Infectious Diseases Intro - Pharm.

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following best describes an opportunistic pathogen?

  • Always requires aggressive antimicrobial treatment.
  • Is only infectious in individuals with compromised immune systems. (correct)
  • Provides protection against harmful microorganisms.
  • Causes disease in virtually any susceptible host.

Which step is NOT typically required for a pathogen to cause disease?

  • Entrance into the host body
  • Impairment of tissue function
  • Adherence to specific host cells
  • Production of antibodies by the host (correct)

Which of the following is the most accurate description of a virus?

  • A multicellular organism with differentiated tissues.
  • A living cell that divides by fission.
  • A non-living entity composed of genetic material surrounded by a protein coat. (correct)
  • A unicellular eukaryote lacking a cell wall.

What is the primary purpose of performing a Gram's stain?

<p>To classify bacteria based on cell wall characteristics (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiologist reports that a bacterium is a 'strict anaerobe'. What does this signify regarding the organism's oxygen requirements?

<p>Oxygen is toxic to it, and it obtains energy through fermentation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of a 'left shift' in a patient's white blood cell differential?

<p>Indicates an increase in immature neutrophils (bands). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient's lab results show a WBC count of 15,000/mm³ (normal range 4,500 - 11,000/mm³). What term best describes this finding?

<p>Leukocytosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a temperature of 103°F. According to the 'Summary of Drug Fever', what would be the appropriate pulse response?

<p>120 beats per minute (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lactobacillus species in the vaginal tract produce lactic, acetic, and propionic acids, which results in which of the following?

<p>Lower pH environment to inhibit Candida albicans (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgeon sends cultures that were obtained during a surgical procedure on an infected patient. According to the informational text, which cultures are best?

<p>The deepest specimens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does it typically mean if a microorganism shows up in ALL blood cultures, every time the patient was stuck by a needle at different body sites?

<p>Infection is likely (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can the number of squamous epithelial cells vs. PMNs (polymorphonuclear neutrophils) on a sputum sample indicate?

<p>Can determine if the sample is spit or sputum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of antimicrobial stewardship programs?

<p>Maximizing cost savings, even if it compromises patient care (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation is it okay to use tetracyclines on patients 8 years of ages or younger?

<p>Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What level of creatinine clearance is considered appropriate when prescribing nitrofurantoin?

<p>Avoid with CrCl &lt; 60 mL/min and per the Beers Criteria avoid in patients with a CrCl &lt; 30 mL/min (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of an antibiogram?

<p>To guide empiric therapy decisions based on local resistance patterns (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

De-escalation in antimicrobial therapy refers to:

<p>Narrowing the spectrum of an antimicrobial agent based on culture results (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on the information provided, which antimicrobial agent characteristic is considered bacteriostatic?

<p>Inhibits growth but does not kill microorganism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion method, how can results be used?

<p>To indicate breakpoints based on serum levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a series of tubes containing broth dilution, it is noted that all are cloudy with the exception of one. What can be determined from this?

<p>Suggests resistance to the antimicrobial in tubes with cloudiness (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A blood culture results are reported to be 1/2 S.epidermidis. What can be determined?

<p>Likely a contamination (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a PICC line?

<p>A peripherally inserted central catheter (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Based on its common description, when providing care to neutropenic patients, what is important?

<p>Watch for Gram Negative Organisms, especially Pseudomonas (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient has a WBC count of 1100 cells/mm3 what is the best term to describe their condition?

<p>Neutropenia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should certain patients receive antibiotic prophylaxis prior to dental work?

<p>Dental work introduces normal throat flora into the body where it can cause infection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meaning of an infection?

<p>Characterized by successful multiplication of an organism in or on a host (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the reading, what is the meaning of collateral damage?

<p>Ecological adverse effects of antimicrobial therapy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the lowest concentration of antimicrobial that inhibits visual growth?

<p>Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information presented, what do infections of the heart valves or infection of membranes that surround the brain or spinal cord have in common?

<p>Bactericidal activity should be used (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to keep in mind whether the antibiotic can reach the location of the infection?

