MICROPARA PREFINALS QUIZZES (EXAM)

Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune system? a) T lymphocytes b) Macrophages c) Neutrophils d) Natural killer cells

Which skin layer contains blood vessels, nerves, and glands? a) Epidermis b) Dermis c) Subcutis d) Hypodermis

What is the primary function of mucus in the respiratory tract? a) Providing oxygen to the lungs b) Trapping microbes and debris c) Producing sound during speech d) Absorbing nutrients from inhaled air

Endothelial cells line which structures in the human body? a) Nerve fibers b) Muscle fibers c) Blood vessels d) Bones

Sebaceous glands produce which substance that protects the skin? a) Melanin b) Sebum c) Collagen d) Keratin

What is the typical pH range of urine? a) 4.0-5.5 b) 6.0-7.5 c) 7.0-8.5 d) 8.5-10.0

Which component of tears has antimicrobial properties? a) Saline solution b) Lysozyme c) Lipids d) Water

Acute-phase proteins are primarily produced in response to: a) Chronic stress b) Low blood sugar c) Inflammatory molecules d) Excessive exercise

What is the process by which leukocytes exit blood vessels and enter tissues? a) Phagocytosis b) Chemotaxis c) Diapedesis d) Opsonization

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on phagocytes bind to: a) Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) b) Endogenous antigens c) Antibodies d) Cytokines

Adaptive immunity relies on nonspecificity and forgetfulness to combat pathogens effectively. TRUE FALSE

Antigens are unique to a specific pathogen and play a role only in humoral immunity. TRUE FALSE

B cells mature in the thymus and are responsible for the production of antibodies. TRUE FALSE

The three-dimensional complex structure of lipids makes them the most effective antigens. TRUE FALSE

Haptens are large antigenic structures with multiple epitopes. TRUE FALSE

IgE is the most abundant antibody class in human blood and provides passive immunity during pregnancy. TRUE FALSE

IgD is secreted by B cells and serves as an antigen-binding receptor. TRUE FALSE

Opsonization involves the binding of antibodies to pathogens, enhancing their attachment to cells. TRUE FALSE

MHC I molecules present abnormal or nonself pathogen antigens to the effector T cells involved in cellular immunity. TRUE FALSE

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) like macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells play a similar role in adaptive immunity. TRUE FALSE

T cells differentiate from multipotent hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus. TRUE FALSE

Thymic selection involves positive and negative selection to ensure functional T-cell receptor development and eliminate self-reactive T cells. TRUE FALSE

Peripheral tolerance mechanisms, such as energy and regulatory T cells, prevent autoimmune responses by inhibiting self-reactive T cells. TRUE FALSE

Cytotoxic T cells are activated by APCs presenting antigens with MHC I and play a crucial role in cellular immunity by targeting infected cells for destruction. TRUE FALSE

Superantigens can cause unregulated T cell activation, leading to excessive cytokine release and potentially life-threatening immune responses. TRUE FALSE

B cells differentiate from hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow and undergo positive and negative selection to ensure functional B-cell receptor development and eliminate self-reactive B cells. TRUE FALSE

B-cell receptors (BCRs) can interact with antigens presented on the surface of intact pathogens or with free antigens. TRUE FALSE

T cell-dependent activation of B cells involves antigen presentation to helper T cells, followed by clonal proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells and memory B cells. TRUE FALSE

Primary antibody responses involve a lag period followed by an increase in IgM levels, while secondary responses are faster, stronger, and produce higher levels of IgG antibodies. TRUE FALSE

Vaccination creates herd immunity by reducing the number of susceptible individuals in a population, thereby protecting even those who are not vaccinated TRUE FALSE

Which bacteria are commonly found in dry and sebaceous areas of the skin? a) Corynebacterium b) Staphylococcus c) Betaproteobacteria d) Propionibacteria e) Malassezia f) Streptococcus

What is the most common type of fungus found as part of the normal skin microbiota? a) Candida b) Aspergillus c) Trichophyton d) Malassezia e) Cryptococcus f) Histoplasma

Which viruses are commonly present in the healthy skin virome? a) Influenza virus b) Hepatitis B virus c) Circoviridae d) Herpes simplex virus e) Papillomaviridae f) Epstein-Barr virus

What is the primary role of chemicals in tears, such as defensins and lysozyme, in preventing skin colonization by pathogens? a) Enhancing microbial growth b) Stimulating inflammation c) Inhibiting microbial colonization d) Promoting biofilm formation e) Facilitating nutrient uptake f) Encouraging viral replication

Which bacterium is responsible for many of the most common skin infections and is quite contagious? a) Escherichia coli b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Staphylococcus epidermidis d) Propionibacterium acnes e) Staphylococcus aureus f) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which streptococcal species is most clinically significant in humans and produces a variety of extracellular enzymes contributing to its virulence? a) Streptococcus mutans b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Streptococcus agalactiae d) Streptococcus pyogenes e) Streptococcus viridans f) Streptococcus thermophilus

Which skin condition is characterized by inflammation of the dermis or hypodermis, often presenting as a warm, reddened area that is painful to the touch, and is commonly caused by S. pyogenes or staphylococci? a) Cellulitis b) Erysipelas c) Impetigo d) Necrotizing fasciitis e) Acne f) Anthrax

What is the distinctive odor associated with wounds infected by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, caused by the production of a specific compound used in quorum sensing? a) Minty b) Fishy c) Garlic d) Rotten eggs e) Grape soda f) Fresh corn tortillas

Which bacterium is commonly associated with the formation of comedones and subsequent inflammatory lesions in acne, secreting enzymes that damage hair follicles? a) Propionibacterium acnes b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa e) Bacillus anthracis f) Haemophilus influenzae

What is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis, characterized by inflammation of the conjunctiva and a discharge of sticky fluid? a) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Moraxella catarrhalis d) Haemophilus influenzae e) Neisseria gonorrhoeae f) Chlamydia trachomatis

Which viral infection is commonly associated with cold sores or fever blisters? a) Roseola b) Fifth disease c) Papillomas d) Oral herpes (HSV-1) e) Viral conjunctivitis f) Sporotrichosis

Which protozoan infection can manifest as abscesses, ulcers, and nodules on the skin? a) Loiasis b) Acanthamoeba keratitis c) Roseola d) Acanthamoeba infections e) Sporotrichosis f) Oral herpes (HSV-1)

What is the common name for the helminth Loa loa, which can cause eye worms in humans? a) African eye worm b) Rose gardener's disease c) Athlete's foot d) Fifth disease e) Papillomas f) Acanthamoeba keratitis

Which fungal infection primarily affects the nails, causing them to become yellow and hardened? a) Cutaneous aspergillosis b) Sporotrichosis c) Oral herpes (HSV-1) d) Tineas e) Candidiasis of the skin and nails f) Acanthamoeba keratitis

What is the primary cause of cutaneous mycoses known as ringworm? a) Aspergillus b) Candida albicans c) Acanthamoeba d) Loa loa e) Human papillomavirus (HPV) f) Dermatophytes

What is the causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)? a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

What is the most common bacterial cause of acute otitis media (AOM) in infants and children younger than 14 years old? a) Escherichia coli b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Staphylococcus aureus

What is the primary cause of community-acquired bacterial pneumonia? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Which bacterial species causes walking pneumonia? a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat Streptococcus pneumoniae infections? a) Penicillin b) Macrolides c) Cephalosporins d) Aminoglycosides

What is the primary mode of transmission for health care-associated pneumonia? a) Airborne transmission b) Contaminated water c) Direct contact with infected individuals d) Aspiration of contaminated equipment

Which bacterial species commonly causes pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis? a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What is the recommended vaccination strategy for preventing diphtheria? a) DTaP vaccine in childhood, followed by Td booster every 5 years b) PCV13 vaccine in childhood, followed by PPSV23 vaccine in adulthood c) BCG vaccine in childhood, followed by annual boosters d) DTaP vaccine in childhood, followed by Td booster every 10 years

Which bacterium causes diphtheria? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

True or False: Mycobacterium tuberculosis has a cell wall rich in waxy mycolic acids, making it impervious to polar molecules. TRUE FALSE

Tuberculosis (TB) is primarily transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food. TRUE FALSE

Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is caused by a gram-positive coccobacillus. TRUE FALSE

Influenza A viruses have different subtypes based on the structure of their hemagglutinin and neuraminidase proteins. TRUE FALSE

Antibiotic therapy with erythromycin or tetracycline is the first-line treatment for Legionnaires disease. TRUE FALSE

Coxiella burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, is transmitted primarily through tick bites. TRUE FALSE

The common cold is caused by a variety of bacteria, including rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses. TRUE FALSE

Viral pneumonia can range from mild cold-like symptoms to severe cases of pneumonia, depending on the virulence of the virus strain and the host's immune response. TRUE FALSE

There are specific antiviral therapies available for the treatment of viral pneumonia. TRUE FALSE

Also called Hospital acquired pneumonia (Proper writing of the scientific name) Nosocomial Pneumonia

Coccidioides immitis A. Causes Valley fever and is found in semi-arid regions of the southwestern United States. B. Forms fungal balls in the lungs and can lead to pulmonary hemorrhage. C. Commonly leads to chronic cutaneous disease with subcutaneous lesions. D. Typically infects immunocompromised individuals and can cause rhinocerebral mucormycosis. E. Causes a mild flu-like illness but can become disseminated and fatal if left untreated.

Aspergillus A. Causes Valley fever and is found in semi-arid regions of the southwestern United States. B. Forms fungal balls in the lungs and can lead to pulmonary hemorrhage. C. Commonly leads to chronic cutaneous disease with subcutaneous lesions. D. Typically infects immunocompromised individuals and can cause rhinocerebral mucormycosis. E. Causes a mild flu-like illness but can become disseminated and fatal if left untreated.

Blastomyces dermatitidis A. Causes Valley fever and is found in semi-arid regions of the southwestern United States. B. Forms fungal balls in the lungs and can lead to pulmonary hemorrhage. C. Commonly leads to chronic cutaneous disease with subcutaneous lesions. D. Typically infects immunocompromised individuals and can cause rhinocerebral mucormycosis. E. Causes a mild flu-like illness but can become disseminated and fatal if left untreated.

Rhizopus arrhizus (formerly Rhizopus oryzae) A. Causes Valley fever and is found in semi-arid regions of the southwestern United States. B. Forms fungal balls in the lungs and can lead to pulmonary hemorrhage. C. Commonly leads to chronic cutaneous disease with subcutaneous lesions. D. Typically infects immunocompromised individuals and can cause rhinocerebral mucormycosis. E. Causes a mild flu-like illness but can become disseminated and fatal if left untreated.

Histoplasma capsulatum A. Causes Valley fever and is found in semi-arid regions of the southwestern United States. B. Forms fungal balls in the lungs and can lead to pulmonary hemorrhage. C. Commonly leads to chronic cutaneous disease with subcutaneous lesions. D. Typically infects immunocompromised individuals and can cause rhinocerebral mucormycosis. E. Causes a mild flu-like illness but can become disseminated and fatal if left untreated.