KAPS Exam Study Plan 2023

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

A patient is prescribed doxycycline for malaria prophylaxis. What instructions should the pharmacist give regarding when to start and stop the medication?

  • Start 1 week before travel, continue during travel, and for 1 week after leaving.
  • Start 1 day before travel, continue during travel, and for 2 weeks after leaving.
  • Start 2 days before travel, continue during travel, and for 4 weeks after leaving. (correct)
  • Start on the day of travel, continue during travel, and for 2 weeks after leaving.

A drug with a low volume of distribution is likely to:

  • Increase rapidly in tissue concentration.
  • Undergo rapid elimination.
  • Remain primarily in the plasma. (correct)
  • Distribute widely into tissues.

Which CYP450 enzyme is mainly responsible for metabolizing codeine to morphine?

  • CYP1A2
  • CYP2D6 (correct)
  • CYP3A4
  • CYP2C9

A patient with kidney disease requires a dose adjustment for vancomycin. This is because vancomycin is primarily eliminated via:

<p>Renal excretion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct initial dose for Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine, according to the information?

<p>Administer at 12 months of age. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the antiplatelet action of aspirin?

<p>Irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase (COX-1) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The percentage of chlorhexidine used as preservatives in eye preparations is:

<p>0.01% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the dose adjustments needed when a patient stops smoking while taking clozapine?

<p>Decrease the clozapine dose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism causes the interaction between erythromycin and verapamil?

<p>Metabolism Inhibition (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the provided text, what advice should be given to a patient taking rifampicin?

<p>Take it on an empty stomach. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is taking verapamil and is then prescribed a beta-blocker, what potential additive effect should the doctor be alert to?

<p>Bradycardia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a patient with an acute gout attack being treated with colchicine, what is the most appropriate maximum dose per course?

<p>6 mg (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement accurately describes the use of codeine in breastfeeding mothers?

<p>Codeine is not recommended due to the risk of adverse effects in infants. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is accurate regarding low bioavailability?

<p>It means the drug undergoes first-pass metabolism in the liver. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient prescribed spironolactone is also taking meloxicam. What potential electrolyte imbalance should be monitored for?

<p>Hyperkalemia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct advice regarding sun exposure for a patient taking doxycycline?

<p>Avoid sun exposure due to photosensitivity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sign or symptom is not necessarily associated with acetaminophen overdose?

<p>Acute kidney injury (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is allergic to penicillin receives cephalosporin. What is the approximate risk of cross-reactivity or allergic reaction in this patient?

<p>4% to 10% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which laboratory value accurately guides clozapine therapy?

<p>Neutrophil count (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with nausea and vomiting during the last trimester of pregnancy. Which antiemetic is contraindicated?

<p>Sumatriptan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information, what is the significance of a drug being in the 'pre-drug' state?

<p>It is not efficiently absorbed through the skin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding digoxin toxicity is accurate?

<p>Hypokalemia increases myocardial sensitivity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best route for administering Diazepam when treating status epilepticus?

<p>Rectal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes isotretinoin and Simvastatin?

<p>Both is linked Rhabdomyolysis. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the treatment of tuberculosis (TB), what is the relationship between isoniazid, rifater and other drugs?

<p>Both the combination (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the following options, what is used for acute management for anxiety?

<p>Lorazepam (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has an anaphylactic reaction, which treatment is prefered to be applied first?

<p>epinephrine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Doxycycline dose for malaria prophylaxis?

Daily dose is 100 mg, starting 2 days before travel, one dose per day while there, and for 4 weeks after leaving.

How is Codeine metabolized?

Metabolized mainly by the cytochrome P450 enzyme 2D6

When is MMR vaccine administered?

Administered between 12 and 15 months.

Tablet enteric coating agent?

Cellulose acetate phthalate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NOT used in Aspirin toxicity?

Calcium edetate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

When to reduce Vancomycin dosage?

Patients with kidney disease.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Salbutamol is?

Suitable for IV bolus injection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dexamethasone tablet math?

You require 12 tablets.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Magnesium citrate is a?

Osmotic saline laxative.