<p>So intelligent empiric therapy can be chosen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why can't a PICC line be used for patients with current of past IV drug use?

<p>There may be line placement complications/contraindications (skin and soft tissue infection, thrombosis, or scarring) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is it appropriate for the treating physician to ask you for the cost of the medication?

<p>As part of the process of antimicrobial stewardship, cost is appropriate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meaning of "de-escalate to pathogen-directed therapy"?

<p>narrowing the spectrum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to follow trends in ESR or CRP?

<p>to assess if an antimicrobial regimen is effective (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A culture sample is reported at 'S' for an agent. What is the meaning of this?

<p>The organism is sensitive or susceptible (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the information presented, what is the meaning of the suffix -emia?

<p>refers to the blood (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is indicated to be resistant to an antibiotic. What does this practically mean?

<p>The microorganism demonstrates poor sensitivity to the agent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the proper way to denote the formal scientific name of a microorganism?

<p>Genus name capitalized, species name in lowercase, both in italics. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the correct order of steps in Gram staining, using the acronym VIAS?

<p>Violet, Iodine, Alcohol, Safranin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural component is present in Gram-positive bacteria but largely absent in Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Teichoic acids (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics is primarily used to differentiate bacteria under a microscope after Gram staining?

<p>Arrangement of cells (clusters, chains, etc.) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of numerous epithelial cells in a sputum sample likely indicate?

<p>Contamination of the sample (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that require special staining techniques because they are not reliably detected by Gram staining?

<p>Mycoplasma (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes a 'strict aerobe' from a 'facultative anaerobe'?

<p>A strict aerobe requires oxygen for growth, while a facultative anaerobe can grow with or without oxygen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the catalase test in the classification of Gram-positive cocci?

<p>It differentiates Staphylococcus species from Streptococcus and Enterococcus species. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of distinguishing between methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

<p>MRSA infections require isolation precautions, which are usually unnecessary for MSSA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is used to classify streptococci, in addition to Gram stain results and morphology?

<p>Hemolytic activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does beta-hemolysis differ from alpha-hemolysis when observing bacterial growth on a blood agar plate?

<p>Beta-hemolysis shows a clear zone around colonies, while alpha-hemolysis shows a green or brownish zone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genus of anaerobic Gram-positive cocci is clinically relevant?

<p>Peptostreptococcus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic defines organisms such as Bacillus and Clostridium?

<p>Spore-forming ability (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key differentiating characteristic between Neisseria and Moraxella (both Gram-negative cocci)?

<p>They are separate genera and require biochemical analysis to distinguish. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of identifying Bacteroides fragilis?

<p>It is a prevalent anaerobic bacterium often involved in intra-abdominal infections. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial step in differentiating aerobic Gram-negative rods?

<p>Lactose fermentation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the oxidase test help differentiate aerobic Gram-negative rods?

<p>It identifies organisms that produce cytochrome c oxidase, aiding in identifying certain genera. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which group of aerobic Gram-negative rods is often referred to as 'glucose non-fermenters'?

<p>Pseudomonas (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What common characteristic do Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Haemophilus influenzae share?

<p>They are all encapsulated organisms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is considering preliminary micro results important when selecting an antimicrobial agent?

<p>Preliminary results can guide initial antimicrobial selection while awaiting final identification and susceptibility data. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with acute otitis media. Based on common causative organisms, which of the following is the MOST likely pathogen?

<p>Streptococcus pneumoniae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely responsible?

<p>Listeria monocytogenes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with a community-acquired pneumonia. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely for this diagnosis

<p>S. pneumoniae (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection, which is likely the causative organism?

<p>E. coli (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with an osteomyelitis, which organism is the most likely culprit?

<p>S. aureus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with endocartitis. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

<p>S. aureus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with an intra-abdominal infection. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

<p>E. coli (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a skin infection (cellulitis). Which of the following organisms are the most likely cause?

<p>S. aureus, S. pyogenes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with a diabetic foot infection. Which of the following organisms are the most likely cause?

