Cardio final practice

<p>Microbes are engulfed and enclosed in a phagosome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Humoral immunity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They clean up dead neutrophils and provide prolonged defense. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>IgG (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They directly kill target cells not sensitized by antibodies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Lysosome fusion with the phagosome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To enhance immune response and act as pyrogens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They remain inactive until the same antigen is encountered again. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Response to allergic reactions and parasites. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Squeezing between endothelial cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Macrophage (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Involves a migration of neutrophils from the marginated pool to the circulating pool (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Acute inflammatory neutrophilia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Neoplastic lymphocytosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Migration of neutrophils exceeding marrow release (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Eosinophils kill parasites by degranulating onto them. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Glucocorticoid neutrophilia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They return to normal within about 1 hour (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Chronic inflammatory lymphocytosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Increased number of monocytes in the blood (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>An increase in neutrophils due to physiological stressors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Presence of neoplastic cells in the blood (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Bacterial infections and endotoxins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Continual release from the marrow exceeding migration to tissues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Lymphocytosis of young animals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Monocytes transitioning from CP to the tissues (B), Increase in monocytes due to stress hormone release (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Increased movement of lymphocytes into inflammation sites (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Regenerative left shift (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Low or normal leukocyte count with excess immature neutrophils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Elevated in allergic reactions and combatting parasites (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Engulfing and digesting pathogens by macrophages (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Monocyte levels considered low with little diagnostic significance (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Most pronounced acute inflammatory leukocytosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Basophils (A), Eosinophils (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Stress-induced glucocorticoid levels causing lymphocyte movement (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Older neutrophils due to stress or prolonged inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Immune system during inflammation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Producing antibodies and facilitating adaptive immunity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>FeLV (Feline Leukemia Virus) infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Presence of free flowing mast cells (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To reduce blood flow to minimize blood loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Collagen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Intrinsic and extrinsic clotting systems (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Plasmin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They secrete substances that inhibit platelet aggregation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To catalyze the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They develop clumped, multiple nuclei without division (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Thrombocytosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Sol-gel Zone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>An increased number of large platelets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Drugs such as NSAIDs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>8-10 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>It causes thrombocytosis by releasing stored platelets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To create a hemostatic plug by attracting more platelets (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Antithrombin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Hydrolysis of fibrin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Intrinsic pathway (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Tissue thromboplastin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Regulate clotting by inhibiting coagulation factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Synthesize various coagulation factors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Natural anticoagulants and inhibitors (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Thrombokinase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>It activates but must be controlled to prevent excessive clotting (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To determine the presence of antibodies in the recipient's serum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Presence of infection or inflammation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>None; dogs do not have alloantibodies to DEA 1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Impaired clotting potential (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>AB system (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Plasma protein reading post-heat subtracted from pre-heat reading (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>A, C, and Q systems (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Acquired antibodies (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>MCV is within the reference range (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>[Hb] divided by PCV (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Microcytic RBCs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Hyperchromic (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To enhance the visibility of reticulocytes under the microscope (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>There is a variation in cell size (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>The angle of the spreader and speed of spreading (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>The smear will be too short and thick (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>500 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>1.7% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Blue/green staining at the periphery of the RBC (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Ensuring proper drying of the smear (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Percentage of reticulocytes in relation to the RBC count (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Larger cells with a diffuse network of granules (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Regenerative response to anemia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Count 200 WBCs if the count is above normal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Deep purple dots within the RBC (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Ensure the stain is filtered appropriately (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>1.4% reticulocyte count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Has structural heart disease without clinical signs of heart failure (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Sudden death (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Fluid buildup due to inadequate heart function (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Radiographic or ultrasound examination (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Standard therapy with medication (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>In the lungs, causing pulmonary edema (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Heart disease does not imply heart failure but may lead to it. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Class A (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>It often presents with a heart murmur (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Excessive barking (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Ultrasound (US) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Decrease heart rate to allow for left ventricular filling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Atenolol (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Insatiable thirst (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Furosemide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Cocker Spaniel (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Exercise intolerance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Thoracic radiographs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Aspirin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>To reduce pulmonary pressure (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Decreased cerebral perfusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>It has both ionotropic and vasodilating properties (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Echocardiogram (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They can shed the virus after a period of stress. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Subcutaneous (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Ocular discharge (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>It can develop into bronchopneumonia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Cats continuously shed the virus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Analysis of ocular and nasal secretions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Development of chronic rhinitis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Infection can occur via direct contact among cats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>It commonly results in an asymptomatic carrier state. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Living in a multi-cat household. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>They can remain asymptomatic for years. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Dehydration and malnutrition. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Oropharyngeal mucosal swabs for virus isolation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Oral ulcers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Intravenous or subcutaneous fluids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Immunosuppressive factors like stress. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Chronic calici. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Severe infection with necrosis of turbinates. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Coughing and wheezing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Eosinophilia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Secondary bacterial infection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Dry hacking cough. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Broad-spectrum antibiotics. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Supply oxygen and bronchodilators. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Severe dyspnea and nasal discharge (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Accidental aspiration during drenching (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Rest and potential furosemide prior to races (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Strangles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Isolate them for 2 weeks to monitor health (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Aerosol or venereal route of transmission (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Coughing, nasal discharge, and fever (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>PCR tests and clinical signs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Furosemide to manage fluid buildup (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Severe bloat (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Persistent nasal discharge and dyspnea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Early diagnosis and isolation of symptomatic horses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Housing and exposure to dust (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

