Intravenous Anesthetics: Barbiturates & Benzodiazepines

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Questions and Answers

Which intravenous anesthetic is uniquely known for producing cardiovascular stimulation through the central stimulation of the sympathetic system?

  • Thiopental
  • Ketamine (correct)
  • Propofol
  • Etomidate

A patient undergoing a lengthy surgical procedure experiences prolonged respiratory depression post-operatively. Which opioid analgesic, known for potentially causing chest wall rigidity at high doses, might be implicated?

  • Fentanyl (correct)
  • Remifentanil
  • Droperidol
  • Naloxone

In a patient with acute intermittent porphyria, which intravenous anesthetic should be avoided due to its potential to induce hepatic ALA synthase?

  • Midazolam
  • Ketamine
  • Propofol
  • Thiopental (correct)

Which characteristic of thiopental contributes most significantly to its short duration of action following a single intravenous dose?

<p>Rapid redistribution from the CNS (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic agent is most likely to cause adrenal suppression through the inhibition of steroidogenesis, specifically blocking 11-β-hydroxylation?

<p>Etomidate (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which property makes midazolam a preferable choice over diazepam in situations requiring a water-soluble formulation for intravenous administration?

<p>Availability in a water-soluble form (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which dexmedetomidine induces hypnosis?

<p>Stimulation of alpha2-adrenergic receptors in the locus coeruleus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of neuroleptanalgesia, what combination of drugs is typically used, and what is the primary mechanism associated with this combination?

<p>Fentanyl, droperidol, and nitrous oxide, inducing analgesia and neuroleptic state (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic is LEAST likely to cause cardiovascular and respiratory depression, making it suitable for patients with compromised cardiovascular reserve?

<p>Etomidate (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving ketamine reports vivid dreams and hallucinations during recovery. Which prophylactic medication can reduce the incidence of these emergence reactions?

<p>Diazepam or midazolam (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic is used for its antiemetic properties, particularly in preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting?

<p>Propofol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should ventilation NOT be relied upon to reverse the effects of intravenous anesthetics?

<p>Most intravenous anesthetics are not directly affected by changes in ventilation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic enhances GABA-mediated inhibition but does NOT depress the CNS to a level below a true anesthetic state?

<p>Benzodiazepines (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient receiving dexmedetomidine, what cardiovascular effects are most likely to be observed, and how do these effects impact overall hemodynamics?

<p>Decreased heart rate and decreased systemic vascular resistance, leading to hypotension. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is given droperidol to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting. What should be considered regarding its pharmacological effect?

<p>It has no analgesic effect. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the relationship between lipid solubility and the induction and recovery times of short-acting barbiturates?

<p>High lipid solubility allows rapid induction and rapid recovery. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by 'dissociative anesthesia,' and which intravenous anesthetic is commonly associated with this state?

<p>A cataleptic state with amnesia and analgesia, usually associated with ketamine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key disadvantage of using intravenous anesthetics compared to inhalation anesthetics?

<p>Lack of reversibility with ventilation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the administration of flumazenil, which of the following is most important to monitor due to the drug's characteristics?

<p>Respiratory depression being less reversible (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant advantage of using remifentanil over other opioid analgesics in the context of anesthesia?

<p>Rapid metabolism by esterases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary effect of thiopental on GABA receptors and what implication does this have for its use?

<p>Enhances GABA receptors, opens GABA channels at higher doses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which patient population or condition might ketamine be a more appropriate choice compared to other intravenous anesthetics, particularly in emergency settings?

<p>Patients with cardiogenic or septic shock (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic is LEAST likely to prolong in its half-life, even with prolonged infusion?

<p>Propofol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic may cause involuntary movements in 50% of patients?

<p>Etomidate (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intravenous anesthetic is advantageous for patients that have a head trauma or brain tumors?

<p>Thiopental (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Intravenous Anesthetics: Advantage

Rapid onset and quick induction of stage III surgical anesthesia.