Signup and view all the flashcards

80% & 15% alcohol mixture?

You need 200 ml.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IV Hydrocortisone dose for asthma?

100 mg/ 6 hours.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Percentage of elementary iron?

The percentage is 20%.

Signup and view all the flashcards

pH of the solution?

The pH is 5.2.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Drug decompose time?

Original value in 15 minutes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Buffer of pH equal to 9?

Boric acid

Signup and view all the flashcards

NOT used as antiemetic post-chemotherapy?

Chlorpropamide.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clotrimazole mix percentage?

Percentage is 1.65%.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Half-life drug, percentage remaining?

25%

Signup and view all the flashcards

Which acid NOT used in extraction?

Alginic acid

Signup and view all the flashcards

Formoterol acts as what?

Long-acting β2 agonist

Signup and view all the flashcards

Agent exchange resin for hyperkalemia?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

Signup and view all the flashcards

Morphine side-effect INCORRECT?

Relaxation of sphincter of Oddi

Signup and view all the flashcards

Grams of KCL to prepare in solution?

You need 44.7g.

Signup and view all the flashcards

All may induce asthma EXCEPT?

St. John wort

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chemotherapeutic drug with highest nausea risk?

Cisplatin

Signup and view all the flashcards

Increased Aripiprazole level due to which cytochrome?

By 3A4 (CYP)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phenytoin treatment of status epilepticus?

15-20 mg/kg.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Quantity Hydrocortisone 80 mg IV q6h x 5

16 vials

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hypertensive emergencies drug of choice?

Sodium nitroprusside

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pertussis best treated?

Erythromycin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Methylparaben is the Methyl ester of?

Para-hydroxy benzoicacid

Signup and view all the flashcards

Warfarin onset of effect?

24 to 72 hours.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Renal impairment and drug adjustment?

Drug A only.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Alternative prophylaxis in Urological surgery?

Cefoxitin

Signup and view all the flashcards

Roxithromycin max daily dose?

300 mg.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Serotonin syndrome, least likely, which drug?

Olanzapine

Signup and view all the flashcards

Degradation in GIT most common process?

Hydrolysis

Signup and view all the flashcards

Digoxin normal therapeutic levels?

0.8-2 ng/ml

Signup and view all the flashcards

Do not take this medication with food.

Sucralfate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What causes pannus extra growth around joint?

Rheumatoid arthritis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lithium toxicity not associated?

Acetazolamide.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

KAPS Recalls and Notes 2023

  • 2023 Irfan Hashmi reserves all rights for the Elite-Platinum-Gold KAPS Group materials.
  • Nazia Rafique prepared the KAPS Recalls and Notes 2023.
  • The KAPS Aspirant Batch was in July 2023.
  • Selling or sharing study materials from the "Elite Study Group" is strictly prohibited, with a permanent ban and fine penalty for non-compliance.
  • Remember to keep doing ordinary things consistently to achieve extraordinary results.

KAPS Study Plan 2023 by Nazia Rafique

  • To pass the KAPS exam you need to focus and set aside all extra activities.
  • Be proactive in group discussions on the elite learning platform provided by Sir Irfan Hashmi.
  • Download the KAPS syllabus from the APC website to familiarize yourself with the marking criteria.
  • The syllabus includes paper 1 and paper 2, each divided into 4 sections.
  • A passing criteria of 50% marks is required in each section.
  • Paper 1 includes pharmaceutical chemistry and pharmacology, while paper 2 covers pharmaceutics and therapeutics.
  • Focus on main topics of pharmacology and therapeutics, including ANS, CNS, CVS, and CHEMOTHERAPEUTICS from Lippincott or CPR.
  • Solve MCQs at the end of chapters and memorize drug classifications, MOA, ADRs, contraindications, and drug interactions.
  • Pharmacokinetics such as route of elimination, short acting and long acting, and doses of important drugs, and their half-life should be highly focused on.
  • For pharmaceutics, CPR unit 2 and 5 are recommended along with drive lecture 3.
  • You need to pay Attention to QBM files and calculations, so firstly memorize all formulas from handout 7 and 15 and APEC files.
  • CPR unit 1 and 5 is recommended for the calculations.
  • Unit conversion is a tricky part of the exam, so you need to be very accurate with it.
  • In the exam you might get 22 to 25 calculation questions
  • For the chemistry portion, read CPR unit 58, handout file 11, and the stereochemistry and medicinal chemistry file shared in the group.
  • Pay attention to the structures of antibiotics, NSAIDs, ANS drugs, and steroidal drugs; don't skip these.
  • One file for structures only is shared in the group.
  • Focus on the main pharmacophore for drug identification.
  • Another file of 80 MCQs, i.e., pharmacy review, is also important.
  • Immunology is an important topic and can be studied from H. notes and CPR, with a focus on vaccines and hypersensitivity reactions.
  • Google Drive lectures can be done in parallel with studying topics from a book.

