Law and Health Fundamentals Quiz
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Questions and Answers

Which options are considered correct regarding the fundamentals of marksmanship?

  • Steady breathing
  • Sight alignment (correct)
  • Follow through (correct)
  • Trigger pull (correct)

    • What is the primary domain for kinesthetic learners?

  • Experience (correct)
  • Written instructions
  • Visual cues
  • Auditory information

    • What constitutes a normal blood pressure reading?

  • 130/90
  • 110/70
  • 120/80 (correct)
  • 100/90

    • What is the term used for an urgent situation requiring swift actions?

    <p>Exigent circumstance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct meaning of SQ3R?

    <p>Survey, Question, Read, Recite, Review</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is considered an intentional tort?

    <p>Invasion of privacy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about a subsequent DWI (Driving While Intoxicated) conviction is accurate?

    <p>Third conviction becomes a felony.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which condition is an officer permitted to arrest someone without seeing the crime committed if it's categorized as a misdemeanor?

    <p>If they have probable cause</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required during personal contact with a pedestrian in terms of distance?

    <p>Two arm's lengths</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a key element of healthy eating?

    <p>Consuming processed foods</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of crime does not require an overt act to be considered an offense?

    <p>Conspiracy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must happen within 24 hours regarding a true bill from a grand jury?

    <p>It must be issued.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which court has the authority to incarcerate a child who has violated a motor vehicle code?

    <p>Children's court</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the establishment of command and control refer to in critical tasks?

    <p>Coordinating response efforts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Regarding handcuffing during a felony stop, what is the recommended position?

    <p>Prone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents the primary elements of effective radio transmission?

    <p>Accuracy, brevity, courtesy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the standard of proof required to win a civil trial?

    <p>preponderance of evidence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following crimes is defined as having a punishment of a year or more of imprisonment?

    <p>felony</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the essential components required for understanding citizen problems?

    <p>Federal, Civil, and Criminal Law</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the least serious felony classification in New Mexico?

    <p>4th degree</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What amendment addresses self-incrimination in legal proceedings?

    <p>5th amendment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary responsibility of all law enforcement officers concerning human life?

    <p>Is the first responsibility of all law enforcement officers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a criminal trial, which party carries the burden of proof?

    <p>prosecution</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What was established by the Babylonian Code of Hammurabi in 2300 B.C.?

    <p>300 legal provisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the standard of proof that the prosecution must meet in a criminal trial?

    <p>beyond a reasonable doubt</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is critical when determining the use of lethal or non-lethal force?

    <p>The law, an administrative policy, and professional ethics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of a strict liability crime?

    <p>statutory rape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Who was responsible for developing the first organized police force and when did this occur?

    <p>Augustus Caesar in 27 B.C.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what year did Sir Robert Peel introduce The Metropolitan Act?

    <p>1829</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Under which amendment is the right to a speedy trial guaranteed?

    <p>6th amendment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What duties, in addition to keeping the peace, were typically assigned to sheriffs in the colonies?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which time frame was the Political Era of law enforcement established?

    <p>Late 19th century</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding the state constitution is accurate?

    <p>A state constitution may provide more rights than the U.S. Constitution.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is required for photographic arrays in law enforcement?

    <p>A minimum of 6 photos.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding leading questions?

    <p>They suggest the answer within the question.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What constitutes public affray?

    <p>Two people have a fistfight in the parking lot.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a probable cause in the context of investigative detention?

    <p>The presence of certain behaviors indicating unusual activity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The tort system primarily serves to address what type of misconduct?

    <p>Civil wrongs resulting in harm to individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An aggravated assault charge can be applied under which circumstances?

    <p>Causing severe bodily injury intentionally.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of police patrol patterns, which method is included?

    <p>Random patrol, varying routes unpredictably.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum distance an officer's vehicle should be positioned behind a suspect vehicle during a traffic stop?

    <p>50 ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is recognized as an exception to the general requirement for a search warrant?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best defense for an officer in a tort claim?

    <p>Qualified Immunity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age can a juvenile potentially be placed with adult offenders?

