ENT

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Questions and Answers

Why is it important for healthcare professionals, especially those in oral surgery/oral and maxillofacial surgery (OS/OMFS), to have knowledge of ENT (Oto-rhino-laryngology)?

  • To effectively communicate with ENT specialists and understand the overlap between ENT and OS/OMFS. (correct)
  • To specialize in treating ENT conditions exclusively.
  • To disregard oro-facial differential diagnosis.
  • To avoid any collaboration with ENT specialists.

A patient complains of earache. What is the medical term for earache that should be documented in the patient's history?

  • Tinnitus
  • Deafness
  • Vertigo
  • Otalgia (correct)

A patient reports a sensation of the external world revolving around them. Which term accurately describes this symptom?

  • Deafness
  • Vertigo (correct)
  • Tinnitus
  • Otalgia

During an ENT examination, what does otoscopy primarily assess?

<p>The tympanic membrane and middle ear structures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using tuning fork tests during an ear examination?

<p>To differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Rinne test, what does it indicate if bone conduction (BC) is greater than air conduction (AC) in the affected ear?

<p>Conductive hearing loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the Weber test, a patient reports that the sound lateralizes to the left ear. What does this finding suggest?

<p>Conductive hearing loss in the left ear or sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of pure tone audiometry in diagnosing hearing disorders?

<p>To measure the softest sounds a person can hear at different frequencies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which advantage does Electric Response Audiometry offer over pure tone audiometry, especially when testing young children?

<p>It is an objective test that does not require patient participation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the external ear is composed of cartilage?

<p>Both B and C (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of epithelium lines the external ear canal?

<p>Specialized Squamous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Unlike skin elsewhere on the body, the external ear canal has specialized features. Which of the following is characteristic of the ear canal's skin?

<p>Contains ceruminous glands. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a common cause or type of disorder affecting the outer ear?

<p>Metabolic (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear, has several potential causes. Which of the following is a general cause?

<p>Irritants (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides bacterial infections, otitis externa can also be caused by other types of infections. Identify such a cause from the following options.

<p>Candida, Aspergillus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports earache that seems to worsen when they chew or move their jaw. What anatomical structure's proximity might explain this?

<p>Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What implications does understanding ENT have for professionals working in OS/OMFS?

<p>Recognizing and addressing overlapping conditions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a motorcycle accident, a patient's ear examination reveals a hemotympanum. How would this affect the choice of examination techniques?

<p>May compromise the accuracy of pneumatic otoscopy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'false negatives' being an issue with Rinne tuning fork tests indicate?

<p>High risk of inaccurate conductive vs sensorineural hearing loss determination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to test both air and bone conduction during pure tone audiometry?

<p>To differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with otalgia, discharge, and a sensation of fullness in the ear. What is the MOST likely initial diagnostic step a healthcare provider should take AFTER reviewing the patient's history?

<p>Otoscopy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an otoscopic examination, an accumulation of cerumen is observed to be obstructing the ear canal. What is the next appropriate step?

<p>Attempt cerumen removal if appropriate and feasible. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would hyperacusis (increased sensitivity to sound) impact the pure tone audiometry?

<p>Result in inconsistent and unreliable responses during testing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of chronic TMJ disorder reports experiencing otalgia. How should you address this information during the ENT-focused history taking?

<p>Address how TMJ pain may be referred. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon examination, a patient shows inflammation of the pinna with no other symptoms. Which treatment would be least recommended until diagnosis is obtained?

<p>Oral antibiotics (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to understand oro-facial differential diagnoses in the context of ENT for oral surgeons?

<p>Because some oral and facial pain or symptoms may originate from ENT-related conditions, such as sinus or tonsillar issues. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing a ringing sensation in their ears. What is the appropriate medical term to document this symptom?

<p>Tinnitus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific aspect of the ear does an otoscopy examination focus on?

<p>Visualizing the tympanic membrane and the external auditory canal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Rinne test differentiate between types of hearing loss using a tuning fork?

<p>By assessing and comparing air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC) in each ear. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Weber test, a patient reports that the sound is heard equally in both ears. What does this suggest?

<p>Normal hearing or symmetrical hearing loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to conduct pure tone audiometry in a soundproof booth?

<p>To prevent external noise from affecting the accuracy of the hearing thresholds measured. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What makes Electric Response Audiometry (ERA) particularly useful when assessing hearing in infants or uncooperative individuals?

<p>It bypasses the need for patient cooperation by measuring brainwave responses to sound. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physical property characterizes the outer two-thirds of the external ear?

<p>Cartilaginous (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key feature of the skin that lines the external ear canal, distinguishing it from skin found elsewhere on the body?

<p>It contains ceruminous glands that produce earwax. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of disorders affecting the outer ear?

<p>Genetic mutations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides the general cause being bacterial infections, what other type of infection can lead to otitis externa?

<p>Fungal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with earache and tenderness around the ear that seems to worsen when they chew. Which anatomical structure's involvement should be considered?

<p>Temporomandibular Joint (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a head trauma, a patient's ear examination reveals hemotympanum. What immediate concern does this finding raise?