Important Recalls

  • Elite latest recalls covering March and July 2023 exam questions.
  • Ala nasar recalls.
  • H.1333 recalls.
  • QBM A, B, C.
  • 2022 recalls, including March, July, and November.
  • H. 413 recalls.
  • Recall covers around 30 to 40 percent according to the recent exam wave, focusing on concepts and practice.
  • Do sample tests and recalls to find in depth information for each question.
  • In KAPS, they can change a small detail in comparison with recalls, so understand the knowledge and choose the correct one in a real exam.
  • Review OTC drugs and herbal drugs superficially, using CPR and covered notes.
  • Cover superficial topics like endocrinology, respiratory system, GIT, and skin disorders from drive lectures and Lippincott, Main focus should be on classification mechanism and side effects.
  • Pregnancy categories and some safe used drugs can be found in the elite file.
  • Divide the syllabus and start with main topics like ANS, CNS, CVS, and chemotherapeutics.
  • Set weekly targets, discuss recalls in Zoom meetups with group members to stay motivated and build concepts.
  • Do 5 to 10 calculations and 2 structures daily.
  • Complete the syllabus in 2 months and revise in the last month for a 3-month time frame.
  • Memorize a list of CYP450 inhibitors and inducers, using mnemonics for the therapeutic parts, and remember drug metabolism pathways.
  • A dose list of important drugs to learn
  • learn Lists of prodrugs and drugs without active metabolites
  • Learn Drugs following renal elimination
  • Learn Drugs undergoing hepatic metabolism.
  • Lists of drugs causing hyperkalemia, hypokalemia, or hyper/hypoglycemia.
  • List of drugs causing photosensitivity, disulfiram-like reactions, or colouring urine, hemolytic in G6DP deficiency, drugs prolonging the QT interval.
  • List of drugs containing sulphonamide in the structure.
  • List of antidotes and precursors.
  • List of immunoglobulins and their characteristics.
  • List of emulsifiers and their characteristics.
  • These entire lists you will find in notes shared in group and in APF 2023.
  • For those with exam seats on the 2nd and 3rd day, complete preparation and revision before the 1st exam day and prepare 1st and 2nd day exam recalls, as there's a chance of repetition.
  • Make short handwritten notes with mnemonics for difficult topics to help you remember and be handy for revision.