Intravenous Anesthetics: Disadvantage

Cannot be reversed by ventilation, caution needed to avoid medullary depression.

Thiopental Mechanism

Enhance GABA effects and at higher doses can open GABA channels in absence of GABA.

Thiopental effects on respiration and cardiac function

Depresses respiratory and cardiac function (decreases MAP and CO).

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Thiopental Metabolism

Metabolized by the liver.

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Thiopental and Porphyria

Induction of its synthesis can precipitate acute intermittent porphyria.

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Thiopental: lipid solubility

Highly lipid soluble allowing rapid induction and rapid redistribution from the CNS allows rapid recovery.

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Benzodiazepines Mechanism

Enhance the effects of GABA on GABAA channels.

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IV Benzos level of anesthesia

Depresses CNS to level below true anesthetic state.

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Flumazenil

Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, used to accelerate recovery from benzo. sedation.

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Dissociative Anesthesia

Anesthesia with amnesia, catatonia, and analgesia; patient may not lose consciousness.

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Ketamine mechanism

Blocks NMDA receptors which are excitatory receptors activated by glutamate.

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Ketamine CV effects

Increases HR, blood pressure, and cardiac output.

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Ketamine's Effects on the Brain

Increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure.

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Minimize Ketamine's Emergence Reactions

Give Diazepam or midazolam.

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Propofol Mechanism

Enhances GABA-mediated inhibition.

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Propofol Uses

Induction and maintenance, also an antiemetic.

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Propofol Side effects

Depresses respiratory function; marked hypotension due to vasodilation; negative inotrope.

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Etomidate Benefit

Minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depression.

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Etomidate Drawback

No analgesic effects, may require coadministered opioids.

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Etomidate Mechanism

Enhances GABA-mediated inhibition.

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Dexmedetomidine

Highly selective α2-adrenergic agonist.

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Dexmedetomidine Benefits

Sedative and analgesic effects without respiratory depression.

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Fentanyl

Potent Mu opioid receptor agonist.

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Neuroleptanesthesia

Combination of Fentanyl, droperidol, and nitrous oxide.

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Study Notes

  • Intravenous anesthetics induce rapid onset of stage III surgical anesthesia.
  • They are easy to administer but can't be reversed by ventilation, requiring caution to avoid severe medullary depression.

Short-Acting Barbiturates

  • Thiopental (Pentothal) and Methohexital (Brevital sodium) are examples.
  • These enhance GABA effects on GABAA channels and directly open them at high doses, even without GABA.
  • They depress respiratory and cardiac function, leading to decreased MAP and CO.
  • These do not increase cerebral blood flow, which is an advantage for patients with head trauma or brain tumors.
  • They are metabolized by the liver.
  • These induce hepatic ALA synthase, which is the rate-limiting step in heme synthesis, potentially precipitating acute intermittent porphyria.
  • They exhibit high lipid solubility for rapid induction and rapid redistribution from the CNS allows for quick recovery.

IV Benzodiazepines

  • Diazepam (Valium) and Midazolam (Versed) are common examples, with Midazolam being water-soluble.
  • These enhance GABA effects on GABAA channels, but unlike barbiturates, inhalation anesthetics, and ethanol, they do not open channels in the absence of GABA.
  • These depress the CNS to a level below true anesthesia.
  • They provide preoperative sedation and amnesia
  • They depress respiratory function.

Flumazenil

  • It is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist.
  • It accelerates recovery from benzodiazepine sedation.
  • It makes respiratory depression less reversible.

Ketamine (Ketalar)

  • It induces dissociative anesthesia with amnesia, catatonia, and analgesia.
  • Patients may not lose consciousness, and their eyes may remain open.
  • It has rapid, short duration.
  • It is chemically related to PCP.
  • It blocks NMDA receptors, which are excitatory receptors activated by glutamate.
  • Ketamine is the only IV anesthetic that produces cardiovascular stimulation by centrally stimulating the sympathetic system, increasing HR, blood pressure, and cardiac output.
  • It is useful for poor-risk geriatric patients and those in cardiogenic or septic shock.
  • It increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure.
  • Emergence reactions from it include vivid dreams and hallucinations.
  • Diazepam or midazolam given prior to ketamine reduces the incidence of such reactions.

