the answers

Which correlation coefficient indicates a stronger association?

0.8 Signup and view all the answers

What is a correct characteristic of secondary research?

Narrative reviews are a form of secondary research. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about relative risk is accurate?

A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference in risk Signup and view all the answers

What defines a dependent variable in a study?

The outcome that is measured. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding negative predictive value?

Higher negative predictive values are always preferred Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding confounders is incorrect?

Researchers should control all confounders. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes meta-analysis?

Meta-analysis has a comprehensive literature search and focuses on a specific question. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of quasi-experimental designs?

Includes a control group in every situation. Signup and view all the answers

When researchers analyze the effects of confounders, they should do which of the following?

Consider confounders during statistical analysis. Signup and view all the answers

What is a common misconception about secondary research?

Secondary researchers collect their own data. Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of inclusion/exclusion criteria in research?

To define the parameters for participant selection. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about correlation analysis is true?

A correlation coefficient can be negative. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about research design is false?

RCT is a type of secondary research. Signup and view all the answers

What does MCD stand for in statistics?

Minimal Detectable Change Signup and view all the answers

When comparing treatment effects from two different outcome measures, what should researchers use?

Standardized effect size Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about effect size is incorrect?

An effect size larger than 0.05 is considered small. Signup and view all the answers

Who is least likely to drop out of a study?

Subjects with high motivation Signup and view all the answers

What does MCID stand for?

Minimally Clinically Important Difference Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding inferential statistics is true?

It helps in making conclusions beyond the immediate data. Signup and view all the answers

What can result in non-random subject attrition in studies?

Perceived lack of functional gain Signup and view all the answers

Which group is most inclined to believe the study will be beneficial?

Subjects with prior success in similar programs Signup and view all the answers

What type of sampling method was used when a researcher invited specific PT clinicians with certain characteristics for a study?

Non-probabilistic, purposive sampling Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario illustrates a potentially biased sampling method?

Selecting only graduate students without jobs for a stress study Signup and view all the answers

Which sampling method is likely to introduce internal validity threats in an experimental study?

Convenience sampling Signup and view all the answers

In studying effects on older adults' cognitive function, what was a potential exclusion criterion?

Exclusion of participants with diagnosed dementia Signup and view all the answers

What is the main issue with using snowball sampling in research?

It relies on a non-random selection of subjects Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about group equivalence at baseline is true?

It ensures that all groups are identical in every aspect before treatment Signup and view all the answers

Why might participants recruited from a senior sports club not represent the general older adult population?

They are likely healthier than the general population Signup and view all the answers

Which sampling method is least likely to be beneficial for an experimental study requiring rigorous internal validity?

Convenience sampling using volunteers Signup and view all the answers

What effect may occur when a clinician uses a fitness measure suited only for triathlon athletes in a population of poor fitness?

Floor effect Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) is incorrect?

A larger SEM makes it easier to detect true changes. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly reflects the relationship between responsiveness, SEM, and MDC?

A significantly larger result than MDC indicates a treatment effect. Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Minimum Detectable Change (MDC) in clinical practice?

It is the smallest effect that would lead to a change in patient management. Signup and view all the answers

In the context of outcome measures, what does a high Standard Error of Measurement (SEM) imply?

Lower reliability of the test results. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to determining Minimum Detectable Change (MDC)?

Rater bias in test administration Signup and view all the answers

Responsiveness of a measurement instrument is best defined as:

The ability of the instrument to detect true change when it exists. Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for MDC to be larger than SEM?

To avoid misinterpretation of measurement error. Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Final Exam Practice Questions

The exam is due December 4th at 9 AM.
The exam covers 151 points and 77 questions.
The exam is available from December 4th at 9 AM to December 8th at 11:30 AM.
There is no time limit.
The number of allowed attempts is unlimited.
The exam closes December 8th at 6 AM.

