Clinical Microscopy Pre-Boards Exam (Matthew 6:33-34)

It is also known as the FISHBONE diagram; it determines the cause of a problem and identify the different elements that contribute to the problem. It relates the interaction between equipment, methods, and customers.

Based on the principle which states that 80% of the trouble comes from 20% of the problems; this chart is used to mainly identify the problems. The information in this type of graph displays the major contributors to a problem in descending order of importance.

Red diamond or fire hazard, classified according to the Flash Point:

Type of extinguisher for flammable organic chemicals:

Carbon dioxide fire extingushers:

Three-dimensional images of high contrast and resolution are obtained, without haloing:

Converting a brightfield microscope for polarizing microscopy requires:

Kohler illumination is:

How many nephrons are found in the average kidney?

More than 66% of filtered water, sodium, and chloride and 100% of filtered glucose, amino acids, and proteins, are reabsorbed in the:

Water reabsorption occurs throughout the nephron except in the:

The final concentration of the urine is determined within the:

It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing VASODILATION OF THE AFFERENT ARTERIOLES and CONSTRICTION OF THE EFFERENT ARTERIOLES, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the proximal convoluted tubules, and triggering the release of the sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hypothalamus:

Excellent sediment preservative:

For best preservation of urinary sediments, the preservatives of choice are:

Quantitative urine tests are performed on:

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a:

The correct method for labeling urine specimen containers is to:

More representative measure of renal concentrating ability can be obtained by measuring:

The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following:

The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?

The microscopic of a cloudy amber urine is reported as rare WBCs and epithelial cells. What does this suggest?

Refractive index:

Refractometer results are valid up to ___; specimen with greater than this SG should be diluted and remeasured.

For specific gravity reagent pad: highly buffered alkaline urine may cause low readings, and 0.005 may be added to readings from urines with pH of ___ or greater.

High protein diet:

Which of the following tests is affected LEAST by standing or improperly stored urine?

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will:

Leaving excess urine on the reagent strip after removing it from the specimen will:

Failure to mix a specimen before inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the:

Incorporation of the indicator bromthymol blue on the reagent pad MEASURES THE CHANGE IN pH.

Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed:

Glucose oxidase-peroxidase reagent strip and Clinitest result in galactosuria:

Ketonuria is associated with increased metabolism of:

A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:

Uniform blue color on the blood pad of the reagent strip:

1. Hematuria.
2. Hemoglobinuria
3. Myoglobinuria:

Medication associated with myoglobinuria:

Positive result for Ictotest:

Urobilinogen is ___ and labile.

One (1) Ehrlich unit is equivalent to:

Urine preserved with formalin:

Hoesch reagent:

Positive Greiss reaction:

High urine specific gravity:

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:

Significant Albumin Excretion Rate (AER) :

Abnormal result for the ALBUMIN: CREATININE ratio:

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT:

Glitter cells are neutrophils:

A 22-year-old female clinical laboratory student performs a urinalysis on her own urine as part of a lab class.

• Color, appearance = yellow, cloudy
• pH = 7.5
• Leukocyte esterase = 2+
• Nitrite = positive Microscopic findings:
• 25-40 WBC/hpf
• 0-3 RBC/hpf
• Moderate bacteria All other chemistries and microscopic results were normal. These findings suggest:

A 35-year-old patient being treated for a sinus infection with methicillin develops fever, a skin rash, and edema. Urinalysis results are as follows:

• Color = dark yellow
• Clarity = cloudy
• Specific gravity = 1.012
• pH = 6.0
• Protein = 3+
• Glucose = negative
• Ketones = negative
• Blood = moderate
• Bilirubin = negative
• Urobilinogen = negative
• Nitrite = negative
• Leukocyte = 2+ Microscopic:
• 20 to 30 RBCs/hpf

• 100 WBCs/hpf

• 1 to 2 WBC casts/lpf
• 1 to 2 granular casts/lpf After receiving the urinalysis report, the physician orders eosinophils. The urinary eosinophil result is 10%. What is the probable diagnosis?

