Male Genital Examination

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Questions and Answers

In the context of a male genital examination, what is the most critical initial step in managing a patient who expresses apprehension or anxiety regarding the procedure?

  • Administer a mild sedative to alleviate the patient's anxiety and ensure cooperation.
  • Thoroughly explain each step of the examination, addressing potential concerns and reassuring the patient about the procedure's purpose and normalcy. (correct)
  • Request the immediate presence of a senior physician to handle the apprehensive patient.
  • Immediately proceed with the examination while providing minimal explanation to expedite the process.

What is the most appropriate course of action when a patient undergoing a male genital examination develops an erection?

  • Acknowledge the physiological response as normal and proceed with the examination in a calm, professional manner. (correct)
  • Administer an anti-androgenic medication to resolve the erection and continue the examination.
  • Immediately halt the examination and reschedule for a later date.
  • Document the occurrence as a sign of potential underlying sexual dysfunction.

In what manner should a clinician proceed if a patient explicitly refuses to undergo a male genital examination?

  • Proceed with the examination regardless, as the clinician's judgment supersedes patient refusal in a medical setting.
  • Employ therapeutic techniques, exploring their reasons for refusal to overcome their reluctance.
  • Document the refusal and proceed with alternative diagnostic methods or referrals if deemed necessary. (correct)
  • Immediately transfer the patient's care to another physician to avoid confrontation.

Which modification to the standard male genital examination protocol is most appropriate to maximize patient comfort when performing the examination in the supine position?

<p>Ensure the gown covers the patient's chest and abdomen, with a drape placed at the midthigh, exposing only the area being examined. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of the Sexual Maturity Rating (Tanner Stages) in the context of a male genital examination, particularly in adolescent patients undergoing evaluation?

<p>It provides a standardized framework for documenting the patient's sexual development, allowing for more accurate assessment and comparison to normative data. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the inspection of the penis, which specific maneuver is most effective for accurately assessing the urethral meatus for potential abnormalities or the presence of discharge?

<p>Compressing the glans gently between the index finger and thumb to open the urethral meatus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique is most appropriate for eliciting a urethral discharge in a patient reporting such, particularly when no spontaneous discharge is observed during initial inspection?

<p>Instructing or performing the 'milking' of the penile shaft from base to glans to express any discharge through the meatus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What diagnostic information can be derived from the characteristics (e.g., color, consistency) of a urethral discharge obtained during a male genital examination, and how should these findings guide subsequent clinical management?

<p>The quality of the discharge is only a clue; definitive diagnosis requires Gram stain and culture to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate treatment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During palpation of the penile shaft, what is the most critical technique for identifying subtle induration or plaques indicative of conditions such as Peyronie's disease or urethral strictures?

<p>Using a light, rolling motion with the thumb and first two fingers to systematically assess the dorsal and ventral surfaces. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following retraction of the foreskin during a penile examination, what is the immediate next step a clinician should take to ensure patient safety and prevent potential complications?

<p>Replace the foreskin to its original position to prevent paraphimosis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During inspection of the scrotum, what technique is employed to thoroughly assess the posterior surface and identify potential lesions or abnormalities?

<p>Lifting the scrotum to inspect its posterior surface directly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the key differentiating features of scrotal lesions suggestive of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) versus benign dermatological conditions, and how do these distinctions influence diagnostic and therapeutic approaches?

<p>STIs may include condylomata or ulcers from herpes and chancroid (painful) and syphilis and lymphogranuloma venereum (painless), often with associated inguinal lymphadenopathy, whereas benign conditions lack these features. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cryptorchidism typically manifest during scrotal inspection, and what potential long-term complications are associated with this condition if left unaddressed?

<p>As a poorly developed scrotum on one or both sides, potentially leading to infertility and increased risk of testicular cancer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the subtle yet critical distinctions between the palpation techniques used to differentiate between a testicular tumor, epididymitis, and testicular torsion in a patient presenting with acute scrotal pain and swelling?

<p>Testicular tumors are characterized by a painless nodule within the testis, epididymitis presents with tenderness localized to the epididymis, and torsion exhibits severe pain with a high-riding testis and absent cremasteric reflex. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the palpation of the epididymis performed without applying excessive pressure, and what key characteristics differentiate the normal nodular and cord-like texture of the epididymis from an abnormal mass or lesion?

<p>Excessive pressure can induce a vasovagal response; the normal epididymis feels nodular and cord-like, while an abnormal lump is distinct and may be tender. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During examination of the spermatic cord, what are the key distinguishing features between a normal vas deferens, a chronically infected vas deferens, and a hydrocele of the cord upon palpation?

<p>A normal vas deferens feels slightly stiff and tubular, a chronically infected vas deferens may feel thickened or beaded, and a hydrocele of the cord feels like a cystic structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the recommended patient positioning techniques for optimizing the detection of groin hernias during physical examination, and how do these positions influence the sensitivity and specificity of the examination?

<p>The patient may be examined either standing or sitting, but standing is preferred as it increases intra-abdominal pressure, which may make hernias more apparent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the key differentiating features between indirect, direct, and femoral hernias upon physical examination, focusing on their anatomical location, relationship to the inguinal canal, and typical patient demographics?