<p>Potential skull base fracture. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of the Rinne test, what do 'false negatives' suggest about the interpretation of results?

<p>The test may incorrectly indicate normal hearing in the presence of conductive hearing loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pure tone audiometry, why is it essential to test both air and bone conduction?

<p>To differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of chronic TMJ disorder reports experiencing otalgia. How should you initially interpret this information when taking their ENT history?

<p>Consider TMJ as a potential source or contributing factor to the ear pain. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST immediate significance of recognizing the overlap between OS/OMFS and ENT?

<p>It enables more comprehensive and informed patient care, especially in complex cases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a sensation of the external world revolving around them. What other symptom is most likely present?

<p>Nystagmus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with otalgia, discharge, and a sensation of fullness in the ear. What is the MOST important question to ask the patient during your patient health history?

<p>When did symptoms start? (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon examination, a patient shows inflammation of the pinna without other symptoms. Why should a healthcare provider delay prescribing topical antibiotics?

<p>Pinna inflammation can result from various causes, and accurate diagnosis might involve lab cultures or biopsies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Weber test, what does it mean if sound lateralises to the ipsilateral ear?

<p>Conductive hearing loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately interprets the results of the Rinne test?

<p>If the patient hears the sound longer through bone than air, then they may have conductive hearing loss. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing increased sensitivity to sound after trauma. Considering conditions impacting pure tone audiometry, what adjustment is most likely required?

<p>Modify the testing procedure, allowing lower intensity levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely aetiology if a patient is diagnosed with necrotising 'malignant' otitis externa?

<p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the skin in the external ear?

<p>Readily desquamates (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common initial treatment for otitis externa before considering specific causes?

<p>Gentamicin and steroid ear drops (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a painful ear and serous discharge. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms?

<p>Otitis externa (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which treatment strategy is LEAST likely to be effective for chronic otitis media with effusion ('glue ear')?

<p>Administration of systemic antibiotics alone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What underlying issue can cholesteatoma directly result from?

<p>Eustachian tube dysfunction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with 'cauliflower ear'. What type of injury is MOST likely associated with this condition?

<p>Blunt trauma to the auricle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a sports injury, an athlete presents with an auricular hematoma. If left untreated, what is the MOST likely long-term complication?

<p>'Cauliflower ear' deformity (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common symptom associated with otitis externa?

<p>&quot;Blocked ear&quot; sensation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary objective of childhood screening programs that target chronic otitis media with effusion?

<p>Early identification and management to reduce language and developmental delays (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with external ear pain, fever and malaise. What is the MOST appropriate initial diagnostic step a healthcare provider should take?

<p>Performing a thorough otoscopic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern regarding progressive cholesteatoma?

<p>It can cause destructive changes in the middle ear (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is LEAST likely to contribute to chronic otitis media with effusion ('glue ear')?

<p>Genetic predisposition to otosclerosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a motorcycle accident, a patient is diagnosed with perichondritis of the auricle. What is the MOST critical initial treatment to prevent long-term complications?

<p>Prompt administration of systemic antibiotics (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is pure tone audiometry recommended for children with chronic otitis media with effusion?

<p>To measure the degree of conductive hearing loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult patient presents with a keloid on their earlobe following a piercing. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

<p>Intralesional corticosteroid injections (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes acute mastoiditis from acute otitis media?

<p>Acute mastoiditis involves infection of the mastoid air cells, potentially extending beyond the middle ear (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which long-term outcome is MOST associated with untreated chronic otitis media with effusion in children?

<p>Significant language and speech delays (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of myringotomy in managing chronic otitis media with effusion?

<p>To create ventilation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What finding during an otoscopic examination would suggest a retraction pocket consistent with cholesteatoma?

<p>An inward displacement of the tympanic membrane in the attic region (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN goal of using auto-inflation techniques for chronic otitis media with effusion?

<p>To equalize pressure between the middle ear and atmosphere (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with chronic, recurrent otitis externa. What underlying condition should be considered?

<p>Fungal infection (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following growths are typically benign?

<p>Osteoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common symptom to suspect acute suppurative otitis media in children under 5?

<p>Irritability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is diagnosed with 'Glue Ear', what is most likely to be observed?

<p>Conductive hearing loss (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes 'Glue Ear'?

<p>Eustachian insufficiency (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is likely to be prescribed for Otitis Externa?

<p>Gentamicin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a foul-smelling discharge and conductive hearing loss. Otoscopic examination reveals a growth in the middle ear. Which condition is MOST likely indicated by this presentation?

<p>Cholesteatoma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of chronic ear infections develops facial palsy. Which of the following complications is MOST likely to be the cause?

<p>Cholesteatoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with vertigo, conductive hearing loss, and a foul-smelling discharge from the ear. Which of the following diagnostic procedures is MOST appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

<p>CT scan or MRI (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms, if present in a patient with suspected cholesteatoma, would raise the GREATEST concern for potential intracranial extension?

