Intravenous Access Types and Considerations Quiz
115 Questions
0 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

What can be used to treat extravasation by reversing alpha 1 agonism?

  • Dopamine
  • Topical nitroglycerin
  • Terbutaline
  • Phentolamine (correct)

    • Where are the nicotinic receptors found?

  • Ganglionic neurons and hormone-producing cells of adrenal medulla
  • Skeletal muscle fibers only
  • Adrenal medulla only
  • Skeletal muscle fibers, ganglionic neurons, and hormone-producing cells of adrenal medulla (correct)

    • What type of response occurs when acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors?

  • Always excitatory (correct)
  • Can be either inhibitory or excitatory
  • Dependent on the organ targeted
  • Always inhibitory

    • Which type of receptors are found on effector cells stimulated by postganglionic fibers?

    <p>Muscarinic receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when beta adrenergic receptors are activated?

    <p>Vasodilation, increase in heart rate, and contractility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which receptors predominantly respond to low concentrations of epinephrine by increasing heart rate and contractility?

    <p>Beta 1 receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect do alpha adrenergic receptors have when activated?

    <p>Vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication activates alpha adrenergic receptors and leads to vasoconstriction?

    <p>Norepinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is true regarding enoxaparin?

    <p>It cannot be eliminated through dialysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a good candidate for non-drug options for thromboembolic prophylaxis?

    <p>Patients with normal platelet count and no bleeding risk</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed by 30-45 degrees?

    <p>To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is NOT listed as contributing to delirium?

    <p>Antidepressants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a treatment or prevention strategy for delirium mentioned in the text?

    <p>Administration of antipsychotics other than haloperidol or quetiapine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal for QTc interval when administering haloperidol?

    <p>QTc &lt; 450 ms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for stress ulcer prophylaxis mentioned in the text?

    <p>Chronic liver disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the goal for glucose control in critically ill patients?

    <p>140-180 mg/dL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of using IV continuous infusion of regular insulin for glycemic control?

    <p>It provides the best control over blood glucose levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the use of sliding scale insulin is correct?

    <p>It is recommended for assessing insulin needs and avoiding long-acting agents</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended treatment for opioid-induced constipation?

    <p>Administration of stimulant laxatives</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'I' in 'BID' stand for in the context of patient care?

    <p>Indwelling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the 'D' in 'BID' represent in the context of patient care?

    <p>De-escalation of therapies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of using etomidate for induction in rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?

    <p>It minimizes cardiovascular effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about ketamine is correct when used for sedation in rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?

    <p>It has analgesic properties and causes catecholamine release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which drug used for induction in rapid sequence intubation (RSI) has the longest duration of action?

    <p>Midazolam (Versed)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Hydromorphone is correct?

    <p>It is more potent than Morphine and should be dosed very carefully.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which route of administration is NOT mentioned for Oxycodone?

    <p>Intravenous injection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Ketorolac is correct?

    <p>It has a risk of gastrointestinal bleed and a maximum therapy duration of 5 days.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an important reminder for analgesia?

    <p>Monitor liver function tests regularly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about Propofol is correct?

    <p>It has a caloric value of 1.1 kcal/g and is administered as a continuous infusion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about monitoring Propofol is correct?

    <p>Monitor for hypotension and hypertriglyceridemia, with baseline triglyceride levels and rechecks every 5-7 days.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about benzodiazepines is correct?

    <p>They are good for providing retrograde amnesia.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agent used for sedation is NOT mentioned in the text?

    <p>Fentanyl</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a type of intravenous access?

    <p>Nasogastric (NG) tube</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Peripherally inserted Central Catheters (PICCs) is FALSE?

    <p>A dedicated line for TPN is not required when using a PICC.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of tunneled central venous catheters (CVCs)?

    <p>They have a lower chance of infection compared to non-tunneled CVCs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about Nasogastric (NG) tubes and Dobhoff/Corpak tubes is TRUE?

    <p>Both NG tubes and Dobhoff/Corpak tubes can be used for enteral nutrition.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale (RASS) is FALSE?