Attempt History

There is a record of past attempts with timestamps and scores.
- Example: Attempt 2, time 20 minutes, score 143/151.
- Example: Attempt 1, time 42 minutes, score 117.36/151.

Question 1

The question is about foreground questions in physical therapy practice.
Incorrect answer is 'How accurate is bone scan to assist clinician in osteoporosis diagnosis?'
Correct answers include whether Berg Balance scale or Four Square Step test is a better measure for balance test, risk factors for unfavorable outcomes in patients with low back pain (LBP) receiving PT or if high- or moderate-intensity training is more effective in increasing gait speed in patients with stroke?

Question 2

The questions are related to determining a null hypothesis.
The correct answer is "We hypothesize that there is no difference between Otago exercise and traditional PT intervention."

Question 3

The question is related to alternative hypotheses.
Alternative hypotheses are also called research hypotheses.

Question 4

The question is related to false statements about hypotheses.
The authors suggest that the treatment effect is larger in group A compared to group B.

Question 5

The question is about Qualitative research design
It focuses on using words to describe a subject's thoughts, opinions, experiences, beliefs, or attitudes.

Question 6

The question is about understanding qualitative research design.
Qualitative and quantitative research methods can be useful for different situations.
Researchers should implement controls to ensure quality.

Question 7

The question covers errors related to design based on timing factors.
A retrospective study uses old, existing data, while a prospective study collects new data.
A cross-sectional study looks at data at one point in time, and a longitudinal study looks at data over a long period of time.

Question 8

The question is about understanding level of evidence.
Studies using random controlled trials (RCTs) are lower in the level of evidence than systematic reviews.

Question 9

The question is related to identifying a correct statement about primary research.
A primary research study involves original data collection, while a review article summarizes other studies.

Question 10

The question is about distinguishing between quasi-experimental and experimental research.

Question 11

The question is about understanding secondary research.
The correct answer is that secondary research is "study of studies".

Question 12

A secondary research design involves using pre-existing data in a focused research strategy

Question 13

The question is related to which type of secondary research has the highest bias control.
Meta-analysis is a type of secondary research with high bias control

Question 14

This question is related to identifying the type of review that uses a quantitative method to summarize evidence.
Meta-analysis is a quantitative method used in reviews.

Question 15

The question is about understanding systematic review.
It involves a clear strategy for literature searches and summarizes evidence from existing studies, suggesting actions for clinicians.

Question 16

The statement about meta-analysis is correct: Meta-analysis is a quantitative method for summarizing evidence from existing studies.

Question 17

The question is about benefits of meta-analysis.
High-quality meta-analysis increases effect size and sample representativeness.

Question 18

The question is about sensitivity and specificity.
Sensitivity means accurately identifying people with the condition, while specificity means accurately identifying people without the condition.

Question 19

This question is about Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curves.
ROC curves are used to evaluate different test scores in terms of their true positive and negative values.

Question 20

The question is related to calculating negative predictive value.

Question 21

The question is related to prognosis for patient care.
It asks about components of good prognosis (e.g., likelihood of outcome) and what's excluded (e.g., estimated cost of treatment).

Question 22

The question is about risk factors for falls, and the incorrect answer is Body mass index.

Question 23

This question is about statistical method for examination of frequency distribution differences.
The correct answer is Chi-square test.

Question 24

The question is related to odds ratios.
Large odds ratios indicate a higher likelihood of an outcome occurring with a predictor.

Question 25

The question is about Relative risk.
Large relative risk indicates a higher likelihood of the outcome occurring with a specific predictor.

Question 26

This question is about calculating relative risk.

Question 27

This is related to calculating correlation coefficients.

Question 28

The question defines dependent variables in a study.
Dependent variables are the measured outcomes in an experiment.

Question 29

This question asks to identify an incorrect statement related to confounders.
Researchers use statistical methods to analyze the effect of confounders after data collection.

Question 30

The question asks students to identify correct statements about inclusion/exclusion criteria.
Exclusion criteria are characteristics that would prevent a subject from participating in a study.