<p>Facial palsy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following surgical removal of a cholesteatoma, a patient is advised about the possibility of recurrence. What is the MOST relevant factor influencing the likelihood of cholesteatoma recurrence post-surgery?

<p>Extent of initial cholesteatoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with episodic vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, and a sensation of fullness in the ear. Which of the following conditions is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms?

<p>Meniere's disease (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing a 'drop attack' associated with Meniere's disease is MOST likely to exhibit which additional symptom?

<p>Tinnitus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following features distinguishes Meniere's disease from vestibular neuronitis?

<p>Hearing loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST likely initial step in managing a patient newly diagnosed with Meniere's disease?

<p>Conservative management (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A unilateral acoustic neuroma MOST commonly causes which of the following?

<p>Progressive unilateral deafness (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of brain tumours do acoustic neuromas account for?

<p>6% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient with a suspected acoustic neuroma, which of the following symptoms is LEAST likely to be present?

<p>Sudden hearing loss (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Compared to surgical removal of an acoustic neuroma, gamma knife radiosurgery is associated with:

<p>Lower risk of significant morbidity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a persistent 'lump in the throat' sensation. Which of the following features would be MOST concerning for a malignant etiology?

<p>Progressive difficulty swallowing solids, then liquids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are assessing a patient complaining of a persistent sore throat. Which associated symptom should raise the GREATEST suspicion for a more serious underlying condition?

<p>Stridor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with cholesteatoma reports a persistent, foul-smelling discharge from the ear. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of this specific symptom?

<p>Bacterial infection secondary to keratin debris accumulation within the cholesteatoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with conductive hearing loss, aural fullness and episodic vertigo. Which inner ear structure is MOST likely affected?

<p>Cochlea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with suspected Meniere's disease experiences a 'drop attack'. Which of the following physiological mechanisms BEST explains this phenomenon?

<p>Sudden increase in endolymphatic pressure affecting both vestibular and cochlear function (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is LEAST likely to be directly associated with an acoustic neuroma?

<p>Tinnitus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a persistent sensation of a 'lump in the throat' (globus sensation). Which associated symptom would raise the GREATEST suspicion for a malignant aetiology?

<p>Gradual onset of difficulty swallowing solids, progressing to liquids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with persistent hoarseness, and reports associated earache. What is the significance when considering diagnosis?

<p>A more serious, underlying condition may be present (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes the dizziness experienced in vestibular neuronitis from that of Meniere's disease?

<p>Episodic nature (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between the surgical removal of an acoustic neuroma versus treatment with gamma knife radiosurgery?

<p>Gamma knife radiosurgery offers a lower risk of facial nerve damage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of chronic ear infections is diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What is the MOST likely underlying mechanism that led to the development of this condition?

<p>Invasion of squamous epithelium into the middle ear through a tympanic membrane perforation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common initial management strategy for Meniere's disease?

<p>Dietary and lifestyle modifications to reduce endolymphatic hydrops (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exhibits a 'unilateral' sore throat. What other associated symptom would raise the GREATEST concern?

<p>Stridor (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with otalgia and examination reveals a retraction pocket in the tympanic membrane. What condition should be suspected?

<p>Cholesteatoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An adult patient comes in complaining of a 'lump in the throat' sensation. Which aspect of their history would suggest it's more likely due to anxiety rather than a malignant growth?

<p>Symptoms improve when distracted and are less noticeable when eating (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a cholesteatoma removal, a patient is concerned about it coming back. Which factor is the MOST significant predictor of recurrence?

<p>The extent of the original disease and the completeness of its removal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Hoarseness, dysphagia and stridor would generally indicate an issue stemming from what region(s)?

<p>Lingual/Oral or Oropharyngeal (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should a clinician be concerned if a patient presents with persistent hoarseness along with earache?

<p>The combination suggests a potential issue involving structures innervated by cranial nerves, possibly malignancy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a persistent sensation of a 'lump in the throat' (globus sensation). Which associated symptom would raise suspicion for a malignant etiology?

<p>Gradual, progressive difficulty swallowing solid foods. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient complaining of a persistent sore throat. Which associated symptom should raise the GREATEST suspicion for a more serious underlying condition?

<p>Difficulty or pain when swallowing (dysphagia/odynophagia). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with earache, and otoscopy reveals inflammation of the tympanic membrane, but the cone of light is still visible. What is the MOST likely initial diagnosis?

<p>Early-stage acute otitis media (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A child has recurrent episodes of acute otitis media. What is the MOST appropriate long-term management strategy to PREVENT further episodes?

<p>Placement of tympanostomy tubes (grommets) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a cholesteatoma reports increasing vertigo. What is the MOST likely mechanism causing this symptom?

<p>Erosion of the inner ear structures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After sustaining a blow to the ear during a boxing match, a patient develops an auricular hematoma. If the hematoma is NOT drained promptly, what long-term complication is MOST likely?

<p>Cauliflower ear (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A young child is diagnosed with chronic otitis media with effusion ('glue ear') bilaterally. What is the MOST significant potential long-term NEGATIVE outcome if this condition remains untreated?