<p>Pseudomonas, Enterococcus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement is MOST accurate?

<p>Antimicrobial selection should be based on preliminary and final micro results, along with the clinical data. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What outcome does proper antimicrobial selection achieve?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best definition of the 'species' name of bacteria?

<p>The second name (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What color do Gram-positive bacteria stain following Gram staining?

<p>Purple (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Gram stain hinges around the differential structural component of the organisms. How does this difference affect the Gram stain?

<p>Gram-positive organisms' thick peptidoglycan layer is able to retain the crystal violet, yielding a purple color (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes why acid-fast stains are required for Mycobacteria?

<p>The Gram stain is not capable of penetrating the thick, waxy cell wall of Mycobacteria, therefore requiring a different stain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between microcolonies and diplococci?

<p>Diplococci reference pairs of bacteria, while microcolonies reference clusters of bacteria (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiologist reads a Gram stain as, “Many Gram-positive cocci in clusters”. What organism would the microbiologist MOST likely suspect?

<p>Staphylococcus aureus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiologist reads a Gram stain as, “Many Gram-positive cocci in chains”. What organism would the microbiologist MOST likely suspect?

<p>Streptococcus pyogenes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A microbiologist reads a Gram stain as, “Many Gram-negative rods”. What organism would the microbiologist MOST likely suspect?

<p>Klebsiella pneumoniae (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of an infectious disease?

<p>A disease caused by the invasion of a host by agents whose activities harm host tissues and can be transmitted to others. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does a true pathogen differ from an opportunistic pathogen?

<p>A true pathogen causes disease in virtually any susceptible host, whereas an opportunistic pathogen rarely causes disease in healthy individuals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key distinction between infection and disease?

<p>Infection is the invasion and growth of a pathogen in a host, whereas disease is the impairment of tissue function due to that invasion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pathogen categories is characterized by rigid cell walls made of chitin or cellulose?

<p>Fungi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prions are unique among pathogens because they are:

<p>abnormal proteins resistant to proteases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mode of transmission for helminths?

<p>Eggs/larvae passed via stool (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do viruses replicate?

<p>By utilizing the host cell's enzymes and machinery to replicate their own genetic material and produce viral proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics is unique to viruses?

<p>They rely entirely on host cells for replication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the structure of Gram-positive bacteria differ from that of Gram-negative bacteria?

<p>Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer without an outer membrane. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of biochemical tests in microbiology?

<p>To assess a bacterium's metabolic capabilities and enzymatic activities. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are bacteria classified, using the Genus and species name?

<p>Genus is uppercase, and species is lowercase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following sets of microorganisms are commonly referred to as 'atypical'?

<p><em>Mycoplasma spp.</em>, <em>Chlamydia spp.</em>, <em>Legionella spp.</em> (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following bacterial species is NOT typically encapsulated?

<p><em>Escherichia coli</em> (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a review of the complete blood count (CBC), how is the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) calculated?

<p>WBC count × (% segs + % bands) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An increase in which type of white blood cell typically indicates a bacterial infection?

<p>Neutrophils (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fundamental difference between colonization and infection?

<p>Colonization involves the presence of microorganisms without causing impaired tissue function, whereas infection does cause impairment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT an infectious cause of fever and leukocytosis?

<p>Autoimmune diseases (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following microorganisms is commonly found as normal flora on human skin?

<p><em>Staphylococcus epidermidis</em> (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the 'spectrum of activity' of an antimicrobial?

<p>The range of bacteria an antimicrobial acts on. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is empiric therapy typically initiated?

<p>Before the organism causing the infection has been identified. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A culture and sensitivity report indicates that an organism is 'Resistant' to a particular antibiotic. What does this imply?

<p>The drug is unlikely to work against the organism. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When interpreting an antibiogram, what is the primary factor to consider when selecting an antibiotic?

<p>The antibiotic with the highest % sensitivity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which result from a culture and sensitivity report should be prioritized when selecting an antimicrobial?

<p>Drugs marked as 'S' (sensitive) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following medications should generally be avoided in neonates?

