Medical Assessment and Diagnosis Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What does the Lachman test specifically assess for?

  • ACL integrity (correct)
  • Medial collateral ligament integrity
  • Lateral collateral ligament damage
  • Meniscal damage
  • What is the primary purpose of the McMurray test?

  • To check for ligament stability
  • To determine meniscal tears (correct)
  • To assess for ACL injuries
  • To evaluate knee flexion
  • Which nervous system arises from the craniosacral segment of the spinal cord?

  • Sympathetic nervous system
  • Parasympathetic nervous system (correct)
  • Central nervous system
  • Somatic nervous system
  • What is the main characteristic of ischemic strokes?

    <p>Caused by blood vessel blockages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings is most likely associated with a left parietal lobe ischemic stroke?

    <p>Speech impairments</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In older adults, what common change is observed in the nervous system?

    <p>Reduced cerebral blood flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is tested during the pivot shift test?

    <p>ACL stability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a symptom of hemorrhagic strokes?

    <p>Seizures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic deformity associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

    <p>Swan-neck deformity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings indicates the need for an X-ray when assessing an ankle injury?

    <p>Inability to bear weight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in assessing an ankle injury?

    <p>Visual Inspection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of back pain related to the sciatic nerve?

    <p>Herniated disc</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following symptoms would likely present during the later stages of appendicitis?

    <p>Fever and generalized pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary treatment strategy for an ankle injury if X-ray is needed?

    <p>RICE Protocol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In assessing for sciatic pain, which test is commonly used?

    <p>Straight leg raise test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a component of the treatment plan for an ankle injury?

    <p>Antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age should cervical cancer screening with Pap tests begin?

    <p>21 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How often should a Pap test be conducted for women aged 21 to 29?

    <p>Every 3 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive Murphy's sign indicate?

    <p>Acute Cholecystitis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a suggested lifestyle modification for managing heartburn?

    <p>Increasing body weight</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication class is NOT commonly used to relieve heartburn?

    <p>Antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is a positive Murphy's sign elicited?

    <p>Palpating the right upper quadrant while the patient inhales</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physical maneuver can indicate irritation of the peritoneum during an abdominal exam?

    <p>Rebound tenderness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What can cervical cancer screening results lead to for women over 30 years of age with consistent negative tests?

    <p>Stop screening until age 65</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an example of an acute abdominal emergency?

    <p>Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings is NOT typically associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

    <p>Rebound tenderness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the obturator sign help assess?

    <p>Inflammation of the appendix</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is NOT a sign of a surgical abdomen?

    <p>Increased appetite</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the obturator sign assessment, what position is the individual's knee typically in?

    <p>Flexed to a 90 degree angle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What finding would typically indicate a positive diagnosis for PID?

    <p>Cervical motion tenderness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of the cough test during an abdominal examination?

    <p>To check for intra-abdominal pain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the first step in assessing rebound tenderness?

    <p>Applying firm pressure to the abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the predominant cause of radiculopathy as mentioned?

    <p>Disc herniation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which group is radiculopathy more prevalent?

    <p>Males</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is a comprehensive history typically used?

    <p>When the condition is complex</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a focused history primarily concentrate on?

    <p>Chief complaint and related systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a positive Lasègue’s straight leg raising sign?

    <p>Radiculopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation would a detailed review of systems (ROS) be most beneficial?

    <p>When symptoms are nonspecific and vague</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the average patient age of those suffering from radiculopathy?

    <p>45 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What additional symptom may indicate the presence of radiculopathy?

    <p>Numbness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is specifically associated with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

    <p>Hematuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic would indicate a normal prostate examination?

    <p>Heart-shaped and smooth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which organism is primarily responsible for uncomplicated urinary tract infections?

    <p>Escherichia coli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an upper urinary tract infection?

    <p>Increased frequency of urination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would an abnormal finding feel like during a testicular examination?

    <p>Firm, bumpy, and tender</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical characteristic of the epididymis in a healthy individual?

    <p>Soft and wormlike</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is commonly associated with pyelonephritis during an upper UTI?

    <p>Nausea and Vomiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would indicate a normal testicular examination?

    <p>Smooth and movable surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Vaginal Infections

    • Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is characterized by an imbalance of vaginal flora, primarily an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria
    • Trichomoniasis (TV) is a sexually transmitted protozoan parasite
    • BV symptoms often include a fishy odor, vaginal discharge, and irritation. TV symptoms may present with itching, burning, and frothy discharge, but many cases are asymptomatic
    • Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is caused by an alteration in vaginal pH associated with changes in bacterial levels
    • Vaginal candidiasis (thrush) is caused by an overgrowth of Candida organisms in the vagina
    • Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by Trichomonas vaginalis
    • BV is characterized by a thin, gray vaginal discharge, usually without irritation. Smell may be present
    • TV is characterized by a yellow-green or frothy vaginal discharge, often with vulvar irritation.
    • Vaginal candidiasis is characterized by a thick, cottage cheese-like vaginal discharge, with vulvar irritation present.