<p>Delayed speech and language development (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 60-year-old patient reports a persistent, musty, foul odor emanating from their ear, accompanied by hearing loss. Otoscopy reveals debris and a pearly mass behind the tympanic membrane. Which condition is MOST likely?

<p>Cholesteatoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a middle ear infection, a patient develops acute mastoiditis. What is the key differentiating factor between acute otitis media and acute mastoiditis regarding the location of infection?

<p>Mastoiditis involves the mastoid air cells, while otitis media is confined to the middle ear space. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Meniere's disease experiences a sudden 'drop attack'. Which physiological process BEST explains the mechanism behind this?

<p>Abrupt failure of the vestibular system's compensatory mechanisms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initial strategy is MOST appropriate for managing a patient with newly diagnosed Meniere's disease to alleviate acute symptoms and prevent further episodes?

<p>Implementation of a low-sodium diet and diuretics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports difficulty swallowing solids, followed by increasing difficulty with liquids, accompanied by unintentional weight loss. What feature would MOST raise suspicion for a malignant cause of their dysphagia?

<p>Gradual, progressive worsening of symptoms (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When evaluating a patient with persistent hoarseness, which of the following associated symptoms would MOST warrant further, urgent investigation for a potentially serious underlying condition?

<p>Associated earache and stridor (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presenting with a persistent 'lump in the throat' sensation (globus pharyngeus) reports it fluctuates in severity and is unrelated to swallowing. Which factor in their history would suggest a BENIGN rather than a malignant etiology?

<p>History of anxiety and reflux (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following surgical removal of a cholesteatoma, a patient is counseled about the risk of recurrence. Which factor is the MOST significant determinant of the likelihood of recurrence post-surgery?

<p>Extent of the initial cholesteatoma and residual disease (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Weber test, if a patient has unilateral conductive hearing loss, to which ear will the sound MOST likely lateralize, if at all?

<p>To the ear 'with' hearing loss (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a history of noise exposure reports a persistent ringing in both ears, particularly noticeable in quiet environments. Which term accurately describes this presentation?

<p>Tinnitus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient who is undergoing pure tone audiometry reports increased sensitivity to sounds following a recent head injury. How should the audiometry test be adjusted?

<p>Lower the intensity of the presented tones (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with otalgia, serous discharge, and a sensation of fullness in the left ear. During history taking, what's the MOST relevant follow-up question?

<p>Have you recently used cotton swabs to clean your ears? (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a suspected acoustic neuroma experiences progressive unilateral deafness. How is this condition MOST accurately described?

<p>A benign tumor affecting hearing and potentially balance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient complaining of dysphagia and a persistent sensation of a 'lump in the throat', you note associated voice changes. Which voice presentation is most concerning?

<p>Consistent hoarseness with associated earache (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main goal of using auto-inflation techniques for resolving/treating chronic otitis media and related negative middle ear pressure?

<p>To improve eustachian tube function (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is understanding the anatomical proximity between the ear and the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) important when taking a patient's history?

<p>Ear pain (otalgia) can be referred from TMJ disorders, complicating diagnosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a patient reports earache (otalgia), which other symptom, related to the mouth, should a clinician specifically ask about to explore possible TMJ involvement?

<p>Pain or clicking when chewing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of documenting the characteristics of ear discharge (if any) during history taking for ear complaints?

<p>The color and consistency of discharge can help differentiate between infection types and conditions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing vertigo. To better characterize this symptom, what specific question should be asked?

<p>If the vertigo is constant or episodic. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the external examination of the ear, what is the significance of noting the presence of any skin lesions or abnormalities?

<p>Identifying cancerous/pre-cancerous lesions of the ear is part of the oral-facial examination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing otoscopy, what are you looking for to suspect it as a TM joint pain?

<p>Observe signs of joint injury. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a Rinne test compare, to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss?

<p>Air conduction and bone conduction in the ear being tested. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an ENT examination using the Weber test, the tuning fork is placed on the forehead. If the sound lateralizes to one ear, what does this imply?

<p>The ear to which the sound lateralizes has conductive hearing loss, or the other ear has sensorineural hearing loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pure tone audiometry, what are the 'special headphones' designed to do?

<p>Deliver different sound frequencies to each ear independently. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEP) in electric response audiometry (ERA)?

<p>To measure the electrical activity in the auditory pathway in response to sound stimulus. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to protect the cartilage of the external ear from infection or inflammation?

<p>Cartilage destruction can lead to permanent disfigurement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature of the skin lining the external ear canal makes it more susceptible to irritation and infection?

<p>Specialized glands. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports using cotton swabs daily to clean their ears. How can this behavior contribute to otitis externa?

<p>Cotton swabs can push cerumen further into the ear canal, leading to impaction and secondary inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides bacteria, which other organism is a common cause of otitis externa, particularly in individuals with diabetes or compromised immune systems?

<p>Aspergillus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the treatment approach change when otitis externa is caused by a fungal infection instead of a bacterial infection?

<p>Antifungal drops are required. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Auricular hematoma, if left untreated, most commonly can lead to what long term complication?