    <p>If 16 or older</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amendment of the U.S. Constitution guarantees a person cannot be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process?

    <p>5th Amendment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What crime has been committed if a defendant uses his cousin's name during identification while having a warrant?

    <p>Identity theft and forgery</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What charge is warranted for a subject who exposes himself in front of others in a public setting?

    <p>Indecent exposure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When can omission or failure to act be regarded as a crime?

    <p>Duty to Act</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    LEOC Review - Study Notes

    • Question 1: An officer has 24 hours to file a search warrant.

    • Question 2: Telling a lie under oath, known as perjury, is a crime.

    • Question 3: Reasonable suspicion is required for an investigatory detention.

    • Question 4: Security guards at a school are considered school employees.

    • Question 5: When escorting a prisoner, you should not put them in the passenger side rear seat or arrested behind you in driver seat. You should place them on the passenger seat.

    • Question 6: An officer should cite a person making obscene gestures towards them. An arrest should not be made initially.

    • Question 7: In Spanish, "Did you call the police?" is "llamaste a la policia?".

    • Question 8: The crime of threatening to beat someone is assault.

    • Question 9: Aggravated battery is the crime when someone causes disfigurement or temporary loss of function of any organ or body member.

    • Question 10: Magistrate courts deal with misdemeanors and petty misdemeanors.

    • Question 11: Alternatives to arrest include community service, rehab, or summons.

    • Question 12: The International Association of Chiefs of Police adopted a law enforcement code of ethics in 1957.

    • Question 13: During a traffic stop, the officers' vehicle must be at least 30 feet behind the suspect's vehicle and slightly offset to the left.

    • Question 14: Statements made during a DWI checkpoint without Miranda rights are admissible in court.

    • Question 15: Exceptions to search warrant requirements include consent, exigent circumstance, and plain view.

    • Question 16: Qualified immunity, self-defense, and prosecutorial immunity are defenses for officers in tort claims.

    • Question 17: Juvenile offenders can be placed with adult offenders under certain conditions, such as age 16, or if they act violently.

    • Question 18: A judge disagrees with an objection; thus, differing opinions on issues.

    • Question 19: Police lie under the judicial branch of government.

    • Question 20: The Bill of Rights is the most critical part of the U.S. Constitution, regarding police.

    • Question 21: Identity theft and forgery are offenses when someone misrepresents themselves to the use of a fabricated fingerprint and document identity.

    • Question 22: Indecent exposure, which is public nudity, is the charge for a public urination crime.

    • Question 23: Criminal trespassing is the charge for an intoxicated person who enters a business through an open window.

    • Question 24: Fifth Amendment protects individuals from being deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process.

    • Question 25: An omission can be a crime when there is duty to act.

    • Question 26: Conspiracy is a crime that does not require an overt act..

    • Question 27: The strong side is recommended for OC spray and other similar items.

    • Question 28: The standard of proof in a civil trial is the preponderance of evidence.

    • Question 29: Probable cause is the standard of proof required to win a criminal trial.

    • Question 30: The least serious felony in New Mexico is a fourth-degree felony.

    • Question 31: A life sentence in New Mexico is a life sentence.

    • Question 32: A misdemeanor is 364 days or less in jail.

    • Question 33: A felony is any crime that carries a potential sentence of one year or longer in prison.

    • Question 34: In a criminal trial, the prosecution has the burden of proof.

    • Question 35: Amber alerts must be issued to a child under 18 who is in danger.

    • Question 36: Burglary, theft, and larceny are examples of related charges for acts of stealing items from a property.

    • Question 37: The criminal code of New Mexico is found in Section 4.

    • Question 38: A grand jury's only purpose is to determine if there is probable cause.

    • Question 39: The First Amendment protects freedom of speech.

    • Question 40: The Fourth Amendment deals with search and seizures.

    • Question 41: Knowing and planning a crime is considered conspiracy.

    • Question 42: Statutory rape, a strict liability crime, is an example of a sex-related crime.

    • Question 43: Las Cruces v. Betancourt outlines guidelines for controlled or regulated roadblocks.