Forms of transitional epithelial cells include all of the following except:

The presence of more than ___ RTE cells per high-power field indicates TUBULAR INJURY, and such specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing.

Mononuclear leukocytes are sometimes mistaken for:

GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:

Trichomonas can be seen in a urinary microscopic sample, but cannot be reported unless ___ is observed.

Fecal contamination of a urine specimen can also result in the presence of ova from intestinal parasites in the urine sediment. The most common contaminant is ova from:

These granules are highly refractile spheres, usually with a dimpled center.

Conditions favoring the formation of renal calculi, EXCEPT:

Urinalysis on a patient with severe back pain being evaluated for renal calculi would be most beneficial if it showed:

Typically, the protocol for the performance of CSF analysis when three tubes are collected is which order for cell counts, chemistries, microbiology?

Bloody CSF indicative of traumatic tap:

Presence of clot in CSF:

1. Traumatic tap
2. Froin's syndrome
3. Tuberculous meningitis
4. Intracranial hemorrhage

All of the following proteins are normally present in the CSF except:

A decreased CSF total protein concentration may indicate the occurrence of which of the following?

Eosinophils may be increased in CSF in fungal infections primarily with:

As little as 0.1 mL of CSF combined with one drop of ___ produces an adequate cell yield when processed with the cytocentrifuge.

For CSF testing, a daily control slide for bacteria should also be prepared using:

CSF cell count should be performed:

Compute for the WBC count in patient's CSF. Dilution 1:20, counted in 4 corner squares Given are the number of WBCs in each square: Square 1: 40 Square 2: 43 Square 3: 43 Square 4: 44

Arrange the following from the youngest to the most mature stage:

1. Spermatids
2. Spermatocytes
3. Spermatogonia
4. Spermatozoa

Seminal fluid is collected following a period of sexual abstinence of:

A BROWN OR RED HUE IN SEMINAL FLUID may indicate the presence of:

Compute for the SPERM COUNT:

• 50 sperms were counted in 5 RBC squares
• Dilution of 1:10
• Total volume of seminal fluid is 2 mL

Measurement of alpha-glucosidase is performed to detect a disorder of the:

Powdered anticoagulants should not be used for synovial fluid because they may produce artifacts that interfere with:

Simplest test for synovial fluid viscosity:

Mucin clot test:

Normal synovial fluid glucose:

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), amniocentesis may be indicated at:

The amount of amniotic fluid increases in quantity throughout pregnancy, reaching a peak of approximately ___ mL during the third trimester, and then gradually decreases prior to delivery.

Which of the following results of a test on the mother would suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus?

An increased level of AFP in the serum or amniotic fluid of a pregnant woman is seen in:

Low level of AFP in the serum or amniotic fluid of a pregnant woman is seen in:

O.D. 650

Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL:

Lymphocytes in BAL, normally constituting ___ percent of the cell population.

Induces secretion of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells of the gastric glands:

Failure of the stomach acidity to fall lower than 6.0 in a stimulation test:

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5 or 1.0 pH unit with gastric stimulation:

Physiologic failure of pH to fall below 3.5, although it decreases 1.0 pH unit or more upon gastric stimulation:

Normal fecal specimen contains:

The D-xylose absorption test is used for the differential diagnosis of which two diseases?

Which type of urine sample is needed for a D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?

A patient has been diagnosed with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which of the following would be characteristic for this condition?

Stool color if patient takes FERROUS SULFATE:

Inability to digest the gelatin in the X-RAY FILM test indicates a deficiency in ___ production.

Which test is MOST SENSITIVE AND SPECIFIC ENZYME in detecting persons with chronic pancreatitis?

With the two-slide qualitative fecal fat determination, the first slide produces a normal amount of staining fat present, whereas the second slide, following acid addition and heat, produces an abnormally increased amount of fat. These results indicate:

Quantitative fecal fat analysis requires a ___ specimen.