<p>Cauliflower ear. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is prompt drainage of an auricular hematoma essential in preventing long-term complications?

<p>To prevent cartilage necrosis and subsequent deformity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern associated with perichondritis of the auricle following ear trauma or piercing?

<p>Development of permanent disfigurement due to cartilage destruction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are keloids more likely to develop on the earlobe than on other parts of the ear?

<p>The earlobe is frequently pierced, leading to heightened inflammation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the most common types of malignant neoplasia found on the external ear?

<p>Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY underlying cause or mechanism leading to cholesteatoma formation?

<p>Eustachian tube dysfunction causing chronic negative pressure and retraction pocket formation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with a long-standing cholesteatoma develops sudden facial paralysis. Explain the MOST likely cause or mechanism.

<p>Direct compression of the facial nerve, caused by the growth of the cholesteatoma. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does cholesteatoma often lead to conductive hearing loss?

<p>Damage and/or destruction of the ossicles by the cholesteatoma. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT considered a factor that contributes to chronic otitis media with effusion ('glue ear')?

<p>Dental malocclusion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind using 'auto-inflation' techniques in the management of chronic otitis media with effusion ('glue ear')?

<p>To help equalize pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere to promote drainage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do tympanostomy tubes (grommets) play in the long-term management of chronic otitis media with effusion?

<p>They provide ventilation to the middle ear, preventing fluid build-up. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In acute suppurative otitis media, what is a key step in management especially when a causative bacterial strain has been defined?

<p>Antibiotics. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it especially important for chronic otitis media with effusion to be identified and managed effectively in young children?

<p>To prevent speech and language development delays due to hearing impairment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which finding during an otoscopic examination would MOST strongly suggest the presence of a cholesteatoma rather than simple otitis media?

<p>A deep retraction pocket in the pars flaccida, with visible debris. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Sudden vertigo, conductive hearing loss, and smelly discharge could indicate?

<p>Cholesteatoma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient exhibits acute mastoiditis secondary to acute otitis media. Where is the infection primarily located in mastoiditis?

<p>Infection is now in the mastoid air cells of temporal bone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following structures is primarily affected in Meniere's disease, leading to its characteristic symptoms?

<p>The semicircular canals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with Meniere's disease experiences a 'drop attack.' What physiological mechanism explains this phenomenon?

<p>Sudden increase in endolymphatic pressure, causing distortion of inner ear. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When managing Meniere's, what is generally the first step?

<p>Conservative and avoid triggers. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An acoustic neuroma typically arises from which anatomical structure?

<p>Vestibular nerve. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What symptom do acoustic neuromas most likely cause?

<p>Progressive unilateral deafness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In treating Acoustic Neuroma via management, what is the risk of recurrence?

<p>Higher recurrence with gamma knife, but lower with surgery. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing a globus pharyngeus, a sensation like 'a lump in the throat.' What is the MOST important factor to determine if it is psychological or malignant.

<p>If it gets better with food. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When assessing a patient with hoarseness, what associated symptoms would be MOST concerning for a possible underlying malignancy?

<p>Dysphagia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of 'unilateral symptoms' in the context of sore throat and dysphagia?

<p>Raises suspicion for a malignant etiology. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports a globus sensation. What food texture is the FIRST indicator that it may be progressing to a malignant cause?

<p>Solids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides malignancy, what other aetiologies would lead to dysphagia and/or odynophagia?

<p>Ulcerations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with new-onset, persistent hoarseness in their voice. What associated symptom should prompt the MOST urgent referral to ENT?

<p>Dysphagia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following symptoms is MOST likely to indicate a malignant progression if the patient is complaining of globus sensation?

<p>Hoarseness. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with persistent earache. The most concerning associated symptom to identify is:

<p>Hoarseness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for oral surgeons to understand the different types of hearing tests?

<p>To differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential overlapping symptom between temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders and ear conditions?

<p>Tinnitus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During history taking, what aspect of ear discharge is MOST important to document to guide the patient's diagnosis?

<p>Colour and odour (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports experiencing vertigo; what differentiating question would guide your diagnosis?

<p>Is there any movement? (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of noting skin lesions or abnormalities on the external ear during an ENT exam?

<p>They may indicate skin cancers or systemic diseases. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During otoscopy, what finding would MOST suggest that a ear pain is potentially referred from the TM joint?

<p>Normal tympanic membrane appearance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Rinne test compares which two parameters?

<p>Air conduction and bone conduction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Weber test, if sound lateralizes to one ear, what does this imply?

<p>Hearing loss in at least one ear (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In pure tone audiometry, why are 'special headphones' used that fit into the ear?

<p>They deliver calibrated sound levels. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Electric Response Audiometry (ERA), BAEPs are monitored for what purpose?

<p>To measure the electrical activity in the brainstem in response to auditory stimuli. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature of the skin lining the external ear canal can increase susceptibility to irritation and infection, leading to otitis externa?

<p>Presence of ceruminous glands and lack of hair follicles. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient asks how using cotton swabs to clean their ears can lead to otitis externa. Which is the MOST accurate response?