<p>Indirect hernias touch the fingertip when coming down the inguinal canal, direct hernias bulge anteriorly and push the side of the finger forward, and femoral hernias are more common in women and protrude above the inguinal ligament. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In differentiating between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia, what specific palpation technique is employed to determine the hernia's relationship to the deep inguinal ring?

<p>Having the patient cough while the examiner's finger is placed over the deep inguinal ring; an impulse felt at the fingertip suggests an indirect hernia, while a bulge felt against the side of the finger suggests a direct hernia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the implications of identifying a femoral hernia during a male genital examination, considering its anatomical location and the patient's gender, and how does this finding influence subsequent diagnostic and management strategies?

<p>A femoral hernia in a male patient is rare and may indicate increased intra-abdominal pressure or connective tissue weakness; further imaging is often warranted to rule out other pathology. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the pathophysiological rationale for the recommendation to review a younger patient's sexual maturity rating (Tanner stage) during a male genital examination, and which specific clinical findings correlate with specific Tanner stages?

<p>To accurately document the patient's sexual development and compare it to normative data, identifying potential endocrine abnormalities or delayed puberty; specific findings include testicular size, penile length, and the presence/characteristics of pubic hair. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of penile examination, how would one clinically differentiate between phimosis and paraphimosis, considering their respective definitions and potential complications?

<p>Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin, while paraphimosis is the inability to reduce a retracted foreskin, potentially leading to edema and ischemia of the glans. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of identifying smegma during a penile examination, and what patient education should be provided regarding its management?

<p>Smegma is a normal accumulation of epithelial cells and oils under the foreskin, and patients should be educated on proper hygiene to prevent its buildup and potential irritation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do hypospadias and epispadias present differently during a penile examination, and what are the potential implications of these congenital anomalies?

<p>Hypospadias is a ventral displacement of the urethral meatus, while epispadias is a dorsal displacement; both can affect urinary and reproductive function and may require surgical correction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of evaluating scrotal contours, what key differences exist between the physical examination findings of a hydrocele, varicocele, and testicular torsion?

<p>A hydrocele transilluminates brightly, a varicocele feels like a bag of worms and does not transilluminate, and testicular torsion presents a high-riding, exquisitely tender testis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical relevance of properly palpating the spermatic cord during a male genital examination, and what are the clinical signs of its pathology?

<p>To detect hydroceles, varicoceles, and masses, and assess the presence/absence of the vas deferens, aiding in the diagnosis of various scrotal pathologies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During examination for groin hernias, what specific instructions should be given to the patient to optimize the evaluation, and what physical findings would suggest the presence of each type of hernia?

<p>Instruct the patient to bear down or cough, and observe the presence and location of any bulges; indirect hernias present at the internal inguinal ring, direct hernias at the external ring, and femoral hernias inferior to the inguinal ligament. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical management approach of an inguinal hernia?

<p>Surgical corrections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a clinician differentiate a hydrocele/varicocele from an inguinal hernia on physical examination?

<p>Hydroceles will transilluminate, varicoceles will feel like a bag of worms, and inguinal hernias will not have these characteristics. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary differential diagnosis for a patient with acute scrotal pain and swelling, and what clinical findings would lead you to suspect each condition?

<p>Testicular torsion, epididymitis, and testicular tumor; clinical findings may include location of swelling and presence of pain. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of inguinal lymphadenopathy in the context of a male genital examination, and how does its presence or absence influence your differential diagnosis?

<p>Inguinal lymphadenopathy might be associated with local infection, inflammation or a malignancy. Its absence may indicate more complicated infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a male genital examination, what specific steps should be taken to ensure appropriate infection control and prevent the transmission of infectious agents?

<p>Washing hands thoroughly pre- and post examination, wearing gloves at all times, and appropriate disinfection of instruments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining the scrotum, what clinical signs and symptoms should an examiner look for that might be associated with a fungal infection?

<p>Erythema and mild excoriation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate way to palpate the testes to ensure accurate findings?

<p>Using a one-handed or two-handed technique to palpate each testis between thumb and fingers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'milking' refer to in the context of a male genital exam?

<p>Manual compression of the penile shaft to express urethral discharge. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific aspects should be noted when documenting lesions on the scrotum?

Signup and view all the answers

During a male genital examination, a patient expresses concerns about potential discomfort. What preemptive strategy would most effectively mitigate this anxiety, optimizing patient cooperation and diagnostic accuracy?

<p>Employing a detailed, step-by-step explanation of each maneuver, coupled with the use of nuanced, trauma-informed language, tailored to the patient's expressed level of comprehension and anxiety. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event a patient undergoing a male genital examination experiences an involuntary erection, what is the most judicious clinical response that respects patient dignity while enabling the continuation of the necessary diagnostic procedures?

<p>Acknowledge the physiological response as potentially normal and, with calm demeanor, proceed with the examination, focusing on the clinical objectives and minimizing any undue attention to the erection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient vehemently refuses to undergo a male genital examination despite a clear clinical indication for such an assessment. What is the most ethically and clinically sound approach a practitioner should adopt?

<p>Engage in a detailed exploration of the patient’s reasons for refusal, providing comprehensive information about the potential risks of foregoing the examination, documenting the discussion, and respecting the patient’s ultimate decision. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In performing a male genital examination on a patient in the supine position, what specific modification to the standard protocol maximizes exposure while ensuring the patient's sense of modesty and comfort are rigorously maintained?