<p>Sulfonamides (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are tetracyclines generally avoided in children ≤8 years old?

<p>They can cause permanent teeth discoloration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the best definition of de-escalation of antibiotic therapy?

<p>Narrowing therapy to a specific pathogen. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does MIC stand for?

<p>Minimum inhibitory concentration (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meaning of Bacteriostatic?

<p>Inhibits growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does antimicrobial stewardship mean?

<p>Optimizing antimicrobial use (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does an elevated WBC usually mean?

<p>Bacterial infection (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do helminths typically transmit?

<p>eggs/larvae passed via stool (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen is transferred via spores?

<p>Fungi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen uses Iatrogenic, organ transplant, blood transfusion for transmission?

<p>Prions (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen is transferred from animal contact?

<p>Protozoa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen is transferred through contact with infected belongings?

<p>Ectoparasites (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the site of propagation for Prions?

<p>Intracellular, primarily neurons (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where do Ectoparasites tend to propagate?

<p>Skin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What white blood cells increase with a fungal infection?

<p>monocytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What white blood cells increase with a parasitic infection?

<p>eosinophils (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the meaning of MBC?

<p>Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug is important to avoid in children <=8 years old?

<p>Tetracycline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sort of bacteria is found in the GI tract?

<p>Bacteroides fragilis, Clostridium spp., E. coli (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sort of bacteria is found in the Vagina?

<p>Lactobacillus spp. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Infection

Invasion by a pathogen that begins growing within a host (colonizes).

Disease

Tissue function is impaired by pathogen invasion and growth.

Pathogen

Infectious disease causing agents.

True Pathogen

Causes disease in virtually any susceptible host.

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Opportunistic Pathogen

Rarely cause disease unless immune system impaired.

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Bacteria

Unicellular, no organized internal membrane; divide by fission.

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Virus

Nucleic acid genome surrounded by a protein coat.

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Fungi

Rigid cellulose or chitin based cell wall.

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Prions

Abnormal forms of a host protein that cause disease.

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Protozoa

Eukaryote lacking cell walls.

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Helminths

Multicellular invertebrate animals.

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Ectoparasites

Insects or arachnids.

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Gram's Stain

Rapid, presumptive results for initial bacterial identification.

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Strict Aerobe

Requires oxygen to generate ATP.

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Strict Anaerobe

Obtains energy from fermentation; oxygen is toxic.

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Facultative Anaerobe

Grows with or without oxygen.

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Infection (Infectious Diseases definition)

Successful multiplication of an organism in or on a host.

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Infectious disease

Clinically apparent response/injury to host as a result of infection.

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Colonization

Normal microorganisms adapted to replicate without harming the host.

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Fever

Controlled elevation of body temperature.

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Febrile Response

Cytokine-mediated.

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Leukocytosis

Elevated white blood cell count.

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Left Shift

Increased % of segs and bands.

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Neutropenia

ANC < 1,000 cells/mm³.

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Antimicrobial stewardship

Treatment for the bug to treat specific microorganisms.

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Spectrum of activity

The range of bacteria against which an agent is typically active.

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Empiric therapy

Prior to organism identification and antimicrobial sensitivity.

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Antibiogram

Antibiotic sensitivity report by region or hospital.

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Directed Therapy

Chosen to treat specific microorganism(s) identified.

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Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

Lowest concentration of antimicrobial that inhibits visual growth.

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Bacteriostatic

Inhibits growth but does not kill.

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Bactericidal

It is lethal to bacteria.

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Treatment Success

Improve clinical symptoms, normalize lab values.

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Antimicrobial Treatment Failure

Agent has inadequate activity or concentration at site of infection.

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Antimicrobial stewardship programs

Optimizing antimicrobial selection, dosing, route, and duration.

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4 D's of Optimal Antimicrobial Therapy

Right Drug, Right Dose, De-escalation to pathogen-directed therapy, right Duration of therapy.

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Lecture Goal

Achieve goals: describe microbiological classification, identify microorganisms using Gram's, recognize clinical infection, select antimicrobials.