<p>Cotton swabs abrade the sensitive epithelium, creating microscopic breaks in the skin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the treatment approach typically change when otitis externa is caused by a fungal infection instead of a bacterial infection?

<p>Antifungal medications are prescribed rather than antibacterial ones. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST important factor to determine if a 'lump in the throat' (globus sensation) is psychological or malignant in nature?

<p>Whether there is progressive impairment of swallowing, particularly solids. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient describes a sensation of a 'lump in the throat' (Globus pharyngeus). What feature would be MOST concerning for a malignant cause?

<p>Associated weight loss. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is Oto-rhino-laryngology (ENT)?

The branch of medicine that deals with conditions of the ear, nose, and throat.

What is Otalgia?

A common symptom referring to an earache.

What is Vertigo?

The sensation of a spinning or whirling motion; can feel like the external world revolving around the patient

What is Otoscopy?

Visual examination of the ear with an otoscope.

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What is the Rinne Test?

Determines if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural, comparing air vs bone conduction.

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What is the Weber Test?

Tuning fork test for lateralization of sound, indicating conductive or sensorineural hearing loss.

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What is Pure Tone Audiometry?

Hearing test performed in a soundproof booth to measure hearing sensitivity at different frequencies.

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What is Electric Response Audiometry?

An objective hearing test that measures electrical responses in the brainstem or cortex.

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What is the External Ear?

The outer part of the ear is composed of cartilage (2/3), specialized squamous epithelium, ceruminous glands and has multiple sensory nerve supply

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What is Otitis Externa?

Inflammation of the external ear canal.

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What is Tinnitus?

A common symptom characterized by a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears.

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Common disorders of the outer ear?

Inflammatory, Traumatic, Neoplastic, Congenital & Idiopathic.

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Symptoms of Otitis Externa?

A painful condition of the outer ear, sometimes with discharge, that can cause a blocked ear sensation.

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Otitis Externa Treatment?

Treatment of Otitis Externa involves gentamicin or steroid ear drops, especially if caused by a fungal infection.

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Auricular Hematoma

Trauma to the external ear that results in a collection of blood between the cartilage and the perichondrium.

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Perichondritis

Inflammation of the perichondrium, the tissue surrounding the cartilage of the ear.

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Cauliflower Ear

Deformity of the ear caused by repeated trauma or inflammation, common in contact sports.

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Osteoma of the Ear?

A benign bone growth that can occur in the external auditory canal.

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BCC of the Ear?

A type of malignant neoplasia, specifically basal cell carcinoma, affecting the ear.

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SCC of the Ear?

A type of malignant neoplasia, squamous cell carcinoma, affecting the ear.

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Acute Suppurative Otitis Media

An inflammatory condition of the middle ear, often caused by bacterial infection, leading to pus formation.

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Mastoiditis

A complication of acute suppurative otitis media, characterized as inflammation of the mastoid air cells of the temporal bone.

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Otitis Media with Effusion

This refers to middle ear inflammation with thick or sticky fluid behind the eardrum.

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Causes of 'Glue Ear'?

Eustachian tube dysfunction, environmental factors, immunity, social class, and allergies.

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Effects of 'Glue Ear'?

Hearing loss, language delay, behavioral issues, repeated infections, and poor academic performance.

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Cholesteatoma

Refers to the presence of skin growth in the middle ear, often due to repeated infection.

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Cholesteatoma Formation?

Eustachian dysfunction, retraction pocket, progressive damage, destructive nature, attic position in the ear.

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Inner Ear Labyrinth

The branch of the inner ear responsible for balance and spatial orientation.

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Semicircular canals

Curved, fluid-filled passages in the inner ear, responsible for detecting rotational movements.

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Ampulla

An expansion at the end of each semicircular canal that contains the crista ampullaris.

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Angular acceleration

The measurement of the rate of change of angular velocity, essential for balance.

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Acoustic Neuroma

A rare, typically benign tumor that develops on the vestibulocochlear nerve, leading to imbalance and hearing issues.

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Meniere's Disease

An inner ear disorder causing vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in the ear.

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Surgery Side Effects

Significant morbidity can arise as a consequence from surgical interventions.

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Vestibular Neuronitis

Inner ear disorder causing sudden vertigo (dizziness) due to inflammation of the vestibular nerve.

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Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

An inner ear condition causing brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific changes in head position.

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Acoustic Neuroma Symptoms

Progressive unilateral deafness, vertigo, unsteadiness, and facial palsy.

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Foul Smell (Ear)

A foul odor emanating from the ear, associated with conditions like cholesteatoma.

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Conductive Hearing Loss

Hearing loss caused by a problem in the outer or middle ear that prevents sound from reaching the inner ear.

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Ear Discharge

An abnormal drainage or secretion from the ear, indicative of infection or inflammation.

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Facial Palsy

Weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, potentially linked to ear infections or nerve damage.

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Meniere's Disease Management

Conservative, medical and surgical approaches

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What is Cholesteatoma?

A growth of skin in the middle ear, often associated with a foul smell, conductive hearing loss, and potential complications.

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What is Meniere's Disease?

