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Untitled Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is a reporting issuer?

This is usually a company that is issuing additional securities into the marketplace and a prospectus is normally still required.

What is the right of rescission?

This is the right of the consumer to cancel certain types of loans or agreements.

What is the right of withdrawal?

Investors have this right within 48 hours of the purchase if they need.

What is a take-over bid?

<p>This is when an issuer purchases the securities of another issuer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is underwriting?

<p>This is when you provide advice to the issuer regarding what type of securities to issue, pricing, helping to sell the new securities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is due diligence?

<p>This is what dealer members/RRs must do in every part of business to ensure that their clients are getting the proper service that they deserve.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Duty of Care refer to?

<p>Both B and C</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are ethics?

<p>A set of values or morals that guide individual behavior.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is fiduciary duty?

<p>A higher standard imposed by common law where one person places trust in another's honest intentions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC)?

<p>To oversee the securities industry and regulate the actions of Registered Representatives.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does IIROC Rule 1402 Standards of Conduct require from Registered Representatives?

<p>To observe high standards of ethics and not engage in detrimental business conduct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Know Your Client (KYC) entail?

<p>Understanding your client's situation before making investment recommendations.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Know Your Product (KYP)?

<p>Understanding the products you recommend to clients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is suitability in the context of investment?

<p>It refers to a client's financial situation, investment knowledge, objectives, time horizon, and risk tolerance.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are end values?

<p>Values that define personal goals that may be years away.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an ethical dilemma?

<p>Situations requiring a choice between two or more conflicting moral options.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Front Page Test in ethical decision making?

<p>It evaluates whether a person's reputation would be harmed if their actions became public.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Legal Test in ethical decision making?

<p>A test to check if a person's actions are illegal or violate industry rules.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are means values?

<p>The actions we take daily to achieve our goals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the tone at the top?

<p>A climate of ethical behavior that promotes trust throughout an organization.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is ethical relativism?

<p>The belief that moral principles are situational and vary between individuals.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do ethical dilemma solutions aim to address?

<p>They often result in various ethical thinking methods like end based, rule based, and personalistic based ethical thinking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Canadian Investor Protection Fund (CIPF)?

<p>A fund that covers client accounts of dealer members, covering losses from insolvency.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Canadian Securities Administrators (CSA)?

<p>To improve, coordinate, and harmonize the regulation of Canadian capital markets.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primary distribution?

<p>The sale of a new issue of stocks or bonds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a registrant in the context of securities regulation?

<p>A person maintaining the requirements for registration to provide securities services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does 'Secondary Trading' refer to?

<p>Buying and selling existing securities on an exchange</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a Self Regulatory Organization (SRO)?

<p>An industry organization that regulates its own members and enforces conformity with securities legislation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do Universal Market Integrity Rules (UMIR) aim to promote?

<p>Fair and orderly markets.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO) do?

<p>It serves as the governing body for global securities regulatory agencies.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Financial Stability Board (FSB)?

<p>An organization that assesses and addresses vulnerabilities in the financial system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