    Common Causes of Erectile Dysfunction

    • Erectile dysfunction (ED) can be caused by various factors, including vascular, neurogenic, hormonal, anatomic, drug-induced, or psychological issues
    • A thorough patient history is crucial in identifying the possible cause
    • A detailed evaluation should include factors like endocrine, vascular, and neurological deficits and penile abnormalities

    Cranial Nerves

    • Olfactory (I): Sensory nerve for smell. Tested by having the patient smell various aromatic substances.
    • Optic (II): Sensory nerve for vision. Tested by using a Snellen chart and peripheral vision tests
    • Occulomotor (III): Motor nerve controlling eye movements. Tested by having the patient follow a pen or object with their eyes, and by assessing pupillary response to light
    • Trochlear (IV): Motor nerve controlling eye movements. Tested similar to cranial nerve III.
    • Trigeminal (V): Mixed nerve for facial sensation and chewing muscles. Can test sensory through touching the cornea, and motor by asking patient to clench their teeth.
    • Abducens (VI): Motor nerve controlling eye movements. Tested similar to cranial nerves III and IV
    • Facial (VII): Mixed nerve for facial expression and taste. Tested by asking the patient to smile, frown, puff cheeks, and by testing taste on anterior tongue 2/3.
    • Vestibulocochlear (VIII): Sensory nerve for hearing and balance. Tested by using a tuning fork for hearing and tests for balance
    • Glossopharyngeal (IX): Mixed nerve for taste and swallowing. Tested by asking the patient to speak and swallow, as well as for posterior tongue tastes.
    • Vagus (X): Mixed nerve for many functions, including swallowing, breathing, and heart rate. Tested similar to IX.
    • Spinal Accessory (XI): Motor nerve for neck and shoulder movements. Tested by observing neck and shoulder strength.
    • Hypoglossal (XII): Motor nerve controlling tongue movements. Tested by asking the patient to stick out their tongue and move it from side to side.

    Cranial Nerve Testing Procedures

    • Olfactory (I): Assessing smell by having the patient identify different aromatic substances.
    • Optic (II): Evaluating visual acuity using a Snellen chart and assessing peripheral vision.
    • Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), and Abducens (VI): Assessing eye movements in response to light and object tracking.
    • Trigeminal (V): Testing sensory function by lightly touching the cornea and assessing ability to clench teeth.
    • Facial (VII): Assessing facial muscle strength and taste sensation by asking the patient to smile, frown, close eyes, and test taste (anterior 2/3 tongue). 
    • Vestibulocochlear (VIII): Testing hearing using a tuning fork and balance using a Romberg test.
    • Glossopharyngeal (IX) and Vagus (X): Assessing the functions of the pharynx including gag reflex, and swallowing, including phonation.
    • Spinal Accessory (XI): Assessing neck and shoulder muscle strength. Having the patient shrug and turn their head and look to one side assesses muscle strength.
    • Hypoglossal (XII): Assessing tongue movement by asking the patient to stick out their tongue and move it.

    Abdominal Pain Conditions

    • Various conditions can cause abdominal pain, categorized by quadrant (RUQ, LUQ, RLQ, LLQ)

    • Specific examples include (but aren't limited to) appendicitis, pancreatitis, gallbladder issues, kidney issues, and reproductive system problems including ectopic pregnancy, ovarian cysts etc.

    • Appendicitis, for example, presents with pain in the RLQ that might initially be periumbilical.

    • Additional clinical signs associated with appendicitis include Rovsing's Sign, Psoas Sign, and Obturator Sign

    • Signs for other conditions can vary

    • A detailed history and physical exam are essential for proper diagnosis

    Abdominal Emergency

    • Certain conditions need immediate attention (e.g., acute appendicitis, ectopic pregnancy, ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), and intestinal obstruction).
    • Symptoms/signs of these conditions can vary, but it's crucial to be aware of possible red flags that could indicate an emergent condition.

    Ankle Injuries

    • Physical examination is key, involving inspection, palpation, and range-of-motion assessment to assess swelling, discoloration and misalignment of the joint which can indicate a fracture or dislocation.
    • Specific tests may be performed, including anterior drawer and talar tilt tests for potential ligamentous damage and Thompson test for Achilles tendon rupture.

    Knee Injuries

    • ROM Tests: Used to assess the range of motion and flexibility of the knee joint.
    • Lachman Test: Assesses the integrity of the ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) by determining stability during knee movement.
    • Anterior Drawer Test: Evaluating the anterior stability of the knee and ACL by assessing the tibia's anterior movement.
    • Pivot Shift Test: Assessing anterolateral instability of the knee, particularly if there is ACL damage.
    • McMurray Test: Evaluating for meniscal tears by applying rotational forces while flexing and extending the knee.
    • Valgus/Varus Stress Tests: Used to assess the integrity of medial and lateral collateral ligaments by applying stress forces in different direction.

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    Exam 2 PDF - Medical Past Paper

    Description

    Test your knowledge on various medical assessments and diagnostic tests, including the Lachman and McMurray tests. This quiz also covers stroke characteristics, ankle injuries, and rheumatoid arthritis. Perfect for medical students or healthcare professionals seeking to refresh their understanding.

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