Most Repeated & Latest Recalls

  • Codeine is metabolized to morphine mainly by the cytochrome P450 2D6 enzyme.
  • The first Measles immunization "MMR vaccine" dose is administered to children at or after the age of 12 Months
  • Cellulose acetate phthalate is used as a "Tablet enteric coating agent".
  • KCL is the option that is NOT used in toxicity of Aspirin
  • Kidnet disease requires Vancomycin dose reduction .
  • A drug with a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.6 ml and 40 % absorption implies a bioavailability of 0.16.
  • Salbutamol id ONE of the following drugs that is suitable for IV bolus injection.
  • The quantity of Dexamethasone tablets each containing 50 mg of drug you would require to to make up the mixture is 12
  • Magnesium citrate is considered as Osmotic saline laxative.
  • To prepare 650 millilitres of 35% alcohol, 200 ml of 80% alcohol should be mixed with 15% of alcohol.
  • 100 mg/ 6 hours IV Hydrocortisone doses is suitable for management of emergency asthma attack .
  • Elementary iron makes up 20% of 1950 mg of ferrous sulphate.
  • A ratio of 103 of ionized to unionized species at PKa = 2.2 results in a pH of 5.2.
  • After 50 minutes, a drug with an initial concentration of 100 mg/L and 10 mg/L will take 15 minutes to decompose to 50% of its original value.
  • To prepare a buffer of pH equal 9, Boric acid can be used
  • Chlorpropamide is NOT used as antiemetic in post-chemotherapy nausea and vomiting
  • Mixing 25 g of 2 % Clotrimazole with 60 g of 1.5 % Clotrimazole results in a final mixture percentage of 1.65%.
  • After 6 hours, 25% of a drug with a half-life of 3 hours will remain.
  • Alginic acid is which acid of the following that is NOT used in extraction
  • Long-acting β2 agonist describes the drug Formoterol.
  • Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is the agent is one of the following exchanges resins that can be used as antidote for cases of hyperkalaemia
  • Relaxation of sphincter of Oddi ONE of the following effects is INCORRECT about the opioid Morphine
  • It will require 44.7 g of KCL are required to prepare 200 ml solution given one teaspoonful of KCL solution contains 15 mEq of drug
  • All of the following may induce asthma EXCEPT Royal jelly
  • The chemotherapeutic drug with the highest patient risk for nausea and vomiting is Cisplatin
  • The combination of Diltiazem and Aripiprazole leads to Increased Aripiprazole level mostly due to inhibition of Cytochrome P 450 3A4.
  • A dose of 15-20 mg/kg is the recommended dose of phenytoin for treatment of status epilepticus.
  • 16 vials of Hydrocortisone (100 mg/ml) are required to fill the above order that calls for Hydrocortisone 80 mg IV q6h x 5 days.
  • The traditional drug of choice for therapy of hypertensive emergencies is Sodium nitroprusside
  • Pertussis (whooping cough) is due to Bordetella pertussis and is best treated with Erythromycin
  • Methylparaben is the Methyl ester of Para-hydroxy benzoic acid
  • Warfarin onset of action is approximately 24 to 72 hours
  • Drug A only A 45 year-old patient with renal impairment taking two drugs, the drug (A) is a drug that 90% excreted unchanged, while the drug (B) is chloramphenicol. It is necessary to make renal dose adjustment for
  • Cefoxitin The best alternative to Aminoglycoside for the prophylaxis in Urological surgery is
  • The maximum daily dose of Roxithromycin should be 300 mg.
  • Olanzapine ONE of the following drugs is the least likely to contribute to serotonin syndrome
  • The most common degradation process in GIT is Hydrolysis
  • The normal therapeutic levels of digoxin should be 0.8 - 2 ng/ml
  • Sucralfate ONE of the following drugs should NOT be taken with food or antacids
  • Rheumatoid arthritis Pannus is a type of extra growth that can cause pain, swelling, and damage to your tissues. It most often results from
  • Acetazolamide ONE of the following drugs is NOT associated with increased lithium toxicity
  • Lamotrigine ONE of the following drugs is the anticonvulsant drug with the least cardiotoxicity risk
  • Docusate sodium A pregnant woman complains constipation, which drug of the following will be the more suitable one for her
  • Physical exercise Which ONE of the following factors is the least likely to trigger seizures
  • Phenytoin Digoxin toxicity may be increased by co-administration of all of the following drugs except
  • MRSA The combination of Rifampicin and Sodium Fusidate has been shown to be effective in the treatment of
  • Aspirin Tinnitus is mostly associated with the overdose of which of the following drugs
  • Physostigmine Drug can be used as an antidote in the treatment of overdoses of drugs with anticholinergic actions as atropine
  • Cyproheptadine Which ONE of the following is usually recommended and is the most widely used antidote for serotonin syndrome
  • Do not drink alcohol or use any products that contain alcohol while using metronidazole An important patient advice regarding Metronidazole therapy is which of the following
  • Clozapine Weekly Complete blood count (CBC) monitoring is recommended for which one of the following drug therapy
  • Ethosuximide The drug of choice for the management of absence seizures
  • Hyponatremia and Hypo-osmolality The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion (SIADH) is characterized by
  • 1.4 hour If the total extent of degradation for drug is not allowed to be more than 15%, and the drug half-life is 6 hours. What would the shelf life be?
  • 936 mg/hour 35 years 70 kg old man with normal renal function requires an intravenous infusion of Carbenicillin over 10 hours.
  • Anionic SAA Na Risinolate --
  • Daily dose=100 mg starting 2 days before travel, one dose per day while there, and for 4 weeks after leaving.doxycycline prophylaxis in malaria:
  • clearance = k . vd, formula → CLT=Vd ×0.693/t1/2:
  • drugs increase in plasma than tissue when low Vd means:
  • phenytoin hepatic excretion.
  • morphine no loading dose
  • Lanolin contains : 72% wool fat and 28% water, The amount of lanolin and water required to prepare the formula is: 36 grams wool fat +20grams water is Answer: A. 50 grams lanolin+6 grams water.
  • PCM dose: 15 mg/ kg max 150 mg / kg
  • symptoms of mild dehydration in children: dizziness, lethargy Ig S is what is antibody not in plasma:
  • Formula: t1/2=0.693/K is the formula for calculating t1/2 Which ion does more affect on dehydration: Na
  • Immunoassay can not measure = electrolytes
  • Gonococcal antibiotic: azithromycin
  • Endocarditis in children caused by :Staphylococcus epidermidis, are opportunistic bacteria that can cause endocarditis, particularly in children with indwelling medical devices or prosthetic valves. Enterococcus spp.
  • Active T.B: Chest X-ray: diagnosis of
  • Tuberculin Skin Test (TST): Also known as the Mantoux testfor diagnosis of Latent T.B:
  • increase of R side chain DECREASE SOLUBILITY, More OH = more solubility solubility of alcohol what change in structure:
  • Aantipsychotic mechanism: dopamine antagonist
  • long acting B2 Agonist=Formoterol LABA
  • B2 Agonist=First choice for acute gout
  • systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): Butterfly Flushing:
  • reduces cardiac preload: Glyceryl trinitrate
  • Troponin then CPK ---LDH (Lactate dehydrogenase)=FIRST enzyme increase in MI
  • GENTAMYCIN, ACAMPROSATE, LITHIUM (polar drugs excreted unchanged e.g antidote) hat medicine excreted unchanged:
  • Adult dose: 200–400 mg three or four times daily. Maximum 2.4 g daily. 27-how to dose ibuprofen:
  • (3 months: 5–10 mg/kg (400 mg) three or four times daily. Maximum 30 mg/kg (2.4 g) daily.