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Formal naming of microorganisms

Naming by genus (e.g., Chlamydia) and species (e.g., trachomatis), with species italicized.

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Gram stain steps

VIAS: Violet, Iodine, Alcohol, Safranin

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Gram-Positive cell wall components

Gram-positives have peptidoglycan and teichoic acids.

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Arrangement of cells

Clusters, chains, or diplococci (pairs).

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Organisms NOT detected by Gram stain

Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and Legionella require special staining.

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Catalase and Coagulase tests

Differential testing for Gram-Positive Cocci.

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MSSA

Methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus

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MRSA

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

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Streptococci classification

Alpha, beta, or non-hemolytic.

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Examples of alpha-hemolytic bacteria

Viridans streptococci, S. pneumoniae.

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Beta-hemolytic bacteria examples

S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae.

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Non-hemolytic bacteria example

Group D strep: S. bovis.

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Peptostreptococci

An anaerobic gram-positive cocci.

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Aerobic Gram + Rods

Listeria monocytogenes and Bacillus spp.

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Anaerobic Gram + Rods

Clostridium spp. and Propionibacterium acnes.

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Aerobic Gram Negative Cocci

Neisseria spp. and Moraxella catarrhalis.

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Anaerobic Gram Negative Cocci

Veillonella spp.

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Anaerobic Gram Negative Rods

Bacteroides fragilis.

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Lactose Positive Aerobic Gram Negative Rods

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, E. Coli, Citrobacter, Serratia.

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Encapsulated Organisms

S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis and H. influenzae.

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Bacteria Characteristics

Unicellular, prokaryotic organisms that divide by fission

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Virus Characteristics

Non-living entities composed of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein capsid, relying entirely on host cells for replication

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Bacteria/Virus Transmission

Inhaled droplets, physical contact, gastrointestinal ingestion

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Fungi Transmission

Spores

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Prion Transmission

Iatrogenic causes, organ transplant, blood transfusion

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Protozoa Transmission

Insect vectors, contaminated food/water, animal contact

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Helminth Transmission

Eggs/larvae passed via stool

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Ectoparasite Transmission

Contact with infected person or belongings

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Bacteria Propagation Site

Can be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular

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Virus Propagation Site

Obligate intracellular

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Fungi Propagation Site

Can be facultative intracellular or extracellular

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Prion Propagation Site

Intracellular, primarily neurons

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Protozoa Propagation Site

Can be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular

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Helminth Propagation

Intracellular or extracellular

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Ectoparasite Propagation

Skin

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Viral Replication

Surface proteins mediate cell entry, replication and production of viral proteins, assembly into virions

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Gram Positive

Purple (peptidoglycan-rich wall)

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Gram Negative

Pink (thin wall, outer membrane with LPS)

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Bacterial Morphology

Cocci (spherical), Bacilli (rods), Spiral

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Biochemical Tests

Catalase, coagulase, lactose fermentation, oxidase

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Atypical Microorganisms

Mycoplasma spp., Chlamydia spp., Legionella spp.

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Encapsulated Microbes

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae

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WBC Count

Multiply the number of WBCs by 1,000.

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ANC Calculation

WBC count × (%segs + %bands)

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Bacterial Infection (WBC)

Increased neutrophils

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Viral Infection (WBC)

Increased lymphocytes

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Fungal Infection (WBC)

Increased monocytes

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Parasitic Infection (WBC)

Increased eosinophils

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Colonization Meaning

Presence of a microorganism without causing disease.

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Non-Infectious Fever

Malignancy, autoimmune diseases, blood transfusions, pulmonary embolism, drugs

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Normal Skin Flora

S. epidermidis and P. acnes

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Normal Nose Flora

Staphylococci, Corynebacterium spp

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Mouth/Throat Flora

Viridans streptococci, oral anaerobes

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GI Tract Flora

Bacteroides fragilis, Clostridium spp., E. coli

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Normal Vagina Flora

Lactobacillus spp

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Study Notes

  • Study notes for Introduction to Infectious Diseases (Integrated Pharmacotherapy 4, Spring 2025).