Question 31

This is related to what is wrong about probabilistic sampling, including that it's not always applied to qualitative studies.

Question 32

This question asks about a sampling type given the method of random number selection.

Question 33

This question asks about identification of a sampling type based on a given random number selection strategy

Question 34

This question asks what type of sampling is based on a strategy that selects subjects based on clinic assignment

Question 35

This question deals with purposive sampling rather than a probabilistic method.

Question 36

This question deals with the appropriate experimental design criteria based on sample subject selection.

Question 37

This question tests whether students understand sampling methods that introduce the potential threat to internal validity.

Question 38

This question assesses understanding of baseline group equivalence in studies.

Question 39

This question is related to the methods of blinding in research studies, and the methods involved to reduce bias in results

Question 40

This question is about defining the various types of measurement levels, including nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.

Question 41

This question focuses on correct methods for reporting outcomes using various levels of measurement.

Question 42

The question deals with false statements about level of measurement.

Question 43

This question deals with the concepts of reliability and validity in research.

Question 44

This question explores the relationship between reliability and validity in research studies.

Question 45

This question deals with statements incorrect about test reliability.

Question 46

This question is about the different types of reliability, including split-half reliability.

Question 47

This question is about internal consistency and test reliability.

Question 48

This question deals with the concept of split-half reliability.

Question 49

This question covers the necessary type of validity for outcome measures in research studies.

Question 50

The question covers content validity and other forms of validity assessment for measures.

Question 51

This question deals with an important aspect of outcome measure validity: its relationship to operational definitions.

Question 52

This question deals with outcomes measures in research studies.

Question 53

The question asks about properties of normative-referenced measures.
It addresses the need for a normative database that doesn't change after establishing.

Question 54

This question covers the ability of an outcome measure to detect change.

Question 55

This question addresses the concept of floor or ceiling effects.

Question 56

The question addresses ceiling and floor effects in research, as they relate to outcome measures and subject ability

Question 57

This question is about the concepts of standard error of measurement and minimal detectable change.

Question 58

This question deals with the relationship between responsiveness, standard error of measurement, and minimal detectable change in research studies.

Question 59

The question involves defining the concept of a minimal clinically important difference (MCID).

Question 60

This question is about calculating standardized effect sizes.

Question 61

This question focuses on using standardized effect sizes when comparing treatment effects from similar studies.

Question 62

The topic concerns non-random attrition, discussing reasons for study withdrawal.

Question 63

Question covers the core concept of inferential statistic application and use methods that take data distribution into account.

Question 64

The question tests understanding of the role of inferential statistics.

Question 65

This question asks to identify factors in studies that might require a larger sample size.

Question 66

The question covers how data distribution in a sample relates to the size of data range in a confidence interval

Question 67

This question tests knowledge about how to calculate Confidence Intervals (CIs), a range of values around means.

Question 68

This question evaluates understanding of the impact of effect size and standard deviation on group difference detection.

Question 69

This assesses understanding of the impact of effect size and sample size on the detectability of group differences.

Question 70

This question checks understanding of confidence intervals and their interpretation in regard to statistical significance.

Question 71

The question addresses the concept of alpha level in statistical hypothesis testing.

Question 72

This assesses understanding of the concepts of p-value and alpha level and their relationship in rejecting a null-hypothesis

Question 73

The question assesses the relationship between the alpha level and the interpretation of the p-value.

Question 74

This question is about the effect of statistical power on the ability to detect a true difference.

Question 75

This question links statistical power to the sample size needed for a study.

Question 76

The question is about statistical power in research studies.

Question 77

The question is about factors that affect the choice of statistical tests in research.

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Description

Test your knowledge on medical statistics and the interpretation of ROC curves, AUC, and prognosis factors. This quiz covers key concepts in diagnostic testing, including risk factors, relative risk, and correlation coefficients. Enhance your understanding of crucial statistical methods in healthcare.