<p>Utilizing a full-body drape, with a small, strategically positioned fenestration specifically aligned to expose only the immediate anatomical area being examined, minimizing incidental exposure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pediatric male genital examinations, how does an awareness of Tanner staging pragmatically inform and refine the clinical evaluation, optimizing diagnostic accuracy and therapeutic decision-making?

<p>It provides a standardized framework for assessing the progression of secondary sexual characteristics, enabling differentiation between normal pubertal development, precocious puberty, and delayed puberty, thus guiding targeted investigations and interventions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the penile inspection, what specific procedural modification most effectively optimizes visualization of the urethral meatus, facilitating accurate assessment for subtle morphological anomalies or occult discharge?

<p>Applying gentle, bimanual compression to the glans along the vertical axis, utilizing index finger and thumb, thereby everting the meatal lips and maximizing exposure of the urethral orifice. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient reports urethral discharge, but none is evident upon initial examination, what highly sensitive provocative maneuver should be employed to maximize the likelihood of eliciting a sample for diagnostic evaluation?

<p>Systematically 'milking' the penile shaft from base to glans to express any non-visible discharge from within the urethra. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the macroscopic characteristics of a urethral discharge (color, consistency, and volume) be interpreted to guide immediate diagnostic stratification and refine the differential diagnosis of infectious urethritis?

<p>Utilizing macroscopic features primarily as qualitative indicators to guide the selection of targeted molecular diagnostic assays, such as PCR, optimizing sensitivity and specificity for specific pathogens. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During palpation of the penile shaft, what precise bimanual technique, incorporating both dynamic and static assessment, maximizes the sensitivity for detecting subtle induration indicative of early-stage Peyronie's disease or urethral strictures?

<p>Utilizing a rolling palpation technique, applying gentle lateral pressure with the palmar surface of the index and middle fingers while simultaneously anchoring the penile shaft with the contralateral hand, systematically assessing for textural irregularities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Immediately following foreskin retraction during a penile examination, what specific prophylactic measure should be implemented to mitigate the risk of iatrogenic paraphimosis and ensure patient safety?

<p>Carefully replace the foreskin to its original, non-retracted position, confirming complete coverage of the glans to prevent potential constriction and edema. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific bimanual technique, optimizing tactile sensitivity and patient comfort, should a clinician employ to meticulously assess the posterior scrotal surface during physical examination?

<p>Utilizing a 'rolling' technique, gently lifting and inverting the scrotum while palpating with the palmar surface of the index and middle fingers, systematically scanning for masses or textural changes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the critical differentiating features between scrotal lesions indicative of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) versus benign dermatological conditions, and how do these distinctions mandate divergent diagnostic and therapeutic algorithms in clinical practice?

<p>The presence of inguinal lymphadenopathy, coupled with ulcerative or vesicular lesions, strongly suggests an STI etiology, necessitating immediate targeted antimicrobial therapy pending confirmatory testing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cryptorchidism characteristically manifest during scrotal inspection, and what are the critical pathophysiological sequelae of delayed intervention that dictate the urgency of clinical management?

<p>Cryptorchidism is characterized by unilateral or bilateral absence of palpable testes within the scrotum, leading to impaired spermatogenesis, increased risk of testicular malignancy, and potential psychological distress if not addressed by puberty. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient presenting with acute scrotal pain and swelling, what are the most critical distinguishing features elicited via palpation that allow for differentiation between testicular torsion, epididymitis, and testicular tumor, and how do these distinctions direct acute management strategies?

<p>Epididymitis is characterized by exquisite tenderness localized to the epididymis, often accompanied by fever and pyuria, while testicular torsion presents with an absent cremasteric reflex and a 'bell-clapper' deformity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the physiological rationale for palpating the epididymis without applying excessive pressure, and what fundamental tactile qualities differentiate a normal epididymis from an abnormal mass, guiding refined diagnostic decision-making?

<p>The epididymis is highly susceptible to iatrogenic inflammation, which can confound subsequent examination findings; a normal epididymis exhibits a cord-like, nodular texture separate from the testis, while masses display irregular contours and may be inseparable from the testis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining the spermatic cord, what specific criteria, incorporating both anatomical and textural assessment, differentiate a normal vas deferens from a chronically infected vas deferens, and how does this differentiation guide therapeutic strategies?

<p>A normal vas deferens presents as a smooth, mobile structure with uniform diameter and elasticity, while a chronically infected vas deferens manifests as a thickened, beaded, and potentially tender cord. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific postural adjustments and dynamic maneuvers should be employed during a male genital examination to optimize the detection of occult groin hernias, maximizing diagnostic sensitivity and specificity?

<p>Implementing a combination of standing and supine positions, coupled with Valsalva maneuvers during palpation of the inguinal canal and femoral triangle, to dynamically assess for herniation during increased intra-abdominal pressure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the key clinical differentiators among indirect, direct, and femoral hernias upon physical examination, with emphasis on anatomical location, relationship to the inguinal canal, and differential patient demographics?

<p>Indirect hernias traverse the internal inguinal ring with the spermatic cord, direct hernias directly bulge through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, and femoral hernias emerge through the femoral ring lateral to the femoral vein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In distinguishing between direct and indirect inguinal hernias via physical examination, what nuanced palpation technique precisely determines the hernia's relationship to the deep inguinal ring during Valsalva maneuver, maximizing diagnostic accuracy?