Key Definitions

  • Infectious disease: Caused by an agent invading a host, harming tissues, and being transmissible.
  • Pathogen: An agent that causes infectious disease.
  • True pathogens: Cause disease in virtually any susceptible host.
  • Opportunistic pathogens: Rarely cause disease in individuals with healthy immune systems.
  • Infection: Pathogen invades and begins to grow within a host (colonizes).
  • Disease: Tissue function is impaired by pathogen invasion and growth.

Pathogen Categories

  • Seven categories of human pathogens exist.
  • Bacteria: Unicellular, prokaryotic organisms dividing by fission.
  • Viruses: Non-living entities with a nucleic acid genome surrounded by a capsid, and possibly a lipid membrane.
  • Fungi: Eukaryotic organisms with rigid cellulose or chitin-based cell walls.
  • Prions: Abnormal host proteins resistant to proteases, promoting conversion of more proteins.
  • Protozoa: Unicellular, flexible eukaryotes lacking cell walls.
  • Helminths: Multicellular invertebrate animals (worms) with differentiated tissues.
  • Ectoparasites: Insects (lice, fleas, bedbugs) or arachnids (mites, ticks, spiders).

Viral Characteristics

  • Viruses: Non-living, consist of genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by proteins (nucleocapsid).
  • Viruses classified as either "active" or "inactive".
  • Viral genetic material: Single or double-stranded DNA or RNA, with varying genome sizes.
  • Number of viral genes: Does not influence virulence.
  • Enveloped viruses: Have a membrane obtained from the host cell during budding.

Viral Replication

  • Surface proteins mediate cell entry.
  • Viral genetic material uses host cell enzymes to replicate and produce viral proteins.
  • The process is different depending on viral characteristics.

Viral Transmission

  • Direct transmission: Aerosols, sexual contact, hand to mouth, hand to eye, mouth to mouth, exchange of contaminated blood.
  • Indirect transmission: Fecal-oral route, fomites.
  • Incidental: Animal to human (bites, rodent contamination).
  • Arthropod vector.

Bacterial Infectious Diseases

  • A primary TBL unit goal: To describe the microbiological classification of microorganisms, and identify organisms based on Gram's stain and other tests
  • Clinicians need to be able to recommend appropriate therapy based on initial laboratory results

Gram's Stain

  • Gram's stain: Developed in 1884 and provides rapid, presumptive bacterial identification.
  • Used by clinicians to select appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy.
  • Acronym for steps of the Gram’s stain: VIAS: Violet, Iodine, Alcohol, Safranin.

Response to Oxygen

  • Strict aerobe: Requires oxygen for ATP generation.
  • Strict anaerobe: Uses fermentation reactions; oxygen is toxic.
  • Facultative anaerobe: Can grow with or without oxygen.

Other Lab tests

  • Includes a rapid testing method used to test multiple pathogens at the same time, PCR, genetic level

Colonization vs. Infection

  • Determine if a microorganism detected means antibiotic is needed, need to determine infection and severity
  • Epithelial body surfaces colonized with microbial flora – normal in healthy people.
  • Carrier state: Potentially pathogenic organisms found as colonizers.
  • Resident flora: Keep out harmful microorganisms, compete for nutrients, produce suppressive byproducts.

Positive Effects of Colonization

  • Normal gastrointestinal flora: Keeps Clostridioides difficile in check, preventing C. difficile infection (CDI).

Negative Effects of Colonization

  • "Normal flora": May cause infection if introduced into a different body location in large numbers (e.g., viridans streptococci causing endocarditis).
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis: May be given before dental work to patients at risk.

Keypoints about colonizers

  • Normal to find in by body site.
  • Antibiotics may eliminate, allowing growth of other organisms.
  • They cause infection in other body sites.
  • Blood, body fluids, bladder, and upper urinary tract are normally sterile.

Signs of infection

  • Include fever and leukocytosis.
  • Non-specific findings: Elevated ESR or biomarkers, loss of glucose control.
  • The diagnosis depends on additional clinical data for the situation.