    <p>It is used to assess pain control.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the Confusion Assessment Method for ICU (CAM-ICU) is TRUE?

    <p>It is used to assess delirium and fluctuation of mental status.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about sedation and neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBs) is TRUE?

    <p>Sedation and NMBs should be used in combination with pain control measures.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Never ______ before sedation

    <p>paralyze</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Supportive care for continuous NMB include eye care, DVT prophy, physical therapy, and ______ assessment

    <p>TOF</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Agents used for paralysis in RSI include depolarizing and ______ agents

    <p>non-depolarizing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ______ is depolarizing and has fast on/off

    <p>Succinylcholine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    MAP is a surrogate indicator of ______

    <p>blood flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Hypertensive ______ is asymptomatic or has mild symptoms and is often a result of non-adherence to medications

    <p>urgency</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ischemic stroke is a result of emboli blocking blood flow whereas ______ stroke is defined by bleeding in the brain that leads to swelling

    <p>hemorrhagic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Fibrinolytics are used in ischemic stroke with goal BP being ______

    <p>&lt;185/110</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Enoxaparin cannot be eliminated in ______.

    <p>dialysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Good candidates for non-drug options are patients with low platelet count (<______),traumatic bleed, or high risk of bleeding.

    <p>50K</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Elevate head of bed by 30-45 degrees to prevent ______ by making aspiration gravitationally unlikely.

    <p>VAP</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Medications that contribute to delirium are benzos, opioids, sedatives, and ______.

    <p>steroids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Adverse effects of haloperidol include prolonged QTc, torsade de pointes, ______.

    <p>EPS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Stress ulcer prophylaxis is indicated for patients mechanically ventilated for >______ hours and coagulopathy.

    <p>48</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Goal for glucose control is ______ mg/dL.

    <p>140-180</p> Signup and view all the answers

    PPIs increase gastric pH more than ______.

    <p>H2Ras</p> Signup and view all the answers

    IV continuous infusion of regular insulin provides the best ______ control.

    <p>glycemic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Use ______ scale to assess insulin needs and avoid long-acting agents.

    <p>sliding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Use ______ for opioid induced constipation.

    <p>stimulants</p> Signup and view all the answers

    RSI includes induction (sedation), ______ with neuromuscular blockade, and analgesics.

    <p>paralysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Etomidate has ______ onset of unconsciousness and apnea.

    <p>rapid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Benefits of Etomidate include excellent sedation, fast on/off, and minimal ______ effects.

    <p>cardiovascular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Ketamine benefits include catecholamine release, ______, and analgesic properties.

    <p>bronchodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Midazolam (Versed) has potent dose-related ______.

    <p>amnesia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    _______ that activate B1 receptors include norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine, and dobutamine.

    <p>Drugs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Beta 2 receptors are predominant in arterioles and bronchi and cause _______ (because we want blood flow to areas where we want blood during fight/flight).

    <p>vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Low concentrations of epinephrine activate beta2 receptors which cause _______.

    <p>vasodilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    High concentrations of epinephrine saturates B2 receptors and also alpha 1 receptors which cause _______.

    <p>vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sepsis is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by dysregulated host response due to _______.

    <p>infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Septic shock is sepsis related hypotension that is refractory to recommended/adequate _______.

    <p>fluids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sepsis is diagnosed by SIRS criteria (any 2) + infection Heart rate greater than 90 beats per minute Temperature greater than 38 degressC or less than 36degreesC Respiratory Rate greater than 20 breaths per minute ______ less than 4,000 or greater than 12,000 or greater than 10% bands Systolic BP less than 90 or diastolic BP less than 60 SOFA and 1SOFA are used to monitor patients in the ICU who have sepsis.Criteria include: Respiratory Rate of greater than 22 breaths per minute Altered mentation Systolic Blood pressure less than 100.

    <p>WBC</p> Signup and view all the answers

    _______ is used to monitor patients in the ICU who have sepsis.

    <p>SOFA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Extravasation can be treated with ______, which reverses alpha 1 agonism and causes vasodilation.