<p>Occluding the internal inguinal ring by applying pressure superior and lateral to the pubic tubercle; a hernia that still bulges outward is likely direct, while one that is occluded is indirect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the specific implications of identifying a femoral hernia during a male genital examination, given its unique anatomical location and propensity for complications, and how does this impact subsequent diagnostic and therapeutic decision-making?

<p>The identification of a femoral hernia in males mandates immediate surgical consultation due to the high risk of incarceration and strangulation, coupled with potential compromise of the femoral neurovascular bundle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying pathophysiological rationale for routinely assessing a younger patient's sexual maturity rating (Tanner stage) during a male genital examination, and what specific clinical observations are directly correlated with defined Tanner stages?

<p>Tanner staging provides a standardized framework for assessing pubertal progression, aiding in the detection of precocious or delayed puberty and guiding appropriate endocrine evaluation, while correlating penile size and testicular volume with normative values. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a clinician definitively distinguish between phimosis and paraphimosis during a penile examination, given their respective definitions and potential sequelae, to appropriately guide acute management strategies?

<p>Phimosis is defined as the inability to retract the foreskin proximally, while paraphimosis is the inability to reduce a retracted foreskin distally, leading to potential strangulation and necrosis of the glans. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinically relevant significance of identifying smegma during a penile examination, and what patient education should be implemented regarding its proper management to promote optimal genital health?

<p>Smegma is a normal accumulation of desquamated epithelial cells and sebaceous secretions that can be managed with routine hygiene, but neglect may lead to inflammation and infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do hypospadias and epispadias characteristically present during a penile examination, and what associated genitourinary anomalies should be actively investigated given their pathophysiological connections?

<p>Hypospadias presents with a urethral meatus located on the ventral surface of the penis, while epispadias involves a meatus on the dorsal surface; both may be associated with chordee, cryptorchidism, and other urogenital malformations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating scrotal contours, what key distinctions exist between the physical examination findings associated with hydrocele, varicocele, and testicular torsion, particularly with respect to transillumination, palpation, and response to positional changes?

<p>Hydroceles transilluminate brightly, varicoceles feel like a 'bag of worms' and diminish in the supine position, and testicular torsion presents with an absent cremasteric reflex. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical clinical relevance of meticulously palpating the spermatic cord during a male genital examination, and what nuanced physical signs are indicative of its specific pathologies, such as varicocele, hydrocele, or torsion?

<p>Palpation of the spermatic cord confirms the presence of the vas deferens, with absence suggesting congenital agenesis; a varicocele manifests as a painless, compressible mass that increases with standing, a hydrocele as a cystic structure, and torsion as a thickened, tender cord. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When examining for groin hernias, what precise instructions should be provided to the patient to optimize examination sensitivity, and what specific physical findings suggest the presence and type (direct vs. indirect vs. femoral) of hernia?

<p>The patient should be instructed to perform a forced expiration against a closed glottis (Valsalva maneuver) while the examiner palpates the inguinal canal; a bulge felt at the tip of the finger suggests an indirect hernia, while a bulge felt on the side of the finger indicates a direct hernia. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is found to have an inguinal hernia, what course of treatment is indicated?

<p>Observation and watchful waiting, reserving intervention for symptomatic cases or those with high risk of incarceration. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can a clinician definitively differentiate between a hydrocele/varicocele and an inguinal hernia on physical examination, particularly when faced with equivocal findings on initial assessment?

<p>Assessing for reducibility: inguinal hernias can be reduced into the abdominal cavity, while hydroceles and varicoceles cannot. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 25-year-old male presents with a painless scrotal mass that transilluminates brightly. Palpation reveals a smooth, firm, non-tender mass anterior to the testis. Assuming no other abnormalities, which of the following diagnostic modalities would provide the LEAST additional information?

<p>Diagnostic aspiration of the scrotal mass. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 68-year-old male presents with symptoms suggestive of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth, rubbery, and symmetrically enlarged prostate. Serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is within the normal age-adjusted range. Which of the following interventions carries the highest risk of causing retrograde ejaculation?

<p>Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 17-year-old male presents with a chief complaint of a 'bag of worms' sensation in his left scrotum, noticeable primarily when standing. Physical examination reveals a palpable mass that decompresses when the patient is supine. Valsalva maneuver exacerbates the distension. Further investigation using which of the following imaging modalities would yield the LEAST clinically significant information?

<p>Thermography of the scrotum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32-year-old male presents with a several-week history of penile deviation during erection, accompanied by palpable plaque formation along the dorsal penile shaft. He denies any history of trauma. What cellular or molecular process is most directly implicated in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?

<p>Dysregulated matrix metalloproteinase (MMP) activity leading to excessive collagen deposition. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 22-year-old male presents with a painful, purulent urethral discharge. Gram stain reveals gram-negative diplococci. Which mechanism of action would be LEAST effective against the causative organism in this scenario, considering increasing rates of antibiotic resistance?

<p>Inhibition of folic acid synthesis through competitive antagonism. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 10-year-old male presents with a congenital anomaly in which the urethral meatus is located on the ventral surface of the penile shaft near the penoscrotal junction. Surgical correction is planned. What is the MOST critical long-term complication that must be considered and addressed during the surgical planning and execution to ensure optimal functional and cosmetic outcomes?