Fever

  • IDSA definition: A single oral temperature > 101°F or a sustained temperature of > 100.4°F for ≥ 1 hour.
  • The hypothalamus controls body temperature, with circadian rhythm variations.
  • Core body temperature: Measured via tympanic membrane (ear) or rectal route, usually 1 degree F > oral.
  • Axillary temperature: Usually 1 degree F < oral.

Body's febrile response

  • Complex physiologic reaction: Cytokine-mediated rise in core temperature, generation of acute phase reactants, and immune system activation.
  • Treatment: Decisions specific to the individual patient, with consideration of the risks and interference with daily activities
  • Fever beneficial: Enhancing resistance to viral and bacterial infections (studies have found).
  • Fever harmful: Associations in children (seizures) and underlying cardiovascular/pulmonary disorders (increased metabolic demands).
  • Management: Short courses of approved doses are used as a standard.

Drug Fever

  • Often goes unrecognized due to its occurrence and association with illness
  • Occurs in 10% of hospitalized patients
  • The fever is accompanied by a normal, or below normal pulse rate given the temperature

Leukocytosis

  • Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count (normal range: 4,500 – 11,000 / mm³).
  • Complete blood cell count branch diagram values must be multiplied by 1,000
  • The WBC count comes with a "Normal Differential of WBCs" that will give specific types of WBCs in a range
  • The percentage of each cell type equals 100%

Use of clinical practice terms include the frequently used

  • Left-shift refers to the % of cells shifting higher.

Neutropenia Definition

  • ANC < 1,000 cells/mm³
  • Severe neutropenia: ANC < 500 cells/mm³.
  • Risk of infection increases as ANC decreases.
  • Calculate ANC: Total WBC x (% segs + % bands)

Treatment Success

  • Signs of treatment success include an improvement in the patient's clinical symptoms
  • A normalization of WBC, temperature, and radiologic findings
  • A normalization means The patient does not need to remain in the hospital for the entire course of therapy even if IV medications are required.
  • PICC line is placed in patients to continue IV medications while at home

Sepsis/Shock Definitions

  • See table 8 for definitions

Antimicrobial Stewardship

  • 4 D's
    • Right drug
    • Right dose
    • De-escalation to pathogen directed therapy
    • Right duration

How to know what Antimicrobial agent(s) to use?

  • Definitions to know:
    • Spectrum of activity
      • Has broad and narrow definitions
      • Use appropriate spectrums agents to minimize collateral damage
    • Emperic therapy
      • Chosen before determination and antimicrobial therapy
      • Initial therapy is chosen based on an educated "guess"
    • Directed therapy
      • Agent chosen after determination and antimicrobial therapy

Antimicrobial use

  • Judicious use of antimicrobial agents is included in discussion
  • Included in the cost is the antimicrobial agent and the fiscal cost

Use of a high or low grade of oral Bioavalability

  • May be switched from an IV to oral dosage
  • Must be able to absorb oral meds

Treatment Failure reasonings

  • The clinician needs to determine potential reasons with these criteria
    • Must use
    • The wright diagnosis
    • The targeted pathogen
    • Has the immune system activated
    • The drug interactions

Culture and Susceptibility Testing Methods

  • The description of these methods is FYI, but is included for completeness See table 7-11

Lecture Goals

  • The goal of the lecture is to describe the microbiological classification of organisms.
  • Identify microorganisms based on Gram’s stain and laboratory results.
  • Recognize the clinical presentation of a patient with an infection.
  • Select an antimicrobial agent based on patient-specific and drug-specific factors.

Introduction to Microorganisms

  • Scientific naming is done using genus and species names, written in italics, such as Chlamydia trachomatis.

Gram Stain Key Points

  • The Gram’s stain does not detect all microorganisms.
  • When assessing a Gram stain, check for color, morphology, arrangement of cells, epithelial cells, and white blood cells.
  • Morphology includes bacilli (rod-shaped cells), cocci (spherical cells), and spiral or curved forms.
  • Arrangement of cells may be in clusters, chains, or diplococci.
  • Presence of epithelial cells on a Gram stain indicates contamination.
  • White blood cells on sample indicates infection.
  • Preliminary micro results will assist with proper antimicrobial selection.