    • Question 44: The Fifth Amendment addresses the right against self-incrimination.

    • Question 45: The Sixth Amendment focuses on the right to a speedy and public trial.

    • Question 46: Excessive bail is part of the Eighth Amendment.

    • Question 47: No charges are applicable to adults that see a person drowning and do not attempt a rescue, as no duty to act is established.

    • Question 48: Probable cause is when circumstances lead a reasonable person to believe a crime has occurred.

    • Question 49: Graham v. Connor deals with the use of force during an arrest.

    • Question 50: Strip searches are permitted with a trained officer, or when using latex gloves.

    • Question 51: A person age of 15 years and 6 months or older can apply for a provisional license.

    • Question 52: Reasonable suspicion is not a legal requirement for inventory.

    • Question 53: "Don't move" in Spanish is "no te muevas!".

    • Question 54: A subpoena is an order to appear in court.

    • Question 55: A subpoena duces tecum is an order to produce documents in court.

    • Question 56: Emergency orders of protection usually last for three court business days or 72 hours and must differentiate between cases.

    • Question 57: Reasonable suspicion is needed to stop and detain someone.

    • Question 58: When writing a report, the officer should use the first person method.

    • Question 59: Shooting at a building or moving vehicle is a crime.

    • Question 60: Evidence should typically be packaged in paper bags or boxes.

    • Question 61: Tennessee v. Garner discusses the use of deadly force by law enforcement.

    • Question 62: The defendant's actions constitute identity theft and drug trafficking.

    • Question 63: Spitting on a police officer or another authority figure can result in a battery or aggravated assault charge.

    • Question 64: An officer can stop a subject who is behaving suspiciously and who refuses to identify themselves, as long as there is reasonable suspicion to detain them.

    • Question 65: Terry v Ohio deals with stop and frisk.

    • Question 66: When a drug agent initiates a stop based on suspicion of drug activity, the stop can be justified as long as it is based on reasonable suspicion.

    • Question 67: Valid warrants require probable cause.

    • Question 68: Violating someone's rights while operating under the color of law can result in charges.

    • Question 69: Personal injuries to the head, genitals, or forearm during baton use are not acceptable.

    • Question 70: Warrantless searches are usually unreasonable; exceptions include specific situations documented previously.

    • Question 71: When dealing with a mentally ill person, officers should maintain a safe distance of six feet or more.

    • Question 72: The Uniform Accident Report Form is used specifically for traffic accidents.

    • Question 73: Hazardous exposure includes inhalation, ingestion, or absorption.

    • Question 74: Mental impact of driving is approximately 20 percent mental and 80 percent physical.

    • Question 75: Emergency vehicle operations are predominantly defensive in nature.

    • Question 76: Peripheral vision is the outer portion of the visual field.

    • Question 77: Movement, trigger pull, follow-through, and sight alignment are fundamental to marksmanship.

    • Question 78: The initial phase of a critical incident is the crisis phase.

    • Question 79: Establishing command and control is the first critical task in a critical incident.

    • Question 80: A search warrant signed by a judge is valid for 10 days.

    • Question 81: Cognitive, psychomotor, and affective are the three primary domains of learning.

    • Question 82: Kinesthetic learners learn through experience, touch, and feeling.

    • Question 83: SQ3R stands for survey, question, read, recite, and review to learn new material.

    • Question 84: 120/80 is considered normal blood pressure.

    • Question 85: Heredity is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

    • Question 86: A true bill from a grand jury must be issued within 24 hours.

    • Question 87: The initial phase in a critical incident is the crisis phase.

    • Question 88: A subsequent DWI can become a felony after a third conviction.

    • Question 89: Terrorism, a serious act committed for no lawful purpose, is the correct answer.

    • Question 90: Grand juries are used to determine probable cause.

    • Question 91: Speedy and public trials are part of the Sixth Amendment.

    • Question 92: Television watching is not a key element of healthy eating.

    • Question 93: Stalking is a serious offense, if it's knowingly violating a protection order or having a deadly weapon.

    • Question 94: Employee theft from a cash register is fraud.

    • Question 95: Regiment of physical and mental health helps officers manage pressure in their jobs.

    • Question 96: The belief in a delusion of someone with psychosis is not important to de-escalate the person, but their behavior is.

    • Question 97: A state legislature can provide more rights than those expressed in the U.S. Constitution.

    • Question 98: Sexual harassment involves unwanted attention.

    • Question 99: Hate crimes can include vandalism and graffiti.

    • Question 100: Conversations between two people are not protected if they violate another person;s rights.

    • Question 101: Intent to defraud an insurance company is considered insurance fraud..

    • Question 102: A photographic array requires six photos or images.

    • Question 103: Review, the part of SQ3R, does not exist.

    • Question 104: Investigative detention can be made based on reasonable suspicion.

    • Question 105: Conviction in a jury trial requires unanimous decisions.

    • Question 106: Suggesting the answer as part of the question is a leading question..

    • Question 107: Vehicle accidents are typically caused by tire defects.

    • Question 108: Fighting in a public space is considered public affray.

    • Question 109: OSHA requirements are generally about hazardous incidents.

    • Question 110: The tort system offers a means for addressing misconduct by a party.

    • Question 111: Finding a gun while making a DUI arrest can result in additional charges.

    • Question 112: Disputes at athletic events can cause charges of assault, trespass, and interference.

    • Question 113: Random, circular, and double-backing are the three main methods in a patrol pattern.

    • Question 114: Determining the location, route, and assessment of a response are essential components of responding to calls.

    • Question 115: In a court hearing, the defendant is notified of possible penalties for their crimes, so as to advise of the possible results resulting from their actions.

    • Question 116: Using falsified information in attempts to conceal identities or to prevent an ongoing crime.

    • Question 117: Carrying a firearm in a liquor store constitutes the cause of an arrest..

    • Question 118: Spitting on a police officer is considered battery on a police officer.

    • Question 119: If there is an unlocked door and someone is able to enter, and steal a firearm, aggravated burglary would be the charge in place.

    • Question 120: Quid pro quo is when one thing is done in exchange for another.

    • Question 121: Public indecent exposure could be the appropriate charge related to urination.

    • Question 122: The factors considered or applied in a jurisdiction for venue.

    • Question 123: Aggravated battery could be a charge if injuries are apparent due to an interaction..

    • Question 124: An omission can be a crime, if there is a duty to act, and the person was responsible for the situation..

    • Question 125: OC spray stands for oleoresin capsicum spray..

    • Question 126: Police use patrol strategies that acknowledge the area and other factors in which the patrol is taking place.

    • Question 127: A petty misdemeanor is an offense of 6 months or less in jail time.

    • Question 128: -A Class A commercial license is for vehicles larger than 26,001 pounds.

    • Question 129: Destroying, hiding, or fabricating information or evidence could cause tampering with evidence charges.

    • Question 130: There are 5 schedules for controlled substances.

    • Question 131: CMV driver logs should be created during 24 hour periods.

    • Question 132: Missing children's information must be reported immediately to NCIC.

    • Question 133: Foot patrol and mobile patrol are the two main types of patrol in public areas.

    • Question 134: In legal cases, illegally seized evidence should be excluded from consideration in court.

    • Question 135: If a crime is a misdemeanor, the officer cannot arrest unless in sight or in presence.

    • Question 136: When talking to someone, a distance of arm's length away is customary, but it can vary on the circumstances.

    • Question 137: Exigent circumstances mean a situation requiring quick, urgent action.

    • Question 138: Intentional and negligent action are two different types of torts.

    • Question 139: Graham v. Connor addresses the lawfulness of using force.

    • Question 140: Crimes that do not require an overt act, or overt act, can be attributed to conspiracy, in which knowledge alone can bring the charge.

    • Question 141: Local laws, city council, or county commissions can create known as policies..

    • Question 142: A person who unlawfully takes possession of a credit card, is guilty of Theft of a credit card.

    • Question 143: The ABCs of radio transmission are Accuracy, Brevity, and Courtesy.

    • Question 144: The proper position for handcuffing during a felony stop is prone.

    • Question 145: A custodial interrogation occurs when a suspect believes they are not free to leave.

    • Question 146: The value specified by the manufacturer is the gross weight limit (GVWR).

    • Question 147: Only a civil court may incarcerate a child in violation of a motor vehicle code.

    • Question 148: Officers can detain someone for a reasonable time.

    • Question 149: The number of hazard classes is nine.

    • Question 150: The 3 phases of a DWI include vehicle movement, personal contact, and pre-arrest screening.

    • Question 151: Interrogation can be done on willing or unwilling subjects.

    • Question 152: Carrying a concealed firearm in a private car is allowed in certain situations.

    • Question 153: According to the rules of procedure, an officer has three days to file a warrant.

    • Question 154: The Prosecutor's role is to pursue justice in criminal cases.

    • Question 155: Crime scene contamination is most likely due to first responders.

    • Question 156: Read Miranda rights to a detained minor for interrogation.

    • Question 157: NIMS is the National Incident Management System.

    • Question 158: Drunk drivers can be charged with child abuse where the danger extends beyond the subject involved.

    • Question 159: The State must present charges relating to crimes committed within a statutorily defined timeframe.

    • Question 160: The definition of "Silver Alert" includes individuals whose faculties are compromised resulting in a loss of functionality, and who are over the age of 50.

    • Question 161: An officer is justified to use deadly force when a suspect represents a deadly threat that includes themselves or others.

    • Question 162: Intelligence, intent, or imagination, are all components of IAMO.

    • Question 163: Modus operandi, means, or mode are all parts of IAMO

    • Question 164: In a confrontation, you should create time, create distance, and create angles.

    • Question 165: All incidents of alleged discrimination or retaliation should be reported as soon as possible but within 90-180 days in accordance with applicable statutes..

    • Question 166: Heroin is a Schedule I controlled substance.

    • Question 167: Methamphetamine is a Schedule II controlled substance..

    • Question 168: Ketamine is a Schedule III controlled substance.

    • Question 169: A first-time trafficking offense is a 2nd-degree felony.

    • Question 170: Delays in reporting child abuse may be caused by victimization, offender unknown, or personal shame..

    • Question 171: Uniform surveillance is done in a covert way..

    • Question 172: Lights and sirens should be used only when absolutely needed or to respond to ongoing or threatening circumstances.

    • Question 173: The primary unit responds as soon as possible to the call.

    • Question 174: Rooms should be approached in an order of clearing your immediate space, then the connecting adjacent areas, ending with the final area..

    • Question 175: When clearing a corner, never lead with the muzzle.

    • Question 176: The four contexts in police services are social, legal, political, and ethical frameworks.

    • Question 177: Correct behavior is a most powerful element in officer actions.

    • Question 178: Analyzing citizen problems requires an understanding of criminal, civil, and traffic laws.

    • Question 179: Preservation of human life is the priority of all law enforcement.

    • Question 180: Use of lethal force is dependent on several situational factors, including policy, law, and professional ethics.

    • Question 181: Babylonian Code of Hammurabi from 2300 B.C. included important aspects of criminal provisions, social order, and rights of individuals.

    • Question 182: Augustus Caesar developed the first formal organized police force.

    • Question 183: Sir Robert Peel introduced the Metropolitan Police Act in 1829.

    • Question 184: Sheriff duties included keeping the peace and collecting taxes.

    • Question 185: During the Political Era (1740-1820), political influences dominated police departments.

    • Question 186: Community-oriented policing involves integrating into communities and being responsive to crimes.

    • Question 187: Problem-oriented policing requires proactively identifying and addressing community concerns..

    • Question 188: Bias is a preconceived negative opinion.

    • Question 189: In 1972, a case that addressed due process and government knowledge-of information before the start of trial related to court cases.

    • Question 190: The Brady v. Maryland case dealt with the right of the accused to discover exculpatory evidence.

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    Description

    Test your knowledge on the fundamentals of marksmanship, law, and healthy living. Explore concepts such as blood pressure readings, intentional torts, and the legalities surrounding DWI convictions. This quiz covers a range of topics essential for understanding health and legal principles.

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