    <p>phentolamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    ______ Receptors are found on skeletal muscle fibers, ganglionic neurons, and hormone-producing cells of adrenal medulla.

    <p>Nicotinic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Alpha adrenergic receptors are ______ and respond to norepinephrine and high concentrations of epinephrine.

    <p>peripheral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Activation on alpha receptors lead to ______, which increases blood pressure.

    <p>vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Beta adrenergic receptors are found on the heart, liver, and ______ muscles.

    <p>skeletal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Beta 1 receptors are predominant in the ______ and respond to low concentrations of epinephrine by increasing heart rate and contractility.

    <p>heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Extravasation can be treated with ______, which is given as an infiltrate 5-10mg diluted in 10mL NS.

    <p>phentolamine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Other treatments for extravasation include ______ and topical nitroglycerin.

    <p>terbutaline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the drug with its mechanism of action:

    <p>Labetalol = Works on alpha1, beta1, and beta2 receptors Esmolol = Works on beta1 receptors only Clevidipine = Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker Nicardipine = Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the drug with its onset of effect:

    <p>Clevidipine = Lasts for only 5-15 minutes Nicardipine = Lasts for less than 8 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the type of shock with its description:

    <p>Cardiogenic shock = Shock related to heart failure Distributive shock = Shock related to vasodilation and decreased vascular resistance Obstructive shock = Shock related to physical obstruction of blood flow Hypovolemic shock = Shock related to low blood volume</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the drug with its receptor specificity:

    <p>Labetalol = Alpha1, beta1, and beta2 receptors Metoprolol = Beta1 receptors only Esmolol = Shortest half-life (0.15)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the vasodilator with its duration of action:

    <p>Clevidipine = Onset of effect within 2-4 minutes Nicardipine = Onset of effect 30 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the goal MAP during shock with the corresponding value:

    <blockquote> <p>65 mmHg = Goal MAP during shock 220 mmHg systolic and &gt;120 mmHg diastolic = Threshold for treating BP during hemorrhagic stroke 140 mmHg systolic = Desired systolic BP during ischemic stroke for the first 48 hours &lt;120 mmHg and HR &lt;60 bpm = Rapid reduction in BP during aortic dissections</p> </blockquote> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the drug with its availability form:

    <p>Esmolol = Only available as an IV infusion Metoprolol = Equivalence of 1mg IV to 2.5mg PO Labetalol = Clevidipine =</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drug with its characteristics in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = One time dose with rapid onset and minimal CV effects Ketamine = Catecholamine release, bronchodilation, and analgesic properties Midazolam (Versed) = Potent dose-related amnesia and dose related CV effects Propofol = Bronchodilation and fast on/off properties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following benefits with the corresponding sedative used in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = Excellent sedation, fast on/off, minimal CV effects Ketamine = Catecholamine release, bronchodilation, analgesic properties Midazolam (Versed) = Dose-related amnesia Propofol = Bronchodilation, fast on/off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drug considerations with the corresponding agent in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = Adrenal cortisol suppression Ketamine = Increases ICP and BP Midazolam (Versed) = Often underdosed in RSI Propofol = CV related side effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following onset characteristics with the appropriate drug used in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = ~0.3mg/kg dose, onset 15-50 seconds, duration 5-10 minutes Ketamine = Increases ICP and BP Midazolam (Versed) = Longest duration of 15-30 minutes Propofol = Fast on/off properties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following side effects with the correct sedative used in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = Adrenal cortisol suppression Ketamine = ICP and BP elevation Midazolam (Versed) = Dose-related CV effects Propofol = CV related side effects</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following benefits of agents with their corresponding sedative used in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = Excellent sedation, fast on/off, minimal CV effects Ketamine = Catecholamine release, bronchodilation, analgesic properties Midazolam (Versed) = Potent dose-related amnesia Propofol = Bronchodilation, fast on/off</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following dose characteristics with the appropriate drug used in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = ~0.3mg/kg (~20mg) dose Ketamine = - Midazolam (Versed) = - Propofol = -</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following duration attributes with the correct sedative used in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI):