Atypical Organisms Requiring Special Staining

  • Mycoplasma spp.
  • Chlamydia (Chlamydophilia) spp.
  • Legionella spp.
  • Mycobacterium spp.
  • Nocardia spp.
  • Bartonella spp.

Gram Positive and Negative Bacteria

  • Gram-positive bacteria have peptidoglycan and teichoic acids.
  • Gram-negative bacteria have periplasm, an outer membrane with porins, and lipopolysaccharide (LPS), an endotoxin.

Aerobic Gram Positive Bacteria

  • Aerobic Gram-Positive Cocci are classified using catalase.
  • Catalase-positive bacteria (Staphylococci) are differentiated using coagulase.
  • Coagulase-positive = S. aureus.
  • Coagulase-negative = S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus.
  • Catalase-negative Gram-Positive Cocci (Streptococci and Enterococci) occur in pairs/chains.
  • MSSA: methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus.
  • MRSA: methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

Streptococci types

  • Alpha-hemolytic include Viridans streptococci and S. pneumoniae.
  • Beta-hemolytic include Group A strep (S. pyogenes) and Group B strep (S. agalactiae).
  • Group now own includes Group D strep (S. bovis) and Enterococci.

Anaerobic Gram + Cocci

  • Includes peptostreptococci

Gram + Rods

  • Aerobic:
    • Listeria monocytogenes.
    • Corynebacterium spp. (including C. diphtheriae, C. jeikeium).
    • Lactobacillus spp.
    • Bacillus spp. (B. anthracis, B. cereus).
  • Bacillus spp are spore-forming organisms.
  • Anaerobic:
    • Propionibacterium acnes.
    • Clostridium spp. (C. botulinum, C. difficile, C. perfringens, C. tetani).
    • Clostridium spp are spore-forming organisms.

Gram Negative Cocci

  • Aerobic include Neisseria spp. (N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis) and Moraxella catarrhalis.
  • Anaerobic include Veillonella spp.

Gram Negative Rods

  • Anaerobic:
    • Bacteroides fragilis.
    • Also Fusobacterium spp., Prevotella spp.
  • Aerobic: Several.

Aerobic Gram Negative Rods

  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Campylobacter spp.
  • Lactose-positive: Klebsiella spp., Enterobacter spp., E. Coli, Citrobacter spp., Serratia.
  • Lactose-negative: Proteus spp., Morganella spp., Salmonella spp., Shigella spp., Providencia spp., Serratia marcescens, Acinetobacter spp., Stenotrophomonas maltophilia.
  • Oxidase differentiates which ones are Lactose-negative and Lactose-positive.
  • Glucose non-fermenters: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia.
  • Enterobacteriaceae.

Encapsulated Organisms

  • S. pneumoniae
  • N. meningitidis
  • H. influenzae

Common Organisms by Infection Site

  • Acute Otitis Media/Sinusitis: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis.
  • Meningitis (adults): S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, L. monocytogenes (in neonates, elderly, immunocompromised).
  • Strep Throat: S. pyogenes (GAS).
  • Endocarditis: S. aureus, S. epidermidis (prosthetic valves), Viridans streptococci, S. bovis, Enterococci.
  • Community-acquired pneumonia: S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis.
  • Community-acquired pneumonia (atypical): Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila.
  • Intra-abdominal: Enteric gram negatives (E. coli, Klebsiella), Enterococcus (E. faecalis, E. faecium), Anaerobes (Bacteroides fragilis).
  • Urinary tract infection (cystitis): Enteric gram negatives (E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus), Enterococcus (E. faecalis, E. faecium), S. saprophyticus.
  • Skin (Cellulitis): S. aureus, S. pyogenes.
  • Osteomyelitis: S. aureus.
  • Diabetic Foot: Anaerobes, Enterococcus, Enteric gram negatives, Pseudomonas.

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