<p>Prevention of meatal stenosis and urethral fistula formation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 55-year-old uncircumcised male presents with a painless ulceration on the glans penis that has been present for several months and is progressively enlarging. Biopsy reveals squamous cell carcinoma. Which etiological factor is most strongly implicated in the development of this patient's condition, independent of HPV infection?

<p>Poor penile hygiene and chronic inflammation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 28-year-old male presents with multiple soft, reddish, cauliflower-like lesions on the penile shaft. Histopathological examination reveals koilocytic cells. Which of the following molecular mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for the oncogenic potential associated with the causative agent?

<p>Uncontrolled cellular proliferation due to inactivation of tumor suppressor genes p53 and Rb. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 45-year-old male presents with a history of recurrent, intensely pruritic lesions in the groin area. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals the presence of hyphae. Which of the following virulence factors produced by the causative organism is MOST directly responsible for the patient's intense pruritus?

<p>Proteinases that activate sensory nerve endings. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 62-year-old male presents with urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dribbling. Digital rectal exam reveals a symmetrically enlarged, smooth, and rubbery prostate. A post-void residual urine volume is significantly elevated. Which of the following pharmacological approaches is MOST likely to provide rapid symptomatic relief?

<p>Administration of a selective alpha-1A adrenergic receptor antagonist. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 24-year-old male presents with a firm, non-tender testicular mass discovered during self-examination. The mass does not transilluminate. Serum tumor markers reveal elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Which of the following immunohistochemical markers would be MOST useful in differentiating between seminoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumors?

<p>CD30. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A newborn male is noted to have a foreskin that cannot be retracted. The parents are concerned. Which of the following statements regarding this condition is MOST accurate and should be used to counsel the parents?

<p>Phimosis is usually congenital and may resolve spontaneously within the first few years of life. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old male presents with a history of recurrent painful erections lasting longer than four hours. He denies any illicit drug use but reports using sildenafil occasionally. Which of the following underlying conditions should be MOST aggressively investigated as a potential cause of his priapism?

<p>Sickle cell disease. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 26-year-old male presents with a painless erosion near the coronal sulcus and significant inguinal lymphadenopathy. History reveals recent travel to Southeast Asia. Which of the following diagnostic tests is MOST specific for confirming the suspected diagnosis?

<p>Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for <em>Chlamydia trachomatis</em> serovars L1-L3. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an infertility evaluation, a 35-year-old male is found to have a left varicocele. Semen analysis reveals oligoasthenoteratozoospermia (OAT). Which of the following mechanisms is MOST likely contributing to the sperm abnormalities?

<p>Elevated testicular core temperature. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6-year-old male is noted to have bilateral undescended testes during a routine physical exam. What long-term complication is MOST directly associated with this condition if left untreated?

<p>Increased risk of testicular malignancy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 50-year-old male presents with a bulge in his groin that appears with straining and disappears when lying down. On examination, the bulge is located medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. This finding is MOST consistent with which type of hernia?

<p>Direct inguinal hernia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70-year-old male presents with non-tender, blue-tinged masses at the anal verge accompanied by severe pain exacerbated by defecation. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

<p>Excisional thrombectomy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 16-year-old male presents for evaluation of delayed puberty. Physical examination reveals small testes, gynecomastia, and a female distribution of pubic hair. Chromosomal analysis is MOST likely to reveal which of the following karyotypes?

<p>47, XXY. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 65-year-old male undergoing a routine physical exam is found to have a firm, irregular nodule on his prostate during digital rectal exam. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Serum PSA is elevated. Transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy is performed. Which histopathological finding is MOST indicative of a poor prognosis?

<p>Perineural invasion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30-year-old male presents with intense itching in the pubic area that worsens at night. Examination reveals small, crab-shaped insects attached to the pubic hair shafts. Which of the following interventions is MOST effective in preventing recurrence after treatment?

<p>Washing all clothing and bedding in hot water and drying on high heat. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 40-year-old male presents with a history of infertility. Physical examination reveals that he has a hydrocele. Which of the following underlying mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for male infertility in the setting of a hydrocele?

<p>Elevation of testicular temperature impairing spermatogenesis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 21-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe left testicular pain and nausea. Physical examination reveals a high-riding testis with a negative cremasteric reflex. Which of the following is MOST critical for preventing irreversible testicular damage?

<p>Prompt surgical exploration and detorsion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with penile cancer after presenting with a non-healing ulcer. Which factor is LEAST likely to be associated with an increased risk of developing cancer?

<p>Recurrent fungal infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 30 year old male presents with a chronically infected vas deferens. Palpation in the region will reveal what?

<p>Hard, cord like structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 32 year old male presents with painful vesicles that erupt and scab over. What underlying process causes this?

<p>Destruction of the epidermis with multinucleated giant cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a male genital exam on an adolescent, the scrotum is redder and thinner. There also appears to be some enlargement of the testies. What stage of development is this?

<p>Stage 2. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What findings would suggest a spermatocele instead of other masses?

<p>Transilluminates. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the underlying cause of the congenital defect of hypospadias?

<p>Failure of urethral folds to completely fuse. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 70 year old patient presents with decreased stream and incomplete bladder voiding. Which of the following physical findings is found?

<p>Smooth prostate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A physician notes the pubic hair has spread to the medial surface of a patient's thighs. What pubic hair stage of development does this indicate?