    <p>Etomidate = ~0.3mg/kg (~20mg) dose Ketamine = - Midazolam (Versed) = - Propofol = -</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following receptors with their response to epinephrine activation:

    <p>Beta 1 receptors = Increase heart rate and contractility Beta 2 receptors = Vasodilation at low concentrations, vasoconstriction at high concentrations Alpha 1 receptors = Vasoconstriction at high concentrations Alpha adrenergic receptors = Respond to norepinephrine and high concentrations of epinephrine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their definitions:

    <p>Sepsis = Life-threatening organ dysfunction due to dysregulated host response to infection Septic shock = Sepsis-related hypotension refractory to fluids SOFA score = Used to monitor ICU patients with sepsis, includes respiratory rate, altered mentation, systolic blood pressure criteria SIRS criteria = Heart rate &gt;90bpm, Temp &gt;38 or &lt;36 degC, Respiratory rate &gt;20, WBC &lt;4,000 or &gt;12,000 or &gt;10% bands, BP &lt;90/60</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their use in rapid sequence intubation (RSI):

    <p>Ketamine = Catecholamine release, bronchodilation, analgesia Etomidate = Excellent sedation, fast on/off, minimal side effects Midazolam (Versed) = Potent dose-related effects Haloperidol = Goal for QTc interval control</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their characteristics:

    <p>Tunneled central venous catheters (CVCs) = Not mentioned in text as important for analgesia Intravenous access types = Not including a specific type mentioned in text Sliding scale insulin use = Described incorrectly in a statement Delirium-contributing medications = Missing one medication from the list provided</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following receptors with their location:

    <p>Nicotinic Receptors = Skeletal muscle fibers Muscarinic Receptors = Effector cells stimulated by postganglionic fibers Alpha Adrenergic Receptors = Peripheral Beta Adrenergic Receptors = Heart, liver, and skeletal muscles</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following medications with their effects on extravasation:

    <p>Phentolamine = Reverses alpha 1 agonism and causes vasodilation Terbutaline = Treatment for extravasation Topical Nitroglycerin = Treatment for extravasation Epinephrine = Activates alpha receptors leading to vasoconstriction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their uses in sedation:

    <p>Ketamine = Catecholamine release and analgesic properties Propofol = Used for induction in rapid sequence intubation (RSI) Etomidate = Used for induction in rapid sequence intubation (RSI) Phentolamine = Not mentioned in the text for sedation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their correct descriptions:

    <p>Vasoconstriction = Leads to tissue ischemia Vasodilation = Causes an increase in heart rate and contractility Ischemia = Can be treated with phentolamine to reverse alpha 1 agonism Tissue Ischemia = Significant vasoconstriction due to extravasation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following treatments with their purposes:

    <p>Stress Ulcer Prophylaxis = Indicated for patients mechanically ventilated for &gt; hours and coagulopathy IV Continuous Infusion of Regular Insulin = Provides the best glucose control Haloperidol = Used to monitor patients in the ICU who have sepsis PPIs = Increase gastric pH more than others</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their side effects:

    <p>Haloperidol = Causes prolonged QTc and torsade de pointes Benzos = Contribute to delirium Opioids = Contribute to delirium Sedatives = Contribute to delirium</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following actions with their outcomes when beta adrenergic receptors are activated:

    <p>Increase in heart rate and contractility = Beta 1 receptors predominant in the heart respond to low concentrations of epinephrine Vasodilation = Caused by activation of beta adrenergic receptors on heart, liver, and skeletal muscles Vasoconstriction = Occurs when alpha adrenergic receptors are activated by agents like phenylephrine Catecholamine release and analgesic properties = Benefits include when using ketamine for sedation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following terms with their correct effects on blood pressure:

    <p>Vasoconstriction = Leads to an increase in blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels Vasodilation = May cause a decrease in blood pressure by widening blood vessels Hypotension = (Not included in choices) Hypertension = (Not included in choices)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following vasopressors with their primary mechanisms of action:

    <p>Phenylephrine = Pure alpha 1 agonist resulting in vasoconstriction with no effect on heart rate Norepinephrine = Alpha 1 and beta 1 agonist; alpha1 increases BP, beta1 increases contractility, cardiac output, and heart rate Epinephrine = Low dose activates beta 1 receptors (increased heart rate and contractility); high dose activates alpha 1 receptors (increased BP through vasoconstriction) Dopamine = Vasopressor with activity on alpha, beta, and dopamine receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following inotropes with their primary characteristics:

    <p>Dobutamine = Acts primarily as a beta agonist, increasing contractility and heart rate; often used in patients unable to maintain stroke volume Milrinone = Works on PDE3 receptors inside the cell to increase cardiac contraction; used in cardiogenic shock when patients are taking beta blockers at home Vasopressin = Works on Vasopressin receptors and is used in synergy with other agents for better BP increases or lower doses of other agents Vasopressor Phenylephrine = Is pH dependent, pure alpha 1 agonist resulting in vasoconstriction with no effect on heart rate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following statements with the correct drug: 'Phenylephrine and Norepinephrine are pH dependent.'

    <p>Phenylephrine = Pure alpha 1 agonist resulting in vasoconstriction with no effect on heart rate Norepinephrine = Alpha 1 and beta 1 agonist; alpha1 increases BP, beta1 increases contractility, cardiac output, and heart rate Epinephrine = Low dose activates beta 1 receptors (increased heart rate and contractility); high dose activates alpha 1 receptors (increased BP through vasoconstriction) Dopamine = Vasopressor with activity on alpha, beta, and dopamine receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their effects: 'Low dose epinephrine activates beta 1 receptors (increased heart rate and contractility).'

    <p>Phenylephrine = Pure alpha 1 agonist resulting in vasoconstriction with no effect on heart rate Norepinephrine = Alpha 1 and beta 1 agonist; alpha1 increases BP, beta1 increases contractility, cardiac output, and heart rate Epinephrine = High dose activates alpha 1 receptors (increased BP through vasoconstriction) Dopamine = Vasopressor with activity on alpha, beta, and dopamine receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their effects: 'High epinephrine activates alpha 1 receptors (increased BP through vasoconstriction).'

    <p>Phenylephrine = Pure alpha 1 agonist resulting in vasoconstriction with no effect on heart rate Norepinephrine = Alpha 1 and beta 1 agonist; alpha1 increases BP, beta1 increases contractility, cardiac output, and heart rate Epinephrine = Low dose activates beta 1 receptors (increased heart rate and contractility) Dopamine = Vasopressor with activity on alpha, beta, and dopamine receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their effects: 'Norepinephrine beta agonism is less than Epinephrine.'

    <p>Phenylephrine = Pure alpha 1 agonist resulting in vasoconstriction with no effect on heart rate Norepinephrine = Alpha 1 and beta 1 agonist; alpha1 increases BP, beta1 increases contractility, cardiac output, and heart rate Epinephrine = Low dose activates beta 1 receptors (increased heart rate and contractility); high dose activates alpha 1 receptors (increased BP through vasoconstriction) Dopamine = Vasopressor with activity on alpha, beta, and dopamine receptors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their effects: 'Dobutamine should be avoided in patients who are taking beta blockers at home.'

    <p>Dobutamine = Acts primarily as a beta agonist, increasing contractility and heart rate; often used in patients unable to maintain stroke volume Milrinone = Works on PDE3 receptors inside the cell to increase cardiac contraction; used in cardiogenic shock when patients are taking beta blockers at home</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following drugs with their effects: 'Milrinone is used in cardiogenic shock when patients are taking beta blockers at home.'

    <p>Dobutamine = Acts primarily as a beta agonist, increasing contractility and heart rate; often used in patients unable to maintain stroke volume Milrinone = - Works on PDE3 receptors inside the cell to increase cardiac contraction; used in cardiogenic shock when patients are taking beta blockers at home</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Match the following statements about vasopressin:

    <p>Vasopressin is pH dependent. = It should never be used by itself. = 1 Avoid use of vasopressin in cardiogenic shock. = 1 It works on Vasopressin receptors. = 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

    More Like This

    Use Quizgecko on...
    Browser
    Open
    Browser
    Browser