  • HYDROXYLATION THEN GLUCORONIDATIONHow ibuprofen is excreted from the body:
  • sulphonamide 28 steven johns' syndrome caused by: ketoconazole: Rivaroxaban which drug increase serum level
  • long-acting nitrates and bb(metoprolol)= angina and heart failure drugs:
  • gentamycin.conc. Dependent killing= antimicrobial depends on concentration:
  • Cisplatin= nausea and vomiting more with

Recent Recalls

  • 50-100 mg. Max 300 mg in 24:
  • Excessive Urination: Taking Imipramine symptom
  • Prol. Diarrhea or Vomiting:Gastrointestinal losses of potassium
  • Autosomal Recessive disease: CF
  • Watersolubility:Incorrect for Camphor
  • [ Phenol-Camphor-menthol-Thymol-phenyl Salicylate & phenacetin].:substances that form eutectic mixtures
  • Vancomycin:Iv anti and develops flushes,rush etc
  • Active: active drug and metabolite
  • No active:active if no active metabolite
  • Glucose:Not part of cell memberane
  • Electrolye:not use immunoassay
  • [a) Endoplasmic Recticulum]:Golgi nucelous connected DIRECTLY to what
  • D.o.C - Dexamethasone:Dose is Safely used Iv
  • Hg <0.01% is PRESERVATIVE eye SOLUTION
  • dizzibess, lethargy:Mild deyhdratio
  • Ig S: what is the ab that isnt in plasm
  • TL/2 0.693/K: Formula
  • N:Which has more influence w H20?
  • Azithromycin:Gonococcal Antibiotic
  • Stapahoreius are organistic bact that can cause endocardidis In chidken espically one with an meducal indwelling
  • Active.TB chest x ray
  • The Skin Tuberculosis Test aka the Mauntoux test
  • Inc R side to inc SOLB: solubility
  • Dopamine Agnostic:Antiscytptic mechanisnms
  • B2 agonist:formetitol laba
  • not release 5HT-asthma attacks
  • MTX (Methaloxane- gOUT
  • Steriods, NSaid.S, colchincine (Buttrfly flshing)
  • Glyceryl Trinitrate Reduce preload =First enzyme INCREASE IN MIL
  • ACAMPROSE,Lithume excreted nchanged
  • How to dose Ibu-Profen
  • Hydrolaytion then blusarisation:Ibufrofren