<p>Development of guttural pouch empyema (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Macrophages are found in the liver, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes, and gastrointestinal tract.

Monoblasts are 14-20 micrometers in diameter.

A Promonocyte's nucleus is large, round, and a reddish-purple color.

Monocyte cytoplasm is a light gray to blue-gray color, with small vacuoles.

Neutrophils live 3-5 days in production, 10 hours in blood, and a few days in tissues.

Neutrophils locate and phagocytose pathogens.

Neutrophils migrate to infection sites after adhering to blood vessel walls.

The process by which neutrophils engulf and destroy microbes.

Monocytes transform into macrophages in tissues, enlarging to accommodate organelles.

Macrophages catabolize tissue, remove toxins, and present antigens.

Chemical signals from activated macrophages that enhance immunity.

Macrophages that process and present antigens to T cells.

Immunity involving T cells directly attacking infected cells or cancer cells.

Immunity involving B cells producing antibodies targeting pathogens.

T cells that secrete lymphokines aiding other immune responses.

Increased number of neutrophils in the blood.

Decreased number of neutrophils in the blood.

Increased neutrophils due to fear, excitement, or exercise.

Increased neutrophils due to glucocorticoids (hormones).

Increased neutrophils due to recent inflammation.

Increased neutrophils due to long-term inflammation.

Low neutrophils due to severe inflammation, high tissue demand.

Low neutrophils due to decreased bone marrow production.

Increased number of lymphocytes in the blood.

Higher lymphocyte counts in young animals.

Increased lymphocytes due to stress hormones.

Increased lymphocytes due to long-term inflammation.

Increased lymphocytes due to cancer.

Total number of white blood cells per volume of blood.

Relative proportions of different types of white blood cells in a blood sample.

A decrease in the number of lymphocytes in the blood.

Glucocorticoids, whether from stress or medication, can cause lymphopenia by moving lymphocytes from the blood to tissues and lymph nodes.

Acute inflammation leads to lymphopenia as lymphocytes move to inflamed areas, decreasing their number in the blood.

Cancer of lymphocytes, often presenting with enlarged lymph nodes, affecting multiple organs.

An increase in the number of monocytes in the blood.

Glucocorticoids can cause monocytosis by shifting monocytes from reserves to the bloodstream.

Inflammation stimulates both production and release of monocytes, leading to monocytosis.

An increase in the number of eosinophils in the blood, often associated with allergies or parasitic infections.

Allergic reactions often trigger eosinophilia, as eosinophils play a role in managing allergic responses.

Parasitic infections can also cause eosinophilia, as eosinophils target and destroy parasites.

An increase in the number of basophils in the blood, often associated with allergies, parasites, or neoplasia.

Presence of mast cells in the bloodstream, often indicative of mast cell neoplasia (cancer).

An increase in the number of immature neutrophils (bands) in the blood, a hallmark of acute inflammation.

A left shift accompanied by an increased total white blood cell count, signaling the body's appropriate response to inflammation.

A left shift accompanied by a low or normal white blood cell count, indicating a failing immune response.

Thrombin, produced during coagulation, is a powerful enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a meshwork for clot formation.

Megakaryocytes, the precursor cells for platelets, grow larger during maturation without dividing. Instead, their nuclei multiply, creating a cell with multiple nuclei.

Platelets, essential for blood clotting, circulate in the blood for 8-10 days before being removed.

The glycocalyx, found on the outer surface of platelets, plays a crucial role in platelet adhesion, the process of platelets sticking together to form clots.

Thrombocytosis is a condition where there are too many platelets circulating in the blood.

Thrombocytopenia is a condition where there are too few platelets circulating in the blood.

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia occurs when the body's immune system attacks and destroys platelets, leading to a low platelet count.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can impair platelet function, making it harder for platelets to clot.

The process of stopping bleeding when blood vessels are damaged. This involves a series of events that lead to the formation of a clot, which mechanically seals the injury.

The clot that forms to seal a blood vessel injury. Composed of fibrin, platelets, red blood cells, and white blood cells.

The first phase of hemostasis, involving vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels) at the injury site to reduce blood flow.

The second phase of hemostasis, where platelets adhere to the exposed collagen in the injured blood vessel wall and activate to form a temporary plug.

The third and final phase of hemostasis where a complex series of events occurs within the plasma to form a stable fibrin meshwork that reinforces the initial platelet plug.

Platelets stick to exposed collagen and basement membrane after a vessel injury, initiating the clotting process.

Platelets change shape, increasing their surface area, and release granules that attract other platelets, causing vasoconstriction and influencing coagulation.

Thrombin and ADP attract nearby platelets to the site of injury, causing them to stick to the already adherent platelets and form the platelet plug.

A series of reactions involving coagulation factors that result in the formation of fibrin, a key component of the hemostatic plug.

Substances in the bloodstream that regulate hemostasis by limiting clot formation, preventing unnecessary clotting.

The process of dissolving fibrin clots, allowing for healing and preventing excessive clotting.

This coagulation pathway is activated by factors within the blood itself, involving platelets and coagulation factors.

This coagulation pathway is activated by tissue factors released from the damaged tissue, involving tissue thromboplastin, calcium, and vitamin K.

Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge to form 'thrombokinase,' a substance that initiates the final steps of coagulation.

Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of various coagulation factors, regulating their production and ensuring proper clotting.

A polychrome stain commonly used in hematology, also known as Diff Quik, that distinguishes different cell components based on their acidity or alkalinity. It contains both acidic and basic dyes.

Dye component of Romanowsky stain that combines with basic (eosinophilic) cell components, like cytoplasm and granules, giving them a red/orange color.

Dye component of Romanowsky stain that combines with acidic cell components, like the nucleus and some granules, giving them a blue/purple color.

A young, non-nucleated red blood cell still containing RNA, which stains bluish with New Methylene Blue (NMB).

Small, round, deep purple inclusions in red blood cells that appear when stained with NMB. They may be mistaken for reticulocytes but are distinguished by their deep purple color and presence of only one or two dots within the cell.

Blue-green inclusions on the periphery of red blood cells stained with NMB. They are often associated with oxidative damage to the red blood cell.

Immature red blood cells that appear larger than mature RBCs, lack a central pallor, and stain with a blue basophilia due to retained RNA. They are often identified using Romanowsky stains like Diff Quik.

The percentage of reticulocytes in the blood, calculated by dividing the number of reticulocytes by the number of red blood cells, then multiplying by 100.

A more accurate measure of reticulocyte production that takes into account the patient's Packed Cell Volume (PCV).

A stain used to visualize reticulocytes in blood. It is called 'supravital' because it can stain living cells without killing them.

Identifying specific antigens on a patient's red blood cells using known reagent antisera, resulting in a visible hemagglutination reaction.

Antibodies present in most species without previous exposure to a specific antigen. Their pathological significance varies.

Antibodies produced after exposure to an incompatible blood type, usually through blood transfusions or products containing erythrocytes.

Detects antibodies in the recipient's serum that may agglutinate or lyse the donor's red blood cells, ensuring donor blood compatibility.

Detects antibodies in the donor's plasma directed against recipient red blood cells, ensuring safety for the donor.

Dogs do not possess pre-existing antibodies to DEA 1 antigens, making it crucial for blood transfusions.

A plasma protein produced by the liver, essential for blood clotting.

Indicates inflammation or infection, as the body produces more fibrinogen to fight it.

A blood test that measures the percentage of immature red blood cells (reticulocytes) in the blood. This helps assess the bone marrow's ability to produce red blood cells.

A measure of the average volume of red blood cells in a sample. It helps determine if red blood cells are too small (microcytic), too large (macrocytic), or normal size (normocytic).

A measurement of the average amount of hemoglobin in a single red blood cell. This indicates if the red blood cells have normal, low, or high amounts of hemoglobin.

A measure of the ratio of hemoglobin to red blood cell volume, reflecting the concentration of hemoglobin within the red blood cell. This helps determine if the red blood cells are properly filled with hemoglobin.

A laboratory test used to detect specific antibodies or antigens in a sample. It involves attaching an antibody or antigen to a surface and observing a color change if the target substance is present.

A method used to detect lungworm larvae in fecal samples. It utilizes gravity to concentrate the larvae in the bottom of a funnel filled with water.

A well-prepared blood smear is essential for accurate microscopic examination. It should have a 'bullet' shape, be evenly distributed, and have a thin, clear monolayer.

The presence of red blood cells of varying sizes in a blood sample. It indicates a problem with red blood cell production.

A pale appearance of red blood cells due to a lower concentration of hemoglobin. It can indicate iron deficiency or other conditions.

Any condition affecting the heart that deviates from normal function. This can include murmurs, abnormal ECG or ultrasound findings.

The inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This occurs when the heart's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed by heart disease.

Fluid build-up behind the heart due to its inability to move enough blood. It can affect either side, causing pulmonary edema or ascites.

Patients at risk for heart disease, but with no identifiable structural heart abnormalities. Examples include Cavaliers and Dobermans.

Patients with structural heart disease but no clinical signs of heart failure. May have a heart murmur.

Patients with present or past heart failure symptoms associated with structural heart disease.

End-stage heart failure, where symptoms are unresponsive to standard treatments.

A heart muscle disease that can occur in cats fed taurine-deficient diets. Sudden death is a common outcome.

A heart condition where the heart muscle weakens and dilates, making it harder to pump blood effectively.

A common heart condition in dogs, affecting 5-10% of all canine cardiac diseases.

Symptoms can include lethargy, exercise intolerance, cough, syncope (fainting), weight loss, and fluid buildup (edema).

Diagnosed with physical exam, blood tests (CBC/Chem/UA), imaging (chest x-rays and echocardiogram).

Early stage where symptoms are manageable. Treatment aims to delay the onset of congestive heart failure (CHF).

CHF develops, requiring medication to manage symptoms like edema and heart function.

End-stage, challenging to manage, quality of life becomes a primary consideration.

Medications like ACE inhibitors, pimobendan, and furosemide are used to manage symptoms and slow progression.

Swelling of the abdomen, often caused by ascites (fluid buildup in the abdominal cavity).

Fluid accumulation within the abdominal cavity.

A heart condition where the left ventricle wall thickens, making it harder for the heart to pump blood effectively.

A condition where the heart cannot pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other tissues.

A medication used to slow the heart rate in cats with HCM or hypertension.

A medication used to lower the heart rate in cats with HCM, especially when they have signs of CHF.

A type of medication that helps widen blood vessels and reduce strain on the heart.

A diuretic medication that helps the body eliminate excess fluid.

A group of infectious diseases affecting the upper respiratory tract of cats, primarily caused by FHV, FCV, Chlamydophila felis, and Bordetella bronchiseptica.

A highly contagious virus that causes feline upper respiratory disease. It replicates in nasal turbinates, nasopharynx, and tonsils, leading to necrosis and persistent rhinitis.

A highly contagious virus that causes feline upper respiratory disease. It replicates in oral and respiratory tissues, leading to inflammation and, rarely, viral pneumonia.

A bacterium that causes conjunctivitis, fever, and sneezing in cats. Chronic carriers can transmit the infection.

A bacterium that causes respiratory infections in cats. It can be transmitted between cats and dogs, and occasionally to humans.

Cats infected with FHV can shed the virus even when showing no symptoms. This shedding often occurs after stress and can last for weeks.

Cats infected with FCV continuously shed the virus and can infect other cats. Carrier state can be lifelong, but many cats recover.

Common clinical signs include sneezing, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, fever, lethargy, and decreased appetite. Kittens can be severely affected.

Diagnosis is usually based on clinical signs and history. Diagnostic tests include cytology, PCR, and serology.

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV) vaccines can be either killed or modified live virus (MLV). MLV vaccines are generally more effective but may be unsafe for pregnant animals.

Vaccines for Histophilus somni are available in killed or subunit forms. They can be sold individually or as part of a combination vaccine.

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV) vaccines come in killed or subunit forms. They are often sold individually or in a combination vaccine.

Bovine viral diarrhea virus (BVD) comes in two types, 1 and 2. Vaccines are available in both killed and MLV forms.

Vaccines for Pasteruella multocida are subunit/toxoid based and often included in combination vaccines.

Vaccines for Manheeimia haemolytica come in subunit or toxoid forms. They are sold alone or in combination with other vaccines.

Pulmonary edema in cattle can be caused by heart problems (cardiogenic) or non-heart related factors (non-cardiogenic).

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema results from conditions like inhaling smoke, fog, fever, anaphylactic reactions, severe bloat, or upper respiratory blockage.

Pulmonary hemorrhage in cattle is uncommon, but can occur due to grain overload causing liver abscesses and emboli in the lungs.

Aspiration pneumonia occurs when foreign material is inhaled into the lungs, often due to careless drenching, stomach tubing, or regurgitation during severe bloat.

Equine influenza is a highly contagious viral respiratory disease. It's spread easily, mainly via aerosol, and causes fever, cough, and nasal discharge.

Equine rhinopneumonitis is caused by Equine Herpes Virus. It can manifest as respiratory disease, abortion, or neurological problems. There are different types, with types 2 and 3 being more common.

Equine viral arteritis is a contagious viral disease spread through aerosol or direct contact. It causes respiratory signs, limb edema, abortion, and neurological problems.

Strangles is a highly contagious bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus equi equi. It causes fever, thick nasal discharge, and swollen lymph nodes.

Rhodococcus equi is a soil-borne bacterium that affects foals, causing pneumonia, lung abscesses, colic, and diarrhea.

Bastard strangles is a serious complication of strangles where the bacteria spreads to other parts of the body, causing abscesses in areas like the thorax, abdomen, brain, and joints.

A highly contagious viral infection in cats caused by the feline herpesvirus (FHV). It primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and can cause severe signs like sneezing, fever, and conjunctivitis.

Another contagious viral infection in cats that can affect the mouth, upper respiratory tract, and even the skin. Common signs include oral ulcers, fever, and lameness.

Cats that have recovered from FVR or FCV but still harbor the virus and can shed it intermittently, often without showing symptoms. Stress can reactivate the virus.

A chronic condition in cats caused by residual damage from a severe FVR or FCV infection. It includes persistent inflammation of the nose and sinuses.

A respiratory disease in cats caused by an allergic reaction to inhaled allergens, causing airway narrowing and breathing difficulties.

A group of infections affecting the upper and lower respiratory tracts in dogs, commonly known as 'kennel cough'. The major causative agents are canine parainfluenza virus, bordetella bronchiseptica, and canine adenovirus 2

A highly contagious viral disease affecting the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems of dogs. It is often fatal.

Caused by canine adenovirus 1, this viral disease can affect the liver, eyes, and nervous system of dogs, especially puppies.

Providing care to a patient in order to help them regain their health without directly targeting the virus. This includes keeping them hydrated, nourished, and comfortable.

Using medications to directly target the virus and reduce its replication. This helps prevent further damage to the animal.

Surgical operations performed on the chest, including those involving the lungs, heart, and other structures within the thoracic cavity.

A condition where air leaks into the space between the lung and the chest wall, causing lung collapse.

A procedure for removing fluid from the chest cavity using a needle.

A procedure where a tube is inserted into the chest cavity to drain fluid or air and prevent its buildup.