Propofol (Diprivan)

  • It is an extremely important IV anesthetic.
  • It enhances GABAA-mediated inhibition.
  • It has a very rapid onset and recovery, especially useful for outpatient surgery, since it is rapidly metabolized by the liver.
  • It is also an antiemetic that reduces postoperative nausea and vomiting.
  • It is used for both induction and maintenance.
  • It can depress respiratory function and cause marked hypotension due to vasodilation.
  • It is a negative inotrope.
  • Prolonged infusion does not increase its half-life.

Etomidate (Amidate)

  • It exhibits minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depression.
  • It is safe to use in patients with limited cardiovascular reserves.
  • It enhances GABAA-mediated inhibition.
  • It lacks analgesic effects, requiring the co-administration of opioids.
  • It offers rapid onset and recovery due to, and is extensively metabolized by the liver.
  • Adverse effects include pain on injection, involuntary muscle movements in 50% of patients, postoperative nausea and vomiting, and adrenal suppression via inhibition of steroidogenesis, blocking 11-β-hydroxylation and decreasing cortisol after a single dose.

Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)

  • It is a highly selective α2-adrenergic agonist.
  • It induces hypnosis through stimulation of α2 receptors in the locus coeruleus, thus resembling a physiologic sleep state by activating endogenous sleep pathways.
  • This also provides an analgesic effect in the spinal cord
  • It decreases heart rate and systemic vascular resistance, leading to decreased blood pressure.
  • It has mild respiratory effects.
  • It is water soluble parenteral formulation.
  • It provides sedative and analgesic effects without respiratory depression.
  • It is used for short-term sedation of intubated/ventilated patients in the ICU.
  • It serves as an adjunct to general anesthesia or provides sedation during awake fiberoptic tracheal intubation or regional anesthesia.
  • It decreases the dose requirements for inhaled and injected anesthetics.

Opioid Analgesics

  • Fentanyl (Sublimaze) is a potent mu opioid receptor agonist with a shorter duration of action than other opioids.
  • High IV doses cause chest wall rigidity and prolong postoperative respiratory depression.
  • Remifentanil (Ultiva) is an extremely short-acting opioid rapidly metabolized by esterases in blood and muscle.
  • Opioid analgesics have minimal cardiovascular effects, making them advantageous for patients with minimal circulatory reserve.
  • Their effects can be reversed by the antagonist naloxone.

Neuroleptanesthesia

  • It is a combination of fentanyl, droperidol (a neuroleptic related to haloperidol and dopamine receptor blocker), and nitrous oxide.
  • If droperidol is given to control nausea and vomiting, remember it has no analgesic effect.
  • Nâ‚‚O often induces nausea and vomiting.

Characteristics of Intravenous Anesthetic Agents

  • Etomidate features: Rapid onset and moderately fast recovery, Cardiovascular stability; decreased steroidogenesis, and involuntary muscle movements
  • Ketamine features: Moderately rapid onset and recovery, Cardiovascular stimulation; increased cerebral blood flow; emergence reactions impair recovery
  • Midazolam features: Slow onset and recovery; flumazenil reversal available, Used in balanced anesthesia and conscious sedation; cardiovascular stability; marked amnesia
  • Propofol features: Rapid onset and rapid recovery, Used in induction and for maintenance; hypoten- sion; useful antiemetic action
  • Thiopental features: Rapid onset and rapid recovery (bolus dose)- slow recovery following infusion, Standard induction agent; cardiovascular depression; avoid in porphyrias
  • Fentanyl features: Slow onset and recovery; naloxone reversal available, Used in balanced anesthesia and conscious sedation; marked analgesia

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