Additional Information

  • sulfonimaide=Steven John

  • Rivadexon Which level are increased

  • Long Lasting Nitrate/ betablock - Angina,Heart Filler gentamyin dependent kill

  • CISplatin vomiy

  • To low dose: the factor that the least likely triggers Seizures-

  • Penitoint

  • MRSA:Combi

  • Asprin Tiniuts

  • Chyrprophetadine:Serorionin

  • Dont Alcohol and use produce thst contain alchol with Meto.

  • THe Mcroludes:Antibotics wifth Macroclitc towhich on or more dexi sugar ach

  • Pregnancy categoies 4

  • Procut for compaing two

  • Soduim, gluse, gulicr, Gluatamine

  • Indirect-acting sympathomimetic amines may have two, one, or no hydroxyl groups. The fewer the hydroxyl groups, the higher the lipophilicity, and the greater the absorption and the duration of activity after oral administration. Faster and greater absorption also implies less intestinal destruction of the drug.

  • Alkyl substitution at the a-carbon (adjacent to the amino group) retards destruction of phenol and phenyl compounds and increases lipophilic character, contributing to prolonged activity.

  • N-substitution with bulky groups increases direct b-receptor activity, as with the direct acting agents.

  • Cardiac glycosides are naturally occurring steroids with a powerful stimulating action on the cardiac muscle. These compounds are composed of an aglycone, which is either a cardenolide or a bufadienolide, and a hydrophilic carbohydrate moiety linked at the C-3 position.

  • The content of extra.

  • Gentomicne Concentration depending AB-

  • Which one is selective MAO A – Meclobemide & selective MAO B - Selegiline

  • Which one you don't use in hypertension if pt has depression – methyldopa

  • Which drug cause haemolytic anaemia- methyldopa, quinidine, isoniazid, high dose penicillin

  • What can affect levodopa passage through BB - high protein diet (de-carboxylation also affect-use with carbidopa)→ better to take empty stomach.

  • What is responsible for catecholamines metabolism- COMT postsynaptically & by MAO intraneuronally (present in mitochondria of neuron).

  • One dose only – sumatriptan (migraine)

  • Intranasal: 10–20 mg into one nostril. Maximum 40 mg in 24 hours.:

  • C: 6 mg. Maximum 12 mg in 24 hours

  • Your pt is taking Imipramine 25mg, what's most likely to occur as indication - excessive urination

  • prolonged diarrhea or vomiting=Gastro losses of potassium

  • autosomoal recessive disease

  • Watersoulbility is not correcf for Camphor

  • [Phenol-Camphor-menthol-Thymol-phenyl Salicylate & phenacetin].=SUbstabxes That forme eutertic mixtures +gets IV antibiotic and soon develops flushes, rush, erythema etc which Abx is most likely to be- vancomycin

  • Active: active drug and metabolite

  • No active:active if no active metabolite

  • Glucose:membrane

  • Electrolye:NOT MEASRD

Additional Notes

  1. Inrenal Impalrment get Trichimonlas DOC.
  2. B act caUse memungitts 3 LIVER-Main org
  3. Ileum:Least plaE ABS.
  4. RIbosome:REctiulum endolasim
  • The Macrolidesare group of antibotics with macromol
  • Pregancny Categry
  • Preacut fo comparung two

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser