Infective Endocarditis and Myocarditis Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary initial step in managing suspected infective endocarditis before antibiotics are administered?

  • Initiating anticoagulant therapy.
  • Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics immediately.
  • Obtaining at least two separate blood cultures from different venous sites. (correct)
  • Performing an electrocardiogram (ECG).
  • According to the provided information, which combination of IV antibiotics is typically considered first-line for the treatment of infective endocarditis?

  • Ampicillin, gentamicin, and flucloxacillin/oxacillin. (correct)
  • Daptomycin and rifampin.
  • Ceftriaxone and metronidazole.
  • Vancomycin and gentamicin.
  • In the context of myocarditis, what is the primary mechanism that leads to damage of the heart muscle?

  • Direct viral invasion and destruction of cardiomyocytes.
  • An inflammatory immune response against the heart tissue. (correct)
  • Progressive fibrosis due to a chronic infection.
  • An autoimmune response triggered by the body's own antibodies.
  • What are the three most common bacterial pathogens associated with infective endocarditis as listed in the provided content?

    <p>Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Enterococci. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Based on the information provided, which of the following is a common viral trigger for myocarditis?

    <p>Coxsackievirus or adenovirus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is primarily indicated for managing myocarditis caused by the herpes virus?

    <p>Acyclovir (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with cytomegalovirus myocarditis would most likely be prescribed which of the following antiviral agents?

    <p>Ganciclovir (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication for using ibuprofen in the context of myocarditis?

    <p>Mild inflammation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential side effect of prednisone when used to treat severe inflammation in myocarditis?

    <p>Fluid retention (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with reduced ejection fraction secondary to myocarditis would most likely benefit from which medication?

    <p>Lisinopril (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main clinical sign that is highly suggestive of pericarditis?

    <p>Pericardial friction rub (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient experiencing fluid overload due to myocarditis, would likely be prescribed?

    <p>Furosemide (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is the most common cause for acute pericarditis?

    <p>Viral infections (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with symptomatic sinus bradycardia. What is the recommended first-line pharmacological treatment?

    <p>Atropine 0.5-1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient in ventricular tachycardia (VTach) is hemodynamically unstable. Which of the following is the most appropriate IMMEDIATE next step?

    <p>Perform immediate cardioversion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is specifically recommended for Torsades de Pointes?

    <p>Magnesium Sulfate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial dose of adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

    <p>6mg rapid IV push (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a patient in ventricular fibrillation (VFib), which medication is administered as a bolus?

    <p>Amiodarone 300mg IV (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with beta-blocker induced bradycardia is not responding to first-line treatments. Which of the following medications is most appropriate to consider?

    <p>Glucagon (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these medications is NOT used for ventricular tachycardia (VTach)?

    <p>Verapamil (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a recommended first-line treatment for bradycardia?

    <p>Temporary pacing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which a viral infection leads to myocardial damage in myocarditis?

    <p>The trigger of an immune response that results in inflammation and injury to the heart muscle. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of infective endocarditis, what is the rationale behind obtaining multiple blood cultures from different venous sites before starting intravenous antibiotics?

    <p>To identify the causative organism from different sites to avoid contamination and maximize detection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient with infective endocarditis has a known penicillin allergy, which of the following is the MOST appropriate alternative antibiotic regimen?

    <p>Vancomycin and gentamicin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The common pathogens that cause endocarditis can be broadly classed as which of the following?

    <p>Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterococci. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is diagnosed with severe myocarditis. What is the main goal in the treatment of this condition?

    <p>Support heart function and alleviate symptoms while the body recovers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of pericarditis?

    <p>Frequently triggered by viral infections , and sometimes bacterial infections, autoimmune disorders or trauma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is furosemide used in the management of myocarditis?

    <p>To help manage fluid overload often associated with heart failure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with herpes virus myocarditis, who also has a pre-existing renal impairment, requires antiviral medication. What should be monitored closely?

    <p>Serum Creatinine, to assess kidney function. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the use of prednisone most appropriate in the context of myocarditis?

    <p>When the patient is experiencing severe inflammation associated with myocarditis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is the most common cause of the primary form of acute pericarditis?

    <p>Viral infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with myocarditis is prescribed metoprolol. What is the primary indication for this medication in their case?

    <p>To primarily manage heart rate and prevent tachycardia. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with signs of mild inflammation due to myocarditis. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate?

    <p>Ibuprofen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril when used to manage myocarditis?

    <p>Cough and hyperkalemia. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with symptomatic sinus bradycardia and is unresponsive to initial Atropine administration. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next-line infusion medication to consider?

    <p>Dopamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is in stable ventricular tachycardia (VTach). Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial dose of Amiodarone?

    <p>150mg IV bolus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with known hyperkalemia develops bradycardia. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate?

    <p>Calcium chloride (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate initial medication regimen for a patient experiencing Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?

    <p>Adenosine 6mg rapid IV push (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is indicated for Torsades de Pointes?

    <p>Magnesium Sulfate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient experiences ventricular fibrillation (VFib). Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

    <p>Immediate defibrillation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with beta-blocker toxicity presents with symptomatic bradycardia that is unresponsive to atropine. Which of the following medications is BEST suited to address this underlying issue?

    <p>Glucagon (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a patient experiencing refractory bradycardia, not responding to medication, what is the MOST appropriate next step beyond pharmacological management?

    <p>Temporary pacing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the underlying mechanism by which myocarditis leads to heart failure?

    <p>The inflammatory process damages the heart muscle, impairing its pumping ability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is being treated for infective endocarditis with ampicillin, gentamicin, and flucloxacillin. Which of the following best explains the purpose of this combination?

    <p>To achieve synergistic effects and broaden the spectrum of coverage against common infective endocarditis pathogens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of myocarditis, when would corticosteroids like prednisone be most appropriate?

    <p>In severe cases of inflammation that are non-responsive to standard treatments. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a penicillin allergy and infective endocarditis requires intravenous antibiotics. Which of the following antibiotic combinations is MOST appropriate?

    <p>Vancomycin and gentamicin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these options is the MOST accurate description of the role of a viral infection in the pathogenesis of myocarditis?

    <p>Viruses cause an inflammatory reaction in the myocardial tissue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the underlying mechanism by which viral infections commonly lead to pericarditis?

    <p>Infiltration of inflammatory cells in response to viral antigens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with severe myocarditis and significant fluid retention would likely benefit from which combination of medications?

    <p>Prednisone and Furosemide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the intended therapeutic action of lisinopril in a patient with myocarditis-induced reduced ejection fraction?

    <p>To dilate blood vessels and reduce the workload on the heart. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is diagnosed with mild pericarditis. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate for managing the initial symptoms?

    <p>Ibuprofen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with myocarditis is prescribed metoprolol. What is the primary therapeutic goal of this specific medication?

    <p>To control the heart rate and improve cardiac output. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a major concern when administering acyclovir to a patient with herpes virus myocarditis?

    <p>Possibility of renal dysfunction due to drug toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient presents with pericarditis. Which clinical manifestation is MOST indicative of the condition?

    <p>A characteristic pericardial friction rub on auscultation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is started on prednisone for severe myocarditis. What should be closely monitored due to potential side effects?

    <p>Blood glucose levels and fluid balance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of atropine in the treatment of bradycardia?

    <p>It blocks the parasympathetic influence on the SA and AV nodes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with ventricular tachycardia is initially treated with a 150mg IV bolus of amiodarone. What is the subsequent step in their pharmacological management?

    <p>Begin a continuous infusion of amiodarone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), what is the rationale for using vagal maneuvers as first-line treatment?

    <p>To increase parasympathetic tone on the heart to slow down AV node conduction (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is indicated for ventricular fibrillation (VFib) when administered as a single bolus dose?

    <p>Amiodarone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with bradycardia is not responding to atropine. Which of the following reflects the next line pharmacological management approach, with the correct mechanism of action of the medication?

    <p>Epinephrine, stimulates alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For a patient with beta-blocker induced bradycardia, glucagon is considered due to its ability to:

    <p>Counteract the effects of beta-blockers by increasing cAMP levels in the heart. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is hypotensive and unstable. What pharmacological intervention should be avoided, and what intervention should be considered?

    <p>Avoid: Beta-blockers, Consider: Immediate cardioversion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication for magnesium sulfate in the management of certain cardiac arrhythmias?

    <p>To treat Torsades de Pointes, a type of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which viral infections lead to the development of myocarditis?

    <p>Immune-mediated inflammation triggered by the viral infection (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these medications is primarily indicated for controlling heart rate in a patient with myocarditis and tachycardia?

    <p>Metoprolol (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with myocarditis presents with signs of fluid overload. Which of the following medications is primarily indicated to address this issue?

    <p>Furosemide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary indication for using prednisone in the management of myocarditis?

    <p>Reducing inflammation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following medications is MOST likely to be used in a patient with myocarditis and reduced ejection fraction?

    <p>Lisinopril (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might a patient taking ganciclovir for cytomegalovirus myocarditis experience neutropenia and thrombocytopenia as side effects?

    <p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the underlying mechanism by which myocarditis progresses to heart failure?

    <p>Inflammation directly damages heart muscle cells, impairing the heart's ability to pump effectively. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the management of bradyarrhythmias, which statement about atropine is true?

    <p>Atropine is administered every 3-5 minutes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is specifically indicated for Torsades de Pointes?

    <p>Magnesium Sulfate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of sympathomimetics when used in bradycardia management?

    <p>Stimulates SA/AV node activity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of ventricular fibrillation (VFib) management?

    <p>Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which condition is diltiazem primarily used in the context of pharmacological management?

    <p>Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In treating bradyarrhythmias, which second-line agent is most appropriate when atropine is ineffective?

    <p>Isoproterenol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the appropriate initial intervention for a patient in ventricular tachycardia who is hemodynamically unstable?

    <p>Begin immediate cardioversion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Calcium chloride is specifically indicated in cases of suspected toxicity from which category of medications?

    <p>Calcium channel blockers (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary way in which Warfarin (Coumadin) exerts its anticoagulant effect?

    <p>It blocks the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X by inhibiting vitamin K. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a key consideration when administering the anticoagulant Fondaparinux (Arixta)?

    <p>It must be avoided in patients with a creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/min. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of managing a patient with a blood clot, what is the primary goal of thrombolytic therapy?

    <p>To dissolve the existing blood clot. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the relationship between Protamine Sulfate and Enoxaparin?

    <p>Protamine Sulfate is an antidote for Enoxaparin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When managing a patient receiving Warfarin therapy, what laboratory test is crucial to monitor the effectiveness of the medication?

    <p>International Normalized Ratio (INR) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the usual daily dosage for ZOSYN in adults?

    <p>3.375 g every six hours (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical duration of ZOSYN treatment?

    <p>7 to 10 days (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is a common side effect of ZOSYN?

    <p>Diarrhea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics like furosemide (Lasix)?

    <p>They inhibit the sodium-potassium-chloride (NKCC2) cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is NOT a common side effect of aminoglycosides like gentamicin?

    <p>Hepatotoxicity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended trough concentration for gentamicin?

    <p>Below 2 mcg/mL (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is the trough concentration of gentamicin measured?

    <p>Within 30 minutes before the next dose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the intravenous onset of action for furosemide (Lasix)?

    <p>5 minutes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for auxiliary muscles to engage during inspiration?

    <p>To support the rib cage during heavy breathing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does an increase in carbon dioxide levels affect pH balance in the body?

    <p>It induces acidosis by lowering pH (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does surfactant play in the alveoli?

    <p>It prevents alveolar collapse (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of respiration, what occurs at the alveolar level?

    <p>Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the RBCs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during passive expiration?

    <p>Relaxation of the diaphragm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological effect does rapid, shallow breathing have during a COPD exacerbation?

    <p>Promotes dynamic hyperinflation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of medication is commonly used in the initial treatment of status asthmaticus?

    <p>Short-acting beta-2 agonists (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key feature of status asthmaticus in contrast to other asthma exacerbations?

    <p>Unresponsiveness to repeated doses of bronchodilators (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is the most frequently used for immediate relief in COPD exacerbations?

    <p>Albuterol (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary effect of a pulmonary embolism on pulmonary tissue?

    <p>Increased hypoxia to pulmonary tissue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common lab finding associated with pulmonary embolism?

    <p>Positive D-Dimer result above 0.5 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is nebulization preferred in certain treatments for COPD and asthma?

    <p>It aerosolizes liquid medications for direct delivery to the lungs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of systemic corticosteroids in managing COPD exacerbations?

    <p>To decrease inflammation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of anticoagulants in the treatment of pulmonary embolism?

    <p>To decrease the formation of new clots and prevent clot growth (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What hallmark sign indicates a worsening condition during an asthma attack?

    <p>Diminished breath sounds (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory value is monitored for patients receiving warfarin therapy?

    <p>Prothrombin Time (PT) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial treatment is recommended for patients experiencing respiratory alkalosis in early stages of an asthma attack?

    <p>Albuterol nebulization (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action for unfractionated heparin?

    <p>Bind to and inhibit activated clotting factors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In patients receiving low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), which of the following is NOT required?

    <p>Frequent laboratory monitoring of blood levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of combining anticoagulants with NSAIDs?

    <p>Increased risk of bleeding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does progression from hyperventilation to hypoxemia have on PaCO2 levels?

    <p>PaCO2 levels decrease due to respiratory alkalosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?

    <p>Intermittent airway obstruction during sleep (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is a potential complication of untreated obstructive sleep apnea?

    <p>Hypertension and dysrhythmias (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main purpose of CPAP therapy in obstructive sleep apnea?

    <p>To maintain airway patency during sleep (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of fluid is characteristic of transudative pleural effusion?

    <p>Watery fluid due to pressure buildup (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following can lead to the development of empyema?

    <p>Pneumonia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common cause of pleural effusion?

    <p>Inflammatory disorders (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the consequences of hypoxia in patients with obstructive sleep apnea?

    <p>Release of inflammatory mediators (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is a result of excess fluid in the pleural space?

    <p>Pleural effusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During inspiration, which muscle group is primarily engaged to assist diaphragm movement in a patient with increased oxygen demands?

    <p>External intercostals, sternocleidomastoid, serratus anterior, and scalenes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological process primarily drives the movement of carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) from the blood into the alveoli during respiration?

    <p>Higher concentration of $CO_2$ in the blood compared to the alveoli. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following physiological changes would most likely result from a significant increase in carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) concentration in the blood?

    <p>A decrease in blood pH, leading to acidosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Surfactant plays a crucial role in the respiratory system. What is the primary function of this substance secreted by the alveoli?

    <p>To prevent alveolar collapse, or atelectasis, from occurring. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of normal respiration, what is the primary mechanism involved during expiration?

    <p>Passive relaxation of the diaphragm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect?

    <p>Inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is receiving enoxaparin, and a reversal agent is needed. What medication would the nurse prepare to administer?

    <p>Protamine sulfate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a major limitation of fondaparinux use?

    <p>It cannot be given to patients with a creatinine clearance less than 30mL/min. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the target INR range for a patient on warfarin therapy?

    <p>2-3.5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient who is hemodynamically compromised due to a pulmonary embolism requires a medication to dissolve the clot. Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice?

    <p>Alteplase. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary physiological effect of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) on the respiratory system?

    <p>Repetitive narrowing or collapse of the pharyngeal airway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the impact of OSA on blood gases?

    <p>Intermittent hypercapnia (excessive CO2) and hypoxemia (low oxygen) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which OSA leads to hypertension according to the text?

    <p>Release of endothelin due to hypoxia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is used in OSA. What is its main purpose?

    <p>To maintain a continuous flow of air to prevent airway structures from collapsing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the defining characteristic of a pleural effusion?

    <p>Accumulation of fluid within the pleural space (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common cause of exudative pleural effusions?

    <p>Lung cancer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is an empyema different from a typical pleural effusion?

    <p>Empyema is defined by pus in the pleural cavity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why can nocturnal hypoxemia associated with OSA increase the risk of myocardial infarction (MI)?

    <p>It causes vasoconstriction and damage. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the primary action of anticoagulant medications in the treatment of pulmonary embolism?

    <p>Preventing the formation of new clots and limiting the growth of existing clots. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a pulmonary embolism is likely to initially present with which of the following acid-base imbalances?

    <p>Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is receiving unfractionated heparin for a pulmonary embolism. Which lab parameter requires frequent monitoring to assess the therapeutic effect?

    <p>Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following laboratory findings would be expected in a patient with a confirmed pulmonary embolism?

    <p>A D-dimer level greater than 0.5 mcg/mL. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is the antidote for heparin?

    <p>Protamine sulfate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding enoxaparin?

    <p>It provides a more predictable anticoagulant response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient on warfarin is also taking garlic supplements. Which of the following is the most important concern?

    <p>Increased risk of bleeding. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following lab results indicates therapeutic effect for a patient receiving intravenous heparin?

    <p>Anti-Xa level of 0.3 U/mL. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the typical duration of treatment with piperacillin and tazobactam sodium (Zosyn)?

    <p>7 to 10 days (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For gentamicin, when should the trough concentration be measured?

    <p>Within 30 minutes before the next dose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of loop diuretics like furosemide (Lasix)?

    <p>Inhibition of the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in the loop of Henle (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended rate for administering furosemide (Lasix) intravenously?

    <p>20 mg/min (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is prescribed piperacillin and tazobactam sodium (Zosyn). What is the appropriate way to administer it?

    <p>Intravenous infusion over 30 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when using piperacillin and tazobactam sodium (Zosyn)?

    <p>It must be used with caution in patients with renal issues (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the usual adult dosage frequency for piperacillin and tazobactam sodium (zosyn)?

    <p>Every 6 hours (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common potential side effect of Zosyn?

    <p>Diarrhea (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary physiological effect of a COPD exacerbation?

    <p>Increased expiratory flow limitation due to increased airway resistance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a COPD exacerbation is breathing rapidly and shallowly. What is a consequence of this breathing pattern?

    <p>Limited time for lung emptying promoting dynamic hyperinflation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a typical initial treatment for a COPD exacerbation?

    <p>Short-acting beta-2 agonists (SABAs), such as albuterol via nebulizer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the physiological consequence of status asthmaticus?

    <p>Absent or diminished breath sounds due to increased airway obstruction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient initially presents with respiratory alkalosis due to an asthmatic exacerbation. What might subsequent arterial blood gas show should the status worsen?

    <p>An increase in PaCO2 levels signifying an escalating condition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol when administered via nebulizer for an asthma exacerbation?

    <p>Stimulation of β2 receptors leading to smooth muscle relaxation in bronchioles. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During the acute phase of status asthmaticus, how often for nebulization would Albuterol be administered initially?

    <p>Every 20 minutes for 3 doses, then hourly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Besides delivering the medication, what is another benefit of administering a nebulizer treatment with pressurized oxygen?

    <p>It increases the patient's oxygen levels (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly represents the relationship between cardiac output (CO), stroke volume (SV), and heart rate (HR)?

    <p>CO = SV × HR (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with a myocardial infarction (heart attack) is experiencing a complete blockage of a coronary artery and shows ST-segment elevation on an EKG. This is best described as what type of MI?

    <p>STEMI, with a complete blockage (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a patient is prescribed Metoprolol 25-50mg twice daily, it is most likely for what effect?

    <p>Slow heart rate and reduce BP (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism by which Aspirin is used in the management of a myocardial infarction?

    <p>It prevents blood clot formation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is experiencing chest pain and has been administered sublingual nitroglycerin. What is the primary therapeutic effect sought with this medication?

    <p>To reduce heart workload by vasodilation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction, which of these medications would be used, primarily to lower blood pressure and improve heart function?

    <p>Lisinopril (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Prolonged ischemia, as seen in myocardial infarction, which of the following is the most immediate consequence?

    <p>Myocardial cell death (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is started on intravenous Enalaprilat for a myocardial infarction. What is the typical frequency of administration?

    <p>Every 6 hours (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial compensatory response in congestive heart failure, as described in the provided content?

    <p>Activation of the sympathetic nervous system leading to reduced beta-receptor responsiveness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following physiological changes is a direct result of angiotensin II formation within the RAAS system?

    <p>Vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and aldosterone release (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of renin in the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System?

    <p>Converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is characteristic of the neuroendocrine changes that occur in congestive heart failure?

    <p>Increased release of ET-1 and vasopressin, increasing vasoconstriction (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the activation of the sympathetic nervous system impact myocardial function in the context of heart failure?

    <p>It reduces beta-receptor responsiveness and alters myocardial function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does increased cytosolic calcium have on the myocardium in heart failure?

    <p>It impairs relaxation with a higher oxygen demand. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Aortic stenosis causes what change in the left ventricle?

    <p>Concentric hypertrophy due to increased afterload (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary cause of exertional dyspnea in pulmonic stenosis?

    <p>Increased right ventricle pressure and reduced cardiac output (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the ultimate result of the cascade of compensatory mechanisms in congestive heart failure?

    <p>A worsening of the condition through increased neurohumoral stimulation and maladaptive responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does aortic regurgitation primarily affect left ventricular volume?

    <p>Increases diastolic volume, leading to eccentric hypertrophy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physiological change directly triggers the release of renin from the kidneys?

    <p>Decreased blood pressure or blood volume (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a late manifestation of unmanaged aortic stenosis?

    <p>Decompensated heart failure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a typical early manifestation of pulmonic stenosis?

    <p>Exertional dyspnea (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does pulmonic regurgitation primarily affect the right ventricle?

    <p>Increases preload causing dilation and dysfunction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Aortic regurgitation causes which of the following cardiac signs?

    <p>Bounding pulses (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is the most important differentiating factor between pulmonic stenosis and regurgitation?

    <p>Stenosis causes an obstruction of blood flow whereas regurgitation results in backflow of blood. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the hemodynamic consequence of tricuspid stenosis?

    <p>Increased right atrial pressure and reduced blood flow into the right ventricle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary clinical manifestation of severe tricuspid regurgitation?

    <p>Pulsatile liver, peripheral edema, and ascites. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the primary effect of mitral stenosis on the left atrium?

    <p>Elevated left atrial pressure and atrial enlargement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main pathophysiological outcome of mitral regurgitation?

    <p>Pathologic retrograde blood flow from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is directly associated with a risk of developing atrial fibrillation due to increased atrial wall stress?

    <p>Mitral stenosis with significant left atrial pressure elevation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with significant jugular venous distention, peripheral edema, and ascites is most likely experiencing:

    <p>Severe tricuspid stenosis with significant systemic congestion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cardiac valve dysfunction is most likely to cause a pulsatile liver?

    <p>Tricuspid regurgitation due to retrograde blood flow into the right atrium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is diagnosed with mitral stenosis. Which of the following complications is a direct result of the blood flow obstruction?

    <p>Pulmonary venous congestion due to increased left atrial pressure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates a hypertensive urgency?

    <p>Systolic blood pressure of 185 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 110 mmHg (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with hypertensive urgency is being treated with oral medications. Which of the following is an expected side effect of nifedipine?

    <p>Peripheral edema, headache, and flushing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key consideration when managing hypertensive urgency in the initial hour of treatment?

    <p>Target a 25% reduction in blood pressure to prevent organ hypoperfusion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these intravenous medications is known for causing potential cyanide toxicity?

    <p>Nitroprusside (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is receiving labetalol intravenously for hypertensive urgency. For which of these potential side effects should the clinical team monitor the patient?

    <p>Bronchospasm and heart block. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary mechanism of action of hydralazine in treating hypertensive urgency?

    <p>Direct vasodilator (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient is being treated with clonidine. What potential side effect is important to monitor for after administration?

    <p>Rebound hypertension (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the term valvular regurgitation in relation to the heart?

    <p>Retrograde blood flow due to valvular incompetence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential side effect of ganciclovir when used to treat cytomegalovirus myocarditis?

    <p>Neutropenia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with mild myocarditis would most likely benefit from an anti-inflammatory medication such as which of the following?

    <p>Ibuprofen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the treatment of myocarditis, which of the following medications is used for heart rate control?

    <p>Metoprolol (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with myocarditis presents with fluid overload. Which of these medications is most appropriate initially?

    <p>Furosemide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is the most common viral trigger for acute pericarditis?

    <p>Coxsackievirus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most characteristic clinical sign associated with pericarditis?

    <p>Pericardial friction rub (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A patient with severe inflammation due to myocarditis would most likely benefit from which of the following medications?

    <p>Prednisone (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a potential side effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor used in managing myocarditis?

    <p>Hyperkalemia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Flashcards

    Acyclovir

    Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus myocarditis. It works by stopping the virus from replicating in the body.

    Ibuprofen

    Ibuprofen is an anti-inflammatory medication used to manage mild inflammation associated with myocarditis. It reduces pain and swelling.

    Lisinopril

    Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to manage heart failure in myocarditis. It helps the heart pump more efficiently by lowering blood pressure and reducing fluid retention.

    Ganciclovir

    Ganciclovir is an antiviral medication for treating cytomegalovirus (CMV)-related myocarditis. It prevents viral replication.

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    Prednisone

    Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to treat severe inflammation in myocarditis. It suppresses the immune system and reduces inflammation.

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    Metoprolol

    Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to control heart rate in myocarditis. It slows the heart rate down to prevent overwork.

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    Furosemide

    Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat fluid overload in myocarditis. It helps remove excess fluid from the body.

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    Pericarditis

    Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac that surrounds the heart. It often results from viral infections.

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    Pericardium

    The pericardium is a double-layered protective sac that surrounds the heart and major blood vessels.

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    What is Myocarditis?

    Inflammation of the heart muscle, often triggered by a virus.

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    Myocarditis

    A condition where the heart muscle becomes inflamed, often caused by a viral infection. This inflammation can weaken the heart's pumping ability.

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    Disease Progression in Myocarditis

    The immune response to a viral infection in the heart, causing inflammation and damage to the heart muscle tissue.

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    Viral Infection in Myocarditis

    Common viruses that trigger myocarditis include coxsackievirus and adenovirus.

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    Heart Failure in Myocarditis

    In severe cases, myocarditis can progress to heart failure, which means the heart is no longer able to pump blood effectively.

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    Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach)

    A type of rapid heartbeat originating from the ventricles.

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    Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

    A type of rapid heartbeat originating from the atria or AV node.

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    Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib)

    A life-threatening heart rhythm where the ventricles quiver ineffectively.

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    Adenosine

    A medication used to treat both SVT and VTach by slowing the heart rate down.

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    Amiodarone

    A medication used for treating VTach by stabilizing the heart rhythm.

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    Lidocaine

    A medication used to treat VTach by suppressing the abnormal electrical activity.

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    Bradyarrhythmia

    A type of slow heartbeat originating from the SA or AV node.

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    Atropine

    A medication used to treat bradyarrhythmia by blocking parasympathetic influence on the heart.

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    Dopamine

    A medication used to treat bradyarrhythmia by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system.

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    Epinephrine

    A medication used to treat bradyarrhythmia by increasing heart rate and contractility.

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    Isoproterenol

    A medication used to treat bradyarrhythmia by stimulating beta-receptors in the heart.

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    Temporary Pacing

    A procedure used to stimulate the heart when medications are ineffective for bradyarrhythmia.

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    Defibrillation

    An emergency procedure to restore a normal heart rhythm in VFib.

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    What are common causes of Myocarditis?

    Common viruses that cause Myocarditis include coxsackievirus and adenovirus.

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    How does Myocarditis affect the heart?

    Inflammation of the myocardium can lead to weakened heart pumping ability, potentially resulting in heart failure in severe cases.

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    Explain Myocarditis disease progression.

    The immune response to a viral infection in the heart leads to inflammation and damage of the heart muscle tissue.

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    What is the role of the immune system in Myocarditis?

    The immune system's response to the viral infection triggers the inflammation and damage of the heart muscle.

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    What is Pericarditis?

    Inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart. Often caused by viral infections, but can also be triggered by bacterial infections, autoimmune disorders, or trauma.

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    What is a Pericardial Friction Rub?

    A characteristic sound heard during pericarditis, caused by the inflamed pericardium rubbing against the heart. It sounds like scratching or grating.

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    What is the main symptom of Pericarditis?

    Sharp, stabbing chest pain, especially when lying flat or taking deep breaths.

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    Name two antiviral medications used to treat viral myocarditis.

    Acyclovir, Ganciclovir.

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    Name two anti-inflammatory medications used to manage myocarditis inflammation.

    Ibuprofen, Prednisone.

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    Name three medications used to manage heart failure in myocarditis.

    Lisinopril, Metoprolol, Furosemide.

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    What are the common causes of Pericarditis?

    It is often caused by viral infections, particularly coxsackievirus, echovirus, and influenza.

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    How is Pericarditis clinically diagnosed?

    It is distinguished by a characteristic pericardial friction rub, a scratching, grating sound heard through a stethoscope.

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    How does viral infection cause myocarditis?

    Common viruses like coxsackievirus and adenovirus can trigger myocarditis by causing an immune response in the heart muscle. This response leads to inflammation and damage to the heart tissue.

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    Explain the progression of myocarditis.

    Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle, often caused by a viral infection. It can affect the heart's pumping ability, leading to heart failure in severe cases.

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    How is myocarditis treated?

    Myocarditis is treated with pathogen-directed therapy for 4-6 weeks. This often involves a combination of antibiotics like ampicillin, gentamicin, and flucloxacillin/oxacillin, depending on the identified pathogen.

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    What is heart failure in myocarditis?

    In severe cases, myocarditis can lead to heart failure, which means the heart cannot pump blood effectively. This can cause symptoms like fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention.

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    Antiviral medications for myocarditis

    Antiviral drugs used to treat viral infections like herpes and cytomegalovirus that cause myocarditis. They stop the virus from multiplying in the body.

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    Anti-inflammatory medications for myocarditis

    Medications like ibuprofen and prednisone that reduce inflammation in the heart muscle, providing relief from pain and swelling.

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    Heart failure medications for myocarditis

    Used to manage heart failure in myocarditis, improving the heart's pumping ability by lowering blood pressure, reducing fluid retention, and controlling heart rate.

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    What are common causes of pericarditis?

    Often caused by viral infections, especially coxsackievirus, echovirus, and influenza.

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    What is a blood culture?

    A blood culture is a test that detects the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. Two separate cultures are taken from different venous sites to ensure accuracy.

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    What are antiviral medications used for in Myocarditis?

    Antiviral medications are used to treat viral infections that cause myocarditis, such as herpes and cytomegalovirus. They work by stopping the virus from multiplying in the body.

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    What is the function of anti-inflammatory medications in Myocarditis?

    Anti-inflammatory medications, like ibuprofen and prednisone, are used to reduce inflammation in the heart muscle. This helps relieve pain and swelling.

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    What are heart failure medications used for in Myocarditis?