<p>Stage 5. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lice can be transferred except for which of the following ways?

<p>Through vectors, such as mosquitos. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a rare and long term effect of mumps?

<p>Testicular atrophy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature is a major concern for condyloma acuminatum?

<p>Malignant degeneration to squamous cell carcinoma. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true of Herpes Simplex Virus?

<p>Presents as vesicles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a major sign of syphilis?

<p>Painless. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is a feature of paraphimosis?

<p>Inability to return foreskin after retraction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is true about a hydrocele?

<p>Will transilluminate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

How to reassure a patient during a male genital exam?

Explaining the examination process and each step to reassure the patient, and requesting an assistant if needed.

What to do if a patient refuses a genital examination?

Explore the patient's reasoning for refusal to understand their concerns and address them.

How to drape a patient for a male genital examination?

The gown covers the chest and abdomen and a drape is placed at the midthigh to expose only the areas being examined.

Patient position during male genital examination?

The patient may either be standing or sitting.

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What to inspect on the penis?

Inspect the skin on ventral and dorsal surfaces and the base of the penis for excoriations or inflammation.

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Phimosis

A tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans.

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Paraphimosis

A tight prepuce that, once retracted, cannot be returned; edema ensues.

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Balanitis

Inflammation of the glans.

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Balanoposthitis

Inflammation of the glans and prepuce.

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Hypospadias

A congenital ventral displacement of the meatus on the penis.

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Epispadias

A congenital dorsal displacement of the meatus on the penis.

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Purulent, cloudy or yellow discharge

Signals gonococcal urethritis.

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Scanty white or clear penile discharge

Signals nongonococcal urethritis.

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Peyronie disease

Plaques that can sometimes be palpated under the skin on the right or left aspect of the shaft in the corpora cavernosa.

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Scrotal Inspection

Inspect the scrotum, including the skin, scrotal contours, and inguinal areas.

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Epidermoid cysts

Dome-shaped white or yellow papules or nodules formed by occluded follicles filled with keratin debris of desquamated follicular epithelium.

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Normal Testes

Firm but not hard, descended, symmetric, and nontender without masses.

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Tender/painful scrotal swelling

Acute epididymitis, acute orchitis, testicular torsion, and strangulated inguinal hernias.

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Painless nodule on testis

Any painless nodule on the testis raises the possibility of testicular cancer.

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Normal Epididymis

It feels nodular and cord-like and should not be confused with an abnormal lump.

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Normal Vas Deferens

It feels slightly stiff and tubular and is distinct from the accompanying vessels of the spermatic cord.

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Hydrocele of the cord

A cystic structure in the spermatic cord.

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Lifetime Risk Groin Hernia

Approximately 25% in men.

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Approach to male genital exam

Explain the examination process and each step to reassure the patient. Handle erections with calm demeanor.

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Genital Skin Inspection

Inspect the skin, prepuce, and glans for ulcers, scars, nodules, and inflammation.

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Urethral Meatus Inspection

Inspect the urethral meatus for discharge; if indicated, strip or 'milk' the penile shaft.

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Penile Shaft Palpation

Palpate the shaft of the penis, noting any induration or tenderness.

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Scrotum: Inspect For?

Inspect the scrotum for skin lesions, swelling, veins, bulging masses, and asymmetry.

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Palpation of testis involves?

Palpate each testis, epididymis, and spermatic cord for presence, size, shape, consistency, symmetry, tenderness, masses, and nodules.

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Evaluating Groin Hernias

Inspect for groin bulge, palpate for direct, indirect, and femoral hernias.

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Epidermoid Cysts Appearance

Dome-shaped papules, keratin-filled. Multiple, benign.

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Steps to Examine Penis

Position the patient, inspect the penis, palpate for abnormalities and discharge.

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Urethral Meatus Maneuver

Compress glans gently, inspect for discharge.

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Scrotum: Inspect Skin

Lift scrotum; inspect lesions/scars, pubic hair.

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Poor Scrotum Development

Poorly developed scrotum = undescended testicle.

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Chronically Infected Vas Deferens

The vas deferens may feel thickened or beaded.

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Spermatic Cord Cyst

A cystic structure in spermatic cord suggests a hydrocele.

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Indirect Inguinal Hernia

Fingertip touches when it comes down inguinal canal.

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Direct Inguinal Hernia

Bulges anteriorly and pushes side of finger forward.

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Femoral Hernia

Inguinal canal is empty.

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Hydrocele Exam Finding

Can place fingers above scrotal mass.

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Testicular Torsion Presentation

Acutely painful, tender, swollen organ, retracted upward.

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Varicocele

Gravity-mediated varicose veins of spermatic cord.

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Genital Herpes

Small, scattered/grouped vesicles on glans/shaft.

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Primary Syphilis

Small red papule becomes painless erosion.

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Genital Warts

Single/multiple papules, variable shapes.

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Gonorrhea

Purulent discharge from anterior urethra with dysuria.

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Penile Carcinoma

Tends to occur in uncircumcised men.

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Newborn Male Genitalia

Nonretractable, hypospadias, maternal estrogen effects, testis location, transillumination.

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Undescended Testes Incidence

30% premature, 3% term, 1% by 1 year.

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Cremasteric Reflex

Anxiety makes reflex more active.