An inner ear disorder characterized by episodic vertigo, tinnitus, fluctuating hearing loss, and a sensation of fullness in the ear.

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What is Conductive Hearing Loss?

Hearing loss that occurs when sound waves are unable to pass through the outer or middle ear to the inner ear.

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What is Acoustic Neuroma?

A rare, benign tumor on the auditory nerve that can cause progressive hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance problems.

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What does ENT stand for?

The medical specialty focused on the ear, nose, and throat.

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Why overlap with OS/OMFS?

Conditions where dental and sinus issues can cause similar symptoms.

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What is Deafness?

Deafness or the partial or complete loss of hearing

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What is an Otoscope?

Medical instrument used for inspecting the ear.

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What is a Haematoma?

Swelling due to accumulation of blood.

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What are Grommets?

Used to manage chronic otitis media with effusion (glue ear).

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Treatment for Otitis Externa involves?

Gentamicin and steroid ear drops

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Chronic Otitis Media with Effusion ('Glue Ear')?

Multifactorial with Eustachian insufficiency.

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Why study ENT?

Medical specialty focused on conditions of the ear, nose, and throat.

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Earache (Otalgia) & TMJ

Located close to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

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Treatment for Otitis Externa

Gentamicin or steroid drops.

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External Ear

The outer part of the ear.

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Middle Ear

Located between the eardrum and inner ear.

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Inner Ear

Contains sensory organs for hearing and balance.

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Pure Tone Audiometry

Soundproof room for accurate hearing tests.

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How do we test the ear?

Assess if a patient has conductive or sensorineural hearing loss.

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What causes Otitis Externa?

Infection due to irritants, skin disorders, trauma, other infections.

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Causes of Cholesteatoma?

Complication of Eustachian dysfunction, retraction pocket, progressive damage, destructive nature, attic position in the ear.

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External Ear Trauma?

Infection, trauma, or inflammation of the external ear can all lead to...

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How does Angular Acceleration affect the ear.

Can disrupt equilibrium and cause feelings of dizziness.

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Symptoms of Acoustic Neuroma.

Rare, with progressive unilateral hearing loss.

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What indicates a Sore Throat

Infection, trauma, or inflammation of the external ear can all lead to...

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Study Notes

ENT Overview (Oto-rhino-laryngology)

  • An ENT overview covers oto-rhino-laryngology.
  • Professor Mark Greenwood is presenting in 2024.

Why Understanding ENT is Important

  • Knowledge of ENT is important to understand common conditions.
  • There is significant overlap with Oral Surgery/Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery (OS/OMFS).
  • ENT knowledge aids in oro-facial differential diagnosis.
  • Communication aspects are important in ENT.
  • ENT is often part of Medical exams through Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) and Objective Structured Clinical Examination (OSCE).

The Ear

  • The ear consists of the external ear, middle ear, and inner ear.

Ear History Taking

  • Key history points include earache (otalgia), deafness, discharge, and tinnitus.
  • Otalgia can be related to proximity to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
  • Vertigo is the sensation of the external world revolving around the patient.

External Ear Examination

  • Inspections of the external ear is always necessary.

Examination Techniques

  • Otoscopy is used in ear examinations and can identify temporomandibular joint (TMJ) injuries.

Tuning Fork Tests: Rinne Test

  • The Rinne test compares hearing via air versus bone conduction.
  • In a normal Rinne test, air conduction (AC) is greater than bone conduction (BC).
  • If bone conduction (BC) is greater than air conduction (AC), it indicates conductive hearing loss.
  • False negatives can occur.

Tuning Fork Tests: Weber Test

  • The Weber test determines if sound lateralizes.
  • In conductive hearing loss, sound lateralizes to the ipsilateral side.
  • In sensorineural hearing loss, sound lateralizes to the contralateral side.

Pure Tone Audiometry

  • Pure tone audiometry is conducted in a soundproof booth.
  • Both air and bone conduction are tested.
  • Special headphones are used.
  • Sensitivity is measured in decibels (dB).

Electric Response Audiometry

  • Electric response audiometry can assess brainstem or cortical responses.
  • No cooperation from the patient is needed.
  • It is an objective test.

External Ear Anatomy

  • Key features include the cymba conchae, crus of helix, tragus, and cavum conchae.
  • Also the fossa triangularis, crura of antihelix, scaphoid fossa, helix, antihelix, antitragus, and lobule can be identified on the auricle.

External Ear Features

  • The outer two-thirds of external ear are cartilaginous.
  • It has specialized squamous epithelium.
  • It contains no follicles.
  • Does not desquamate.
  • The outer ear has ceruminous glands.
  • It has multiple sensory supplies.

Common Disorders of the Outer Ear

  • Common disorders are Inflammatory, including otitis externa and necrotizing ('malignant') otitis externa.
  • Disorders can also be traumatic, neoplastic, congenital, or idiopathic.

Otitis Externa

  • Images of otitis externa are shown in an image.
  • The general causes of otitis externa are Irritants and skin disorders.
  • Local factors include trauma (earphones) and otitis media (OM).
  • Otitis Externa can be caused by Infections of Pseudomonas, S. aureus, HSV, Candida, and Aspergillus.
  • Otitis externa is painful, results in some serous discharge.
  • Leads to a "blocked ear" sensation.
  • Treatment includes gentamicin and steroid ear drops, however possible fungal infection must be ruled out.

External Ear Trauma

  • Physical damage to the external can be defined as trauma.
  • An auricular hematoma is a type of external ear trauma.
  • Perichondritis and "cauliflower ear" can also be developed from truama.

External Ear Neoplasia: Benign

  • Osteomas and Keloids can be beign tumors of the external ear

External Ear Neoplasia: Malignant

  • Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) and Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) are types of malignant external ear neoplasias

Middle Ear Anatomy

  • The middle ear featuring the pinna, external auditory canal, lobule, malleus, incus, and stapes.
  • Also included in the semicircular canals, vestibular cochlear nerve, cochlea and eustachian tube.

Disorders of the Middle Ear

  • Include Acute Suppurative Otitis Media, Otitis Media with Effusion ("Glue Ear"), and Cholesteatoma.
  • Acute mastoiditis, tympanosclerosis, and otosclerosis can also affect the middle ear.

Acute Suppurative Otitis Media

  • Commonly found in Childhood.
  • Symptoms include irritability, pain, pyrexia, hearing loss, discharge, and systemic illness.
  • It is often caused by Ascending Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI).
  • Common bacteria are St. pneumoniae, H. influenzae.
  • Treatments are Antipyretics, antibiotics, decongestants, and myringotomy.

Acute Suppurative Otitis Media: Complications

  • Complications include: Otitis Externa, Recurrent Otitis Media, Perforation/Chronic Otitis Media, Mastoiditis, and Intra-cranial extension.

Chronic Otitis Media with Effusion ('Glue Ear')

  • Multifactorial, involving Eustachian insufficiency, environment, immunity, and social class and allergies.
  • Childhood screening should include Chronic Otitis Media.
  • It is often found via Pure tone audiometry
  • Endemic in children under 5 years old.
  • Can cause conductive hearing loss, language delay, and behavioural issues.
  • Can lead to recurrent infections and poor school performance.

Chronic Otitis Media with Effusion- Management

  • Conservative, medical, myringotomy alone, auto-inflation can be used.
  • Grommets can also be placed.

Cholesteatoma Symptoms

  • Characterized by a foul smell.
  • Causes Conductive hearing loss.
  • May cause discharge.
  • Can cause facial palsy.
  • May lead to Vertigo.
  • Potential for intra-cranial extension.

Cholesteatoma Management

Inner Ear Anatomy

  • Key features include the pinna, external auditory canal, lobule, malleus, eardrum, incus, and stapes.
  • Other components include the semicircular canals, vestibular cochlear nerve, cochlea, and eustachian tube.

Inner Ear Labyrinth

  • Contains semicircular canals.
  • Contains an ampulla.
  • Responsible for angular acceleration.
  • Movement to the left side causes inhibitation.
  • Movement to the right side causes excitation.

Disorders of the Inner Ear

  • Acoustic Neuroma is a disorder.
  • Meniere's Disease is a disorder.
  • Vestibular Neuronitis is a disorder.
  • Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) is a disorder.

Acoustic Neuroma

  • Rare condition, accounting for 6% of brain tumors.
  • Benign but locally compressive.
  • Typically causes progressive unilateral deafness.
  • Can result in vertigo, unsteadiness, and facial palsy, but these are less common.

Acoustic Neuroma Management

  • Conservative approaches can be used
  • Gamma knife which has a 14% recurrence rate.
  • Surgery, which is associated with significant morbidity and a 3% recurrence rate, can also be used.

Meniere's Disease

  • Episodic in nature.
  • Causes a sensation of Fullness.
  • Fluctuating deafness is a symptom.
  • Causes Tinnitus.
  • Causes Vertigo.
  • Causes Nausea and vomiting.
  • Can cause 'Drop attack'.
  • Episodes last 2-4 hours.
  • Self-limiting but unpredictable.

Meniere's Disease Management

  • Conservative, medical and surgical treatment options are available.

Hoarseness

  • Concerning if persistent.
  • Concerning if associated symptoms like pain, earache, dysphagia, or stridor.
  • Ot

Sore Throat and Dysphagia

  • Concerning if persistent.
  • Concerning if Localised/Unilateral.
  • Concerning if associated symptoms: Earache, Stridor, Bleeding, Foetor, or Weight Loss.

A “Lump in the Throat”

  • Benign causes: Stable/fluctuates, Food/drink unaffected, Anxiety or Reflux.
  • Malignant causes: Progressive impairment, Solids, then liquids, Pain, Neck mass, Hoarseness, or Weight loss.

Summary

  • Do not ignore dysphagia/odynophagia.
  • Unilateral symptoms - suspicious until proved otherwise.
  • A working knowledge only required.
  • Due to anatomical proximity, ENT/Oro-facial signs and symptoms can overlap, hence need for above.
  • ENT Work closely with OMFS.

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