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Questions and Answers

Which description is accurate for monocytes?

  • They have a very short lifespan of a few hours in blood.
  • They are larger than neutrophils and have large, variable nuclei. (correct)
  • They transform into lymphocytes upon entering tissues.
  • They primarily function in the blood, rarely migrating to tissues.

    • What is the primary function of T lymphocytes?

  • They directly kill infected or cancerous cells. (correct)
  • They produce antibodies in response to pathogens.
  • They enhance phagocytosis of microbes.
  • They secrete pyrogens causing fever.

    • During the margination and adherence phase of neutrophil migration, what primarily causes neutrophils to adhere to blood vessel walls?

  • Chemotaxins released in response to inflammation. (correct)
  • Direct interaction with pathogens in the blood.
  • Large size of neutrophils compared to other cells.
  • High oxygen levels in the blood.

    • What occurs during phagocytosis by neutrophils?

    <p>Microbes are engulfed and enclosed in a phagosome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of immunity is primarily mediated by B lymphocytes?

    <p>Humoral immunity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of macrophages in chronic infections?

    <p>They clean up dead neutrophils and provide prolonged defense.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which class of antibodies is known to cross the placenta?

    <p>IgG</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of natural killer cells?

    <p>They directly kill target cells not sensitized by antibodies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is involved in the degradation of pathogens during phagocytosis?

    <p>Lysosome fusion with the phagosome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of monokines released by activated macrophages?

    <p>To enhance immune response and act as pyrogens.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes memory B cells in the immune response?

    <p>They remain inactive until the same antigen is encountered again.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which function is primarily associated with eosinophils?

    <p>Response to allergic reactions and parasites.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During diapedesis, neutrophils primarily achieve passage through blood vessel walls by:

    <p>Squeezing between endothelial cells.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cell type is classified as an antigen presenting cell (APC)?

    <p>Macrophage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic of physiologic neutrophilia?

    <p>Involves a migration of neutrophils from the marginated pool to the circulating pool</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of neutrophilia results from an acute inflammatory reaction?

    <p>Acute inflammatory neutrophilia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition indicates an increased number of lymphocytes due to neoplastic proliferation?

    <p>Neoplastic lymphocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main cause of neutropenia indicated by overwhelming tissue demand?

    <p>Migration of neutrophils exceeding marrow release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about eosinophils is correct?

    <p>Eosinophils kill parasites by degranulating onto them.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is associated with increased neutrophil counts due to glucocorticoid effects?

    <p>Glucocorticoid neutrophilia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to neutrophil counts after the cessation of an exercise-induced stimulus?

    <p>They return to normal within about 1 hour</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of lymphocytosis results from chronic antigenic stimulation?

    <p>Chronic inflammatory lymphocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining feature of monocytosis?

    <p>Increased number of monocytes in the blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates neutrophilia in an animal?

    <p>An increase in neutrophils due to physiological stressors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following indicates a neoplastic response in leukocyte counts?

    <p>Presence of neoplastic cells in the blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of inflammatory neutropenia in cattle?

    <p>Bacterial infections and endotoxins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key factor driving chronic inflammatory neutrophilia?

    <p>Continual release from the marrow exceeding migration to tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which form of lymphocytosis do puppies and kittens exhibit naturally occurring elevated levels?

    <p>Lymphocytosis of young animals</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary characteristic of glucocorticoid-associated monocytosis?

    <p>Monocytes transitioning from CP to the tissues</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is primarily associated with lymphopenia?

    <p>Increased movement of lymphocytes into inflammation sites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of left shift indicates that neutrophil production is meeting the tissue demand?

    <p>Regenerative left shift</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an expected result of a degenerative left shift?

    <p>Low or normal leukocyte count with excess immature neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of eosinophils in response to parasitism?

    <p>Elevated in allergic reactions and combatting parasites</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which mechanism is most directly involved in phagocytosis?

    <p>Engulfing and digesting pathogens by macrophages</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an indication of monocytopenia in healthy animals?

    <p>Monocyte levels considered low with little diagnostic significance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the immune response of dogs to acute inflammation?

    <p>Most pronounced acute inflammatory leukocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which leukocyte is primarily involved in responding to allergic reactions?

    <p>Basophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for the rapid release of lymphocytes during inflammatory responses?

    <p>Stress-induced glucocorticoid levels causing lymphocyte movement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does hypersegmentation of neutrophils often indicate?

    <p>Older neutrophils due to stress or prolonged inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What system primarily produces cytokines that activate monocyte production?

    <p>Immune system during inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which scenario best represents a lymphocyte's function in immune response?

    <p>Producing antibodies and facilitating adaptive immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In cats, what condition is often associated with alterations in lymphocyte numbers and morphology?

    <p>FeLV (Feline Leukemia Virus) infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes mastocytemia in peripheral blood?

    <p>Presence of free flowing mast cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of vasoconstriction during the vascular phase of hemostasis?

    <p>To reduce blood flow to minimize blood loss</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is NOT part of the hemostatic plug?

    <p>Collagen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process is primarily activated by the exposure of collagen in the subendothelium?

    <p>Intrinsic and extrinsic clotting systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance plays a critical role in the process of fibrinolysis?

    <p>Plasmin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do the endothelial cells play in normal hemostasis?

    <p>They secrete substances that inhibit platelet aggregation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of thrombin in the coagulation process?

    <p>To catalyze the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During thrombopoiesis, what unique characteristic distinguishes the maturation of megakaryocytes?

    <p>They develop clumped, multiple nuclei without division</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is associated with increased platelet numbers in circulation?

    <p>Thrombocytosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which zone of platelets is primarily responsible for maintaining cell shape through contractile proteins?

    <p>Sol-gel Zone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which outcome is most likely associated with thrombocytopenia?

    <p>An increased number of large platelets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one common cause of impaired platelet function?

    <p>Drugs such as NSAIDs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected durability of platelets in circulation?

    <p>8-10 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does splenic contraction relate to platelet count?

    <p>It causes thrombocytosis by releasing stored platelets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of platelet aggregation in hemostasis?

    <p>To create a hemostatic plug by attracting more platelets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which substance is primarily responsible for regulating hemostasis by inhibiting clot formation?

    <p>Antithrombin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the outcome of fibrinolysis in the circulatory system?

    <p>Hydrolysis of fibrin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which pathway in the coagulation cascade requires direct activation of platelets?

    <p>Intrinsic pathway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is involved in the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

    <p>Tissue thromboplastin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of natural anticoagulants like heparin?

    <p>Regulate clotting by inhibiting coagulation factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do calcium and vitamin K play in the coagulation process?

    <p>Synthesize various coagulation factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What mechanism ensures that hemostasis is localized to the site of injury?

    <p>Natural anticoagulants and inhibitors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ultimate product of both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways?

    <p>Thrombokinase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to the hemostatic mechanism after vascular damage occurs?

    <p>It activates but must be controlled to prevent excessive clotting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of crossmatching procedures in transfusion medicine?

    <p>To determine the presence of antibodies in the recipient's serum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by an increased fibrinogen level in a blood sample?

    <p>Presence of infection or inflammation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood type in dogs can have pre-existing alloantibodies to DEA 1?

    <p>None; dogs do not have alloantibodies to DEA 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a decrease in fibrinogen levels suggest about blood coagulation?

    <p>Impaired clotting potential</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood group system in cats is associated with naturally occurring antibodies?

    <p>AB system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the fibrinogen value calculated in a blood sample?

    <p>Plasma protein reading post-heat subtracted from pre-heat reading</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which blood type system in horses has the highest risk of stimulating an antibody response?

    <p>A, C, and Q systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of antibodies are produced following exposure to incompatible blood types?

    <p>Acquired antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What indicates that RBCs are termed normocytic?

    <p>MCV is within the reference range</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) calculated?

    <p>[Hb] divided by PCV</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does an MCV below the reference range indicate?

    <p>Microcytic RBCs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the expected appearance of RBCs when MCH is above the reference range?

    <p>Hyperchromic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the reticulocyte count procedure, why is it necessary to let the blood sit at room temperature for at least 20 minutes?

    <p>To enhance the visibility of reticulocytes under the microscope</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the implication of having anisocytosis in a blood sample?

    <p>There is a variation in cell size</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which measurement reflects the average weight of hemoglobin in a red blood cell?

    <p>Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical factor to consider when assessing the quality of a blood smear?

    <p>The angle of the spreader and speed of spreading</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What possible error might occur if the blood drop used for a smear is too large?

    <p>The smear will be too short and thick</p> Signup and view all the answers

    On performing a reticulocyte count, how many RBCs should be tallied on each slide?

    <p>500</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of reticulocytes in a blood sample would indicate a corrected reticulocyte count of 1.3% if the patient's PCV is 0.45 L/L and the normal mean PCV is 0.35 L/L?

    <p>1.7%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is indicative of Heinz bodies when they are viewed under a microscope?

    <p>Blue/green staining at the periphery of the RBC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When performing a reticulocyte count, what is a crucial factor to ensure accuracy when staining?

    <p>Ensuring proper drying of the smear</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the relative reticulocyte percentage represent?

    <p>Percentage of reticulocytes in relation to the RBC count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are aggregate reticulocytes characterized in feline blood samples?

    <p>Larger cells with a diffuse network of granules</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of RBC indices, what does an increased mean cell volume (MCV) typically indicate?

    <p>Regenerative response to anemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When counting WBCs, what is the appropriate procedure for a safe elevated WBC count?

    <p>Count 200 WBCs if the count is above normal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What identification feature distinguishes Howell Jolly bodies from reticulocytes?

    <p>Deep purple dots within the RBC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a reticulocyte count, what is necessary to avoid misdiagnosing artifacts as reticulocytes?

    <p>Ensure the stain is filtered appropriately</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated by a reticulocyte count of 9 out of 500 RBC in total?

    <p>1.4% reticulocyte count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes Class B of heart disease classification?

    <p>Has structural heart disease without clinical signs of heart failure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?

    <p>Sudden death</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a defining feature of congestive heart failure (CHF)?

    <p>Fluid buildup due to inadequate heart function</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic method is primarily used to identify structural heart disease?

    <p>Radiographic or ultrasound examination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment option is commonly utilized for patients in Class D heart failure?

    <p>Standard therapy with medication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where does congestion occur if the left ventricle is failing?

    <p>In the lungs, causing pulmonary edema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement describes the relationship between heart disease and heart failure?

    <p>Heart disease does not imply heart failure but may lead to it.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which classification includes patients at high risk for developing heart disease without current structural disorders?

    <p>Class A</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant characteristic of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

    <p>It often presents with a heart murmur</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following clinical signs is NOT typically associated with cardiac issues in cats?

    <p>Excessive barking</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which diagnostic tool is considered the gold standard for assessing heart conditions in cats?

    <p>Ultrasound (US)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment goal for managing hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

    <p>Decrease heart rate to allow for left ventricular filling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is specifically used in treating hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats that do not display symptoms of congestive heart failure?

    <p>Atenolol</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of heart disease diagnosis, which of the following conditions can lead to systemic hypertension and hyperthyroidism in cats?

    <p>Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which option is NOT considered a clinical sign of heart failure in cats?

    <p>Insatiable thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diuretics is mentioned as being used for managing congestive heart failure in cats?

    <p>Furosemide</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which breed is NOT commonly associated with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM)?

    <p>Cocker Spaniel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common clinical sign of heart disease indicated progression?

    <p>Exercise intolerance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which imaging technique can be utilized to assess the heart's size and shape?

    <p>Thoracic radiographs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is NOT classified as a standard treatment for heart failure?

    <p>Aspirin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of using Ace inhibitors like enalapril in heart failure management?

    <p>To reduce pulmonary pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential complication of ventricular arrhythmias?

    <p>Decreased cerebral perfusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of Pimobendan in the treatment of congestive heart failure?

    <p>It has both ionotropic and vasodilating properties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assessment method is NOT commonly used to evaluate kidney function in patients with heart disease?

    <p>Echocardiogram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a distinguishing feature of Feline herpes virus (FHV) carriers?

    <p>They can shed the virus after a period of stress.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which route of infection is NOT associated with Feline calicivirus (FCV)?

    <p>Subcutaneous</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What clinical sign is commonly associated with Chlamydophila felis infection in cats?

    <p>Ocular discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes Bordetella bronchiseptica infection in cats?

    <p>It can develop into bronchopneumonia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of the carrier state in Feline calicivirus (FCV)?

    <p>Cats continuously shed the virus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an effective method of diagnosing Feline upper respiratory disease?

    <p>Analysis of ocular and nasal secretions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one possible outcome if a cat is infected with FHV?

    <p>Development of chronic rhinitis.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the general epidemiology of FHV and FCV?

    <p>Infection can occur via direct contact among cats.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does chronic infection with Bordetella bronchiseptica typically manifest in cats?

    <p>It commonly results in an asymptomatic carrier state.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is associated with increased transmission rates of upper respiratory infections in cats?

    <p>Living in a multi-cat household.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most notable characteristic of chronic carriers of herpes in cats?

    <p>They can remain asymptomatic for years.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition can result from acute disease in cats?

    <p>Dehydration and malnutrition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common diagnostic test for identifying chronic feline respiratory infections?

    <p>Oropharyngeal mucosal swabs for virus isolation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign is associated with Feline Calicivirus (FCV) infection?

    <p>Oral ulcers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is commonly recommended for maintaining hydration in cats with acute respiratory disease?

    <p>Intravenous or subcutaneous fluids.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the reactivation of herpes virus in chronic carriers?

    <p>Immunosuppressive factors like stress.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is characterized by persistent rhinitis and conjunctivitis in cats?

    <p>Chronic calici.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of chronic snuffers (rhinosinusitis) in cats?

    <p>Severe infection with necrosis of turbinates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a clinical examination, which symptom might indicate a respiratory condition in dogs?

    <p>Coughing and wheezing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic finding may be present in CBC for feline asthma?

    <p>Eosinophilia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a possible complication of chronic rhinitis in cats?

    <p>Secondary bacterial infection.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which clinical sign suggests a respiratory infection in dogs with kennel cough?

    <p>Dry hacking cough.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of antibiotic therapy is usually prescribed for uncomplicated canine respiratory infections?

    <p>Broad-spectrum antibiotics.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In treating anaphylaxis related to feline asthma, which intervention is considered critical?

    <p>Supply oxygen and bronchodilators.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are common clinical signs associated with pulmonary edema?

    <p>Severe dyspnea and nasal discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is aspiration pneumonia typically caused?

    <p>Accidental aspiration during drenching</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is an effective treatment for equine pulmonary hemorrhage?

    <p>Rest and potential furosemide prior to races</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which disease is primarily caused by the Streptococcus equi equi bacterium?

    <p>Strangles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In terms of prevention, what should be done prior to introducing new horses into a stable?

    <p>Isolate them for 2 weeks to monitor health</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common etiology behind equine viral arteritis?

    <p>Aerosol or venereal route of transmission</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the clinical signs of equine influenza?

    <p>Coughing, nasal discharge, and fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What diagnostic methods are used for identifying Rhodococcus equi infections in foals?

    <p>PCR tests and clinical signs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What treatment is indicated for pulmonary hemorrhage caused by high-intensity exercise?

    <p>Furosemide to manage fluid buildup</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a non-cardiogenic cause of pulmonary edema?

    <p>Severe bloat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical sign for diagnosing guttural pouch involvement?

    <p>Persistent nasal discharge and dyspnea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When dealing with equine viral infections, what strategy significantly mitigates the risk of outbreaks?

    <p>Early diagnosis and isolation of symptomatic horses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What generally influences the management of equine pulmonary emphysema?

    <p>Housing and exposure to dust</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is identified as a major consequence of untreated cases of strangles?

    <p>Development of guttural pouch empyema</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Leukopoiesis (WBC Production)

    • WBCs use the circulatory system to travel from production sites to tissues
    • Leukopoietin stimulates WBC production

    Circulating and Marginalized Pools

    • Circulating pool (CP): 50% of WBCs in blood vessels, collected in blood samples
    • Marginalized pool (MP): WBCs stuck or rolling along vessel walls
    • Cats have a larger MP (75%) compared to other animals

    Granulopoiesis (Granulocyte Production)

    • Granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils) mature by becoming denser, then bean-shaped, and finally segmented
    • Cytoplasm changes color from deep blue (blast stage) to clear, with distinctive granules

    Morphological Stages in Granulopoiesis

    • Mitotic pool: Myeloblasts, promyelocytes, and myelocytes (capable of mitosis)
    • Maturing pool: Metamyelocytes and band cells (non-dividing)
    • Storage/Reserve pool: mature granulocytes ready for release into blood

    Monocyte Production and Function

    • Monocytes are agranulocytes
    • Produced in bone marrow, immediately released into circulation
    • Circulate for 1-2 days, then enter tissues to become macrophages
    • Free macrophages: found in body cavities, alveoli, inflammation - move between tissues
    • Fixed macrophages: reside in specific tissues (liver, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes, GI tract)

    Lymphocyte Production and Function

    • Lymphocytes are agranulocytes
    • Lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue are sites of maturation
    • B lymphocytes form in bone marrow, then travel to lymphatic tissue to become B and natural killer cells
    • T lymphocytes are also formed in the bone marrow, entering the thymus before travelling to lymph tissue
    • Lymphocytes move between tissues, blood, and lymphatic tissue

    Neutrophil Functions

    • Short life span (3-5 days in tissues, 10 hours in blood)
    • Phagocytose pathogens
    • First responders to infection
    • Die after phagocytosis, contributing to inflammation
    • Steps in phagocytosis: adherence, diapedesis, migration, phagocytosis (immune adherence, endocytosis, lysosome fusion, killing and digestion, exocytosis)

    Monocyte/Macrophage Functions

    • Circulate in blood (25-36 hours), then enter tissues as macrophages
    • Transform into larger macrophages to accommodate organelle increase

    Macrophage Functions

    • Catabolism of RBCs and iron metabolism
    • Catabolism of other dead cells
    • Removal of toxins, factors, and immune complexes from blood
    • Phagocytosis
    • Monokine production
    • Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

    Lymphocyte Functions

    • Cell-mediated immunity (CMI): T cells attacking cells (e.g., cancer cells, foreign tissue)
    • Humoral/Antibody-mediated immunity (AMI): B cells producing antibodies, responding to antigens in body fluids

    Cell-mediated Immunity (T-cells)

    • Each T-cell has unique antigen receptor
    • Activation requires antigen presentation by APC (e.g., macrophage)
    • Activated T cells divide and differentiate into:
      • Helper T cells: produce lymphokines (chemicals) that help other immune responses
      • Killer T cells: directly kill infected cells/pathogens
      • Suppressor T cells: regulate immune response
      • Memory T cells: recognize previous antigens for faster responses

    Natural Killer (NK) Cells

    • Kill target cells not sensitized by antibodies or complement
    • Punch holes in target cell membranes, causing explosion

    Antibody-Mediated Immunity (B-cells)

    • B cells reside in lymphoid tissue
    • When matching antigen receptor is encountered, B cell becomes activated
    • Activated B cells divide into memory and plasma cells
    • Memory cells provide long-term immunity
    • Plasma cells produce antibodies released into bloodstream

    Eosinophil Function

    • Suppress hypersensitivity reactions by de-granulation
    • Release prostaglandins, preventing further mast cell degranulation

    Basophil/Mast Cell Function

    • Present in small numbers in blood, predominantly in tissues
    • Granules contain: heparin, histamine, eosinophil chemotactic factor
    • Surface membranes contain IgE receptors

    Immunity to Parasites

    • Presence of parasite induces IgE production by plasma cells
    • IgE sensitizes mast cells and binds to parasite
    • Allergens/parasites bind, causing mast cell degranulation (immediate hypersensitivity reaction)

    Abnormalities in Leukocyte Counts

    • Neutrophilia (high neutrophils): physiologic (stress), glucocorticoid-associated, acute/chronic inflammation
    • Neutropenia (low neutrophils): inflammatory/active tissue demand, decreased production
    • Lymphocytosis (high lymphocytes): young animals, physiologic, chronic inflammation, neoplastic
    • Lymphopenia (low lymphocytes): glucocorticoid-associated, acute inflammation, lymphosarcoma
    • Monocytosis (high monocytes): glucocorticoid-associated, inflammation, monocytopenia

    Left and Right Shifts

    • Left shift: increased immature neutrophils (bands) – usually due to acute inflammation
    • Right shift: increased mature neutrophils (hypersegmentation) – usually due to factors affecting neutrophil maturation or release

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    Description

    Explore the processes of leukopoiesis and granulopoiesis, focusing on white blood cell production and the stages involved. Learn about the different pools of circulating and marginalized white blood cells and their implications. Understand the morphological changes in granulocyte maturation and the role of monocytes as well.

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