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Retractile Testes

Can be pulled down, remains in scrotum.

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Undescended Testis

May be pulled down, readily pops back up.

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Phimosis: Definition

The foreskin is tight and cannot be retracted over the glans.

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Paraphimosis: Definition

Inability to return the foreskin to its normal position after retraction. This can impair local circulation, leading to edema of the glans.

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Balanitis: Definition

Inflammation of the glans, mainly in uncircumcised individuals, often associated with phimosis. May be caused by bacteria or fungus.

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Priapism: Definition

A prolonged and often painful penile erection not associated with sexual stimulation.

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Syphilitic Chancre: Characteristics

A painless ulcer with indurated (hardened) borders and a clean base, typically appearing 2 weeks after exposure.

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Genital Herpes: Characteristics

Painful, superficial vesicles caused by a viral infection.

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Condyloma Acuminatum (Genital Warts): Description

Soft, reddish lesions caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) that may undergo malignant degeneration to squamous cell carcinoma.

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Lymphogranuloma Venereum: Characteristics

Painless erosion at or near the coronal sulcus, caused by a chlamydial organism, that involves the lymph nodes.

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Gonorrhea: Clinical Presentation

Purulent discharge from the anterior urethra accompanied by dysuria, typically appearing 2-7 days after exposure to Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

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Pubic Lice: Characteristics

Crab-shaped insects that may cause itching, which worsens at night. Transmitted through direct physical contact or shared items.

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Tinea Cruris ('Jock Itch'): Definition

Dermatophyte fungal infection of the groin area, often caused by Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, or Microsporum species.

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Penile Carcinoma: Clinical Presentation

Often appears as a painless ulceration in uncircumcised men with poor hygiene, failing to heal.

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Hypospadias: Definition

Congenital defect in which the urethral meatus is located on the ventral surface of the glans, penile shaft, or perineal area.

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Peyronie Disease: Characteristics

Fibrous band in the corpus cavernosum of unknown cause, generally unilateral, that results in deviation of the penis during erection.

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Hydrocele: Characteristics

Non-tender, smooth, firm mass resulting from fluid accumulation around the testicle, common in infants, that will transilluminate.

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Spermatocele: Characteristics

Cystic swelling occurring on the epididymis that transilluminates, but is not as large as a hydrocele.

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Epididymitis: Clinical Presentation

Epididymis is tender and the scrotum may be erythematous. Scrotal elevation may relieve the pain. Often associated with a urinary tract infection. Chronic form may occur as a consequence of tuberculosis.

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Orchitis: Clinical Presentation

Acute inflammation of the testes, generally unilateral, is uncommon, except as a complication of mumps in adolescents or adults; testicular atrophy occurs in 50% of cases.

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Testicular Tumor: Characteristics

Irregular, non-tender mass in the testicle that does not transilluminate, may be associated with inguinal lymphadenopathy and is the most common tumor in males ages 15-30.

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Varicocele: Definition

Abnormal tortuosity and dilation of veins of the pampiniform plexus within the spermatic cord, most common on the left side, may be associated with pain and reduced fertility.

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Indirect Inguinal Hernia: Definition

Most common type of hernia that occurs through the internal inguinal ring, can remain in canal or pass into the scrotum, and may be bilateral.

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Direct Inguinal Hernia: Definition

Less common than indirect inguinal hernias, more frequent in males older than 40, and rarely enters the scrotum.

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Femoral Hernia: Definition

Least common type of hernia, more often in females, rare in children, with right side presentation more common than left; pain may be severe.

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Klinefelter Syndrome: Characteristics

Congenital anomaly (XXY) causing hypogonadism, small scrotum, female distribution of pubic hair, and in some cases, gynecomastia.

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External Hemorrhoids: Clinical Presentation

Varicose veins that originate below the anorectal line and are covered by anal skin, causing itching and bleeding during defecation. Thrombosed hemorrhoids may appear as blue, shiny masses at the anus.

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Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH): Clinical Presentation

Common in men older than 50, causing decreased force and caliber of stream, dribbling, incomplete emptying of the bladder, frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria; prostate feels smooth, rubbery, symmetric, and enlarged on rectal exam.

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Prostatic Carcinoma: Clinical Presentation

Rare before 50, early carcinoma is asymptomatic, with a hard, irregular nodule palpable on rectal exam, the prostate feels asymmetric, and the median sulcus is obliterated as the carcinoma enlarges.

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Study Notes

Circumcised and Uncircumcised Considerations

  • Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is too tight and cannot be retracted, commonly occurring in the first 6 years of life and can be congenital or from recurrent infections. Imagine a young boy presenting with difficulty urinating due to his foreskin being too tight.
  • Paraphimosis is the inability to return the foreskin to its normal position after retraction, potentially leading to edema of the glans due to impaired circulation. Picture a man who has retracted his foreskin, but it becomes stuck, causing swelling and pain.
  • Balanitis is the inflammation of the glans, exclusively affecting uncircumcised individuals, often linked to phimosis, and can be caused by bacteria or fungi.

Clinical Cases

Priapism

  • Priapism is a prolonged, often painful penile erection with causes including idiopathic, medications, or underlying diseases. Consider a patient who presents to the emergency department with a persistent erection that isn't related to sexual stimulation.

Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)

  • Herpes presents as painful, superficial vesicles due to a viral infection. Contrastingly, a syphilitic chancre generally occurs 2 weeks post-exposure and presents as a painless ulcer with indurated borders and a clear base.
  • Imagine a patient who notices small, scattered, or grouped vesicles on the glans or shaft of the penis with fever, malaise, headache, arthralgias, localized pain, edema, and lymphadenopathy. This could indicate an active viral infection.
  • Condyloma acuminatum (genital warts) appears as soft, reddish lesions caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) that may undergo malignant degeneration to squamous cell carcinoma. Envision a person noticing small, flesh-colored growths on their genitals that are later identified as HPV-related warts.
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum, caused by a chlamydial organism, initially presents as a painless erosion at or near the coronal sulcus, followed by lymph node involvement.
  • Gonorrhea, an STD caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (a Gram-negative diplococcus), presents as purulent discharge from the anterior urethra with dysuria, appearing 2 to 7 days after exposure.

Other Infections and Infestations

  • Lice infestation involves crab-shaped insects, potentially asymptomatic but can cause itching that worsens at night, transmitted through direct contact or shared items.
  • Tinea cruris, or "jock itch", is a dermatophyte fungal infection of the groin caused by Trichophyton, Epidermophyton, or Microsporum species.

Penile Conditions

  • Penile carcinoma often affects uncircumcised men with poor hygiene, manifesting as a painless, non-healing ulceration.

Congenital and Acquired Conditions

  • Hypospadias is a congenital defect where the urethral meatus is located on the ventral surface of the glans, penile shaft, or perineal area.
  • Peyronie's disease, of unknown cause, involves a fibrous band in the corpus cavernosum, generally unilateral, leading to penile deviation during erection. Suppose a man notices his penis curves significantly when erect, potentially indicating Peyronie's disease.
  • Sebaceous (epidermoid) cysts may discharge oily material.

Scrotal Masses

  • Hydrocele is a nontender, smooth, firm mass due to fluid accumulation, commonly found in infants and will transilluminate.
  • Spermatocele presents as a cystic swelling on the epididymis, smaller than a hydrocele, but also transilluminates.
  • Epididymitis often occurs with a urinary tract infection, causing a tender epididymis and potentially erythematous scrotum where scrotal elevation may relieve pain; chronic cases can result from tuberculosis.
  • Orchitis is an acute inflammation of the testes, uncommon except as a mumps complication in adolescents or adults, generally unilateral, and may cause testicular atrophy in 50% of cases.
  • Testicular tumors present as irregular, nontender masses that do not transilluminate, may be associated with inguinal lymphadenopathy, are most common in males aged 15 to 30, and are usually malignant.
  • Varicocele involves abnormal tortuosity and dilation of the pampiniform plexus veins within the spermatic cord, most common on the left side, may cause pain, affects boys and young men, may impair fertility due to increased venous pressure and testicular temperature, and feels like a "bag of worms." Envision a young man complaining of a dull ache in his scrotum, with examination revealing a mass that feels like a bag of worms.

Groin Hernias

  • Indirect inguinal hernias are the most common type, affecting both sexes, occurring through the internal inguinal ring, may remain in the canal or pass into the scrotum, and can be bilateral.
  • Direct inguinal hernias are less common, more frequent in males over 40, rarely enter the scrotum.
  • Femoral hernias are the least common, more often found in females, rare in children, more common on the right side, and may cause severe pain.

Klinefelter Syndrome

  • Klinefelter syndrome is a congenital anomaly (XXY) causing hypogonadism, small scrotum, female distribution of pubic hair, and sometimes gynecomastia.

Stages of Pubic Hair Development

  • Stage 1: No growth.
  • Stage 2: Slightly pigmented, longer hair, usually at the base of the penis, sometimes on the scrotum.
  • Stage 3: Dark, definitely pigmented, curly hair around the base of the penis.
  • Stage 4: Definitely adult in type, but not in extent, not beyond the inguinal fold.
  • Stage 5: Spread to the medial surface of thighs, but not upward.
  • Stage 6: Hair spreads along the linea alba (occurs in 80% of men).

Stages of Penis and Testes/Scrotum

  • Stage 1: Testis, scrotum, and penis are the same size and shape as in the young child.
  • Stage 2: Enlargement of the scrotum and testis. The skin of the scrotum becomes redder, thinner, and wrinkled; penis is scarcely larger.
  • Stage 3: Enlargement of the penis, especially in length; further enlargement of testis; descent of scrotum.
  • Stage 4: Continued enlargement of the penis and sculpturing of the glans; increased pigmentation of the scrotum.
  • Stage 5: Adult stage; penis reaching nearly to the bottom of the scrotum.

Anorectal Conditions

  • External hemorrhoids are varicose veins originating below the anorectal line, covered by anal skin, causing itching and bleeding with defecation; thrombosed hemorrhoids appear as blue, shiny masses at the anus.

Prostate Conditions

  • Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is common in men over 50, causing decreased force and caliber of stream, dribbling, incomplete bladder emptying, frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria; on rectal exam, the prostate feels smooth, rubbery, symmetric, and enlarged.
  • Prostatic carcinoma is rare before 50; early carcinoma is asymptomatic; on rectal exam, a hard, irregular nodule may be palpable, the prostate feels asymmetric, and the median sulcus is obliterated as the carcinoma enlarges.

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