    Heart failure medications are used to manage heart failure in myocarditis. They improve the heart's pumping ability by lowering blood pressure, reducing fluid retention, and controlling heart rate.

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    What is the primary symptom of Pericarditis?

    The main symptom of pericarditis is sharp, stabbing chest pain, especially when lying flat or taking deep breaths.

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    Perfusion

    Movement of oxygenated blood into the tissues. This ensures your organs get enough oxygen to function.

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    Acid-base balance

    The body's way of balancing the acidity of your blood. The lungs help release carbon dioxide, while the kidneys adjust bicarbonate levels.

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    Surfactant

    A substance released in the lungs that keeps tiny air sacs (alveoli) from collapsing. This prevents a condition called atelectasis.

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    Atelectasis

    A condition where the tiny air sacs in the lungs collapse. This blocks airflow and makes breathing difficult.

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    Inspiration

    Inspiration requires the diaphragm to contract, and when oxygen demand is high, accessory muscles (like those in your neck) also help pull air in. This is a sign of respiratory distress.

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    What is Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA)?

    It occurs when the upper airway collapses during sleep, leading to interruptions in breathing and low blood oxygen levels. People with OSA may snore loudly, experience daytime sleepiness, and be at risk for cardiovascular problems.

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    Describe the pleura and pleural space.

    The visceral pleura is a thin membrane covering the lungs, while the parietal pleura lines the chest cavity. The space between these layers is called the pleural space.

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    What is a pleural effusion?

    An accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, the area between the lung lining and the chest wall. It can be caused by various factors like heart failure, pneumonia, and cancer.

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    Define empyema.

    Empyema is a serious condition caused by the accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity (the space between the lung linings). It can be a complication of pneumonia or other infections.

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    What is CPAP?

    Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is a type of therapy used to treat OSA. A machine delivers pressurized air through a mask worn during sleep, keeping the airway open.

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    Define hypoxia.

    Hypoxia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the blood. It is a common consequence of OSA due to frequent airway blockage and reduced oxygen intake during sleep.

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    Describe the respiratory control system.

    The respiratory control system is a complex network of nerve pathways and centers in the brain responsible for regulating breathing rate and depth. It plays a critical role in maintaining oxygen and carbon dioxide balance in the body.

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    What are transudative and exudative pleural effusions?

    Transudative effusions are watery fluids caused by pressure buildups, often related to heart failure or cirrhosis. Exudative effusions are thicker, protein-rich fluids often associated with infections or cancer.

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    Broad-spectrum antibiotic

    A type of antibiotic that targets a broad range of bacteria.

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    Aminoglycosides (e.g., Gentamicin)

    A class of antibiotics that are very powerful and effective against a wide range of bacteria.

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    Loop diuretics

    A class of medications that increase urine output by reducing the amount of sodium reabsorbed by the kidneys.

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    Furosemide (Lasix)

    A specific loop diuretic that inhibits the absorption of sodium and water in the kidneys.

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    Peak concentration

    The highest level of a drug in the blood, usually measured after administration.

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    Trough concentration

    The lowest level of a drug in the blood, usually measured before the next dose.

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    Serum drug levels

    A measure of drug levels in the blood that can indicate potential toxicity.

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    Nephrotoxicity

    A condition that can occur with high levels of certain drugs, particularly aminoglycosides, that can damage the kidneys.

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    What is Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

    A blockage in the pulmonary vasculature caused by a substance (solid, gas, or liquid) entering the venous circulation.

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    What is D-Dimer?

    A protein fragment found in the blood after a blood clot breaks down. It's a marker for blood clots.

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    What are Anticoagulants?

    Medications used to decrease the formation of new clots, preventing the existing clot from growing.

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    What is Heparin?

    Unfractionated heparin is a type of anticoagulant that binds to activated factors in the clotting cascade.

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    What is LMWH?

    Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) is a more specific anticoagulant that primarily targets activated factor X.

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    What is Atelectasis?

    A common complication of PE, it's a condition where tiny air sacs in the lungs collapse, blocking airflow.

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    What is Perfusion?

    The movement of oxygenated blood into the tissues, ensuring organs receive enough oxygen to function.

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    What is Acid-base balance?

    The body's way of balancing the acidity of the blood. Lungs release carbon dioxide, kidneys adjust bicarbonate levels.

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    COPD Exacerbation

    An abrupt increase in airway resistance, causing a worsening of expiratory flow limitation and prolonged lung emptying time.

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    Status Asthmaticus

    A severe, acute asthma attack that doesn't respond to standard treatments like bronchodilators.

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    Nebulizer

    A device that converts liquid medication into a fine mist, allowing for direct inhalation and delivery to the lungs.

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    Bronchodilator

    A medication that relaxes the muscles around the airways, opening them up and making it easier to breathe.

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    Short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)

    A type of bronchodilator that works quickly but for a short duration. Often used for immediate relief of asthma or COPD symptoms.

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    Long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)

    A type of bronchodilator that acts slowly but provides long-lasting relief of asthma or COPD symptoms.

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    Systemic Corticosteroids

    A medication class known for reducing inflammation in the airways, commonly used for asthma and COPD.

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    Oxygen Therapy

    A critical part of treating COPD and asthma exacerbations, providing supplemental oxygen to improve blood oxygen levels.

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    What is the antidote for LMWH like enoxaparin?

    Protamine sulfate is an antidote used to reverse the effects of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), such as enoxaparin. It works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant activity.

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    How does Coumadin (warfarin) work?

    Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K synthesis by bacteria in the gut. This reduces the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are vital for blood clotting.

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    What is a specific factor Xa inhibitor used for blood clots?

    Fondaparinux (Arixta) is an anticoagulant that specifically inhibits factor Xa, a key protein involved in the clotting cascade. It's used for the treatment of blood clots in the lungs (pulmonary embolism) or legs (deep vein thrombosis).

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    How does thrombolytic therapy work?

    Thrombolytic therapy involves medications like alteplase (Activase) that dissolve existing blood clots. These drugs work by converting plasminogen to plasmin, an enzyme that breaks down the clot.

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    What is a thrombolytic medication with a short half-life?

    Alteplase (Activase) is a thrombolytic medication given intravenously that has a short half-life. It's used to dissolve blood clots and improve blood flow.

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    What is inspiration?

    Inspiration is an active process that requires the diaphragm to contract and can involve accessory muscles to help pull air in when oxygen demand is high.

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    What is expiration?

    Expiration is a passive process that occurs when the diaphragm relaxes, allowing air to flow out of the lungs.

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    What is Surfactant?

    Surfactant is a substance secreted by the alveoli that prevents them from collapsing, a condition known as atelectasis.

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    What is the Visceral Pleura?

    A thin membrane that lines the surface of the lungs, creating a space for fluid to accumulate.

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    What is Empyema?

    A collection of pus in the pleural cavity, often a complication of pneumonia or other infections.

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    What is Hypoxia?

    A condition of low oxygen levels in the blood, often caused by OSA due to frequent airway blockage and reduced oxygen intake during sleep.

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    What is the respiratory control system?

    A complex network of nerve pathways and centers in the brain responsible for regulating breathing rate and depth. It plays a critical role in maintaining oxygen and carbon dioxide balance in the body.

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    Cardiac Output (CO)

    The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is a measure of the heart's efficiency in delivering oxygenated blood to the body.

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    Stroke Volume (SV)

    The volume of blood ejected by the ventricle with each heartbeat. It represents the heart's pumping strength.

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    Heart Rate (HR)

    The number of heartbeats per minute. It reflects the speed of the heart.

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    Myocardial Infarction (MI)

    A blockage in the coronary artery, cutting off blood supply and oxygen to the heart muscle, causing damage.

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    Nitroglycerin

    A medication that works by relaxing blood vessels, decreasing pressure on the heart and allowing blood to flow more easily.

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    Beta-blockers

    A medication that works by slowing the heart rate, reducing the workload on the heart and decreasing oxygen demand.

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    ACE Inhibitors

    A medication that works by reducing the production of a hormone that narrows blood vessels, lowering blood pressure and improving heart efficiency.

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    Anticoagulants

    Any medication that inhibits the formation of blood clots, preventing the formation of new clots or stopping existing clots from growing.

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    Congestive Heart Failure Exacerbation

    A cascade of maladaptive mechanisms that perpetuate cardiac dysfunction, starting with compensatory responses like sympathetic nervous system activation and RAAS, leading to worsening heart failure.

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    Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)

    A system primarily involving the kidneys, liver, and lungs, playing a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, fluid volume, and electrolyte balance.

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    Renin Release

    The release of renin from the kidneys, triggered by decreased blood pressure or blood volume, is the first step in the RAAS cascade.

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    Angiotensin II

    A powerful vasoconstrictor produced by the RAAS system, causing blood vessels to narrow, increasing blood pressure and stimulating aldosterone release.

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    Aldosterone

    A hormone released by the adrenal glands in response to Angiotensin II, causing the kidneys to retain sodium and water, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure.

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    Heart Failure

    A condition where the heart is not pumping blood effectively, often caused by a weakened heart muscle. It is often a consequence of several factors, including high blood pressure, coronary artery disease, and heart valve problems.

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    Pulmonary Edema

    A common complication of heart failure, it involves fluid buildup in the lungs, causing shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing.

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    Lungs

    A vital organ that plays a crucial role in breathing by filtering air, exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide, and regulating blood acidity.

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    Aortic Regurgitation

    Incomplete closure of the aortic valve during diastole, causing retrograde blood flow from the aorta into the left ventricle.

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    Pulmonic Stenosis

    Pathological narrowing of the pulmonic valve that impedes blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery.

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    Pulmonic Regurgitation

    Incomplete closure of the pulmonic valve during diastole, resulting in blood flow from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

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    What is the effect of a restricted valve area?

    A condition characterized by increased afterload on the left ventricle due to restricted valve area, leading to compensatory hypertrophy.

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    What are the symptoms of chronic aortic regurgitation?

    Progressive volume overload leading to eccentric left ventricular hypertrophy, characterized by exertional dyspnea, decreased exercise tolerance, and the triad of angina, syncope, and heart failure.

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    What are the initial symptoms of pulmonic stenosis?

    Increased resistance causes elevated right ventricular pressure, triggering right ventricular hypertrophy, which leads to exertional dyspnea, chest pain, and easy fatigability.

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    What are the characteristics of pulmonic regurgitation?

    Chronic volume overload leads to progressive dilation and dysfunction of the right ventricle; manifests as exercise intolerance, right ventricular enlargement, and peripheral edema.

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    What are the possible complications of pulmonic stenosis?

    Severe cases can lead to right-sided heart failure if left untreated.

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    Hypertensive Urgency

    A serious condition characterized by a rapid increase in blood pressure (systolic above 180 mmHg or diastolic above 120 mmHg) without immediate organ damage. It typically presents with headache and dizziness.

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    Valvular Heart Disease

    A condition where the heart's valves are not functioning properly. This can involve valve stenosis (narrowing) or regurgitation (backflow).

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    Clonidine

    A medication used to treat high blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload. It is often used in hypertensive urgency to lower blood pressure gradually.

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    Central Alpha-2 Agonist

    A medication that acts as a central alpha-2 agonist, helping to lower blood pressure by reducing the sympathetic nervous system activity. It can be used to treat high blood pressure and certain anxiety disorders.

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    Nifedipine

    A calcium channel blocker medication often used to treat high blood pressure. It works by preventing calcium from entering the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels, leading to relaxation and decreased blood pressure.

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    Nitroprusside

    A medication that lowers blood pressure by directly relaxing blood vessels. It is often used to treat hypertensive emergencies and severe high blood pressure.

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    Labetalol

    A medication that works as both an alpha-blocker and beta-blocker. It can lower blood pressure quickly by blocking the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.

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    What is Tricuspid Stenosis?

    A pathological narrowing of the tricuspid valve orifice that impedes diastolic blood flow between the right atrium and right ventricle, leading to increased right atrial pressure.

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    What is Tricuspid Regurgitation?

    A valvular dysfunction characterized by incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve leaflets during ventricular systole, resulting in pathologic retrograde blood flow into the right atrium.

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    What is Mitral Stenosis?

    A significant pathological narrowing of the mitral valve orifice that critically restricts blood flow from the left atrium to left ventricle during diastolic filling. This mechanical obstruction generates a substantial pressure gradient, resulting in elevated left atrial pressure and subsequent pulmonary venous congestion.

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    What is Mitral Regurgitation?

    A complex valvular dysfunction where incomplete mitral valve leaflet coaptation during systole permits pathologic retrograde blood flow from the left ventricle into the left atrium.

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    What is Nephrotoxicity?

    A condition that can occur with high levels of certain drugs, particularly aminoglycosides, that can damage the kidneys.

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    What is Pulmonary Embolism?

    A blockage in the pulmonary vasculature caused by a substance (solid, gas, or liquid) entering the venous circulation.

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    Study Notes

    Cardiovascular Pathophysiology and Pharmacology

    • This presentation explores the anatomy, physiology, and pharmacology of the cardiovascular system, focusing on common diseases and their treatment.

    Electrical Conduction System

    • The heart's electrical conduction system is a network of specialized cells.
    • These cells generate and transmit electrical impulses, triggering muscle contractions.
    • Coordinated pumping of blood throughout the body is ensured.

    Action Potential of the Cardiac Myocyte

    • Phase 0: Rapid Depolarization: Sodium influx into the cell.
    • Phase 1: Early Repolarization: Sodium channels close, potassium channels open.
    • Phase 2: Plateau Phase: Calcium influx balances potassium efflux.
    • Phase 3: Rapid Repolarization: Potassium efflux dominates, returning to resting potential.
    • Phase 4: Resting Membrane Potential: The cell is polarized, ready for the next action potential.

    Specialized Cardiac Conduction System

    • Sinoatrial (SA) Node: Pacemaker, generates electrical impulses (60-100 bpm).
    • Atrioventricular (AV) Node: Slows conduction, allowing atria to contract before ventricles.
    • Bundle of His: Transmits impulses from the AV node to ventricles.
    • Purkinje Fibers: Rapidly conduct impulses throughout ventricular myocardium, ensuring synchronized contraction.

    Sinus Node

    • Pacemaker: Generates electrical impulses initiating heartbeat.
    • Rhythm: Controls heart rate (typically 60-100 bpm).
    • Conduction: Transmits impulses to atria, then ventricles.

    Atrioventricular Node

    • Conduction Delay: Slows electrical impulse, allowing atria to contract before ventricles.
    • Gatekeeper: Prevents too-fast ventricular contractions.
    • Rhythm Regulation: Controls rate of impulse to ventricles for maintaining a regular heart rhythm.

    Bundle of His

    • Pathway: Transmits electrical impulse from AV node to left and right bundle branches.
    • Septum: Located within the interventricular septum, separating the left and right ventricles.
    • Conduction: Rapidly conducts impulse, allowing synchronized ventricles contraction.

    Purkinje Fibers

    • Branching Network: Extends from bundle branches, forming a vast network throughout the ventricular myocardium.
    • Rapid Conduction: Efficiently conducts electrical impulses, ensuring synchronized contraction of ventricular muscle.
    • Myocardial Stimulation: Stimulates ventricular muscle fibers, initiating the heart's pumping action.

    Tachyarrhythmia Pharmacology Management

    • Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach): Amiodarone (IV or oral), Lidocaine (IV), Procainamide (IV), Magnesium Sulfate (IV), Adenosine (IV).
    • Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT): Adenosine (IV), Verapamil (IV or oral), Diltiazem (IV or oral), Beta blockers (Metoprolol, etc. (IV or oral)).
    • Ventricular Fibrillation/PEA/Asystole: Epinephrine (IV), Amiodarone (IV), Sodium bicarbonate (IV), Calcium chloride (IV), Defibrillation, CPR.

    Bradyarrhythmia Pharmacology Management

    • First-line Treatment: Atropine (0.5-1mg IV bolus every 3-5 minutes, max 3mg).
    • Second-line Agents: Dopamine, Epinephrine, Isoproterenol (IV).
    • Special Considerations: Glucagon (IV), Calcium (IV), Temporary pacing, underlying cause correction.

    Heart Function Equation

    • CO = SV × HR
    • CO (Cardiac Output): Volume of blood pumped by heart per minute (L/min).
    • SV (Stroke Volume): Volume of blood pumped out by ventricle in each contraction (mL/beat).
    • HR (Heart Rate): Number of heartbeats per minute (beats/min).

    Definition and Pathogenesis: Myocardial Infarction

    • Definition: A heart attack occurs when a coronary artery is blocked, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle.
    • Pathogenesis: Atherosclerosis, a buildup of plaque in the arteries, can rupture, triggering a blood clot that blocks the artery.

    Myocardial Infarction

    • Myocardial Infarction (MI): Heart attack, occurs when a coronary artery is blocked.
    • Ischemia: Reduced blood flow to the myocardium.
    • Cell Death: Prolonged ischemia leads to cell death, damaging heart muscle.

    Acute Myocardial Infarction

    • ST-Segment Elevation MI (STEMI): Complete blockage leading to significant heart muscle damage, resulting in ST-segment elevation on an EKG.
    • Non-ST-Segment Elevation MI (NSTEMI): Partial blockage causing less severe damage, resulting in ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion on an EKG.

    Pharmacological Management of Myocardial Infarctions

    • Aspirin: Antiplatelet agent preventing blood clots.
    • Nitroglycerin: Vasodilator reducing heart workload.
    • Beta-blockers: Slow heart rate and reduce blood pressure.
    • ACE Inhibitors: Reduce blood pressure and improve heart function.
    • Fibrinolytics (alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase, etc.): To break down clots; used in STEMI situations, but contraindicated in other conditions. Time is critical - earlier administration leads to better outcomes, with greatest benefit when given within 3 hours of symptom onset and previous stroke or intracranial bleed should be excluded.

    Reperfusion: Fibrinolytics

    • Mechanism of Action: Activates plasminogen to form plasmin, which breaks down fibrin clots and restores coronary blood flow.
    • Key Indications: STEMI within 12 hours of symptom onset, when PCI is not available within 120 minutes, significant ST-segment elevation or new LBBB; Time is critical—earlier administration leads to better outcomes, with the greatest benefit within 3 hours.
    • Common Fibrinolytics: Alteplase, Reteplase, Streptokinase, Tenecteplase.
    • Contraindications: Active bleeding, recent surgery or trauma, history of intracranial hemorrhage, severe uncontrolled hypertension, previous stroke or intracranial bleed.

    (...Remaining sections – Congestive Heart Failure, Hypertensive Urgency, Valvular Disease, Endocarditis, Myocarditis, Pericarditis – are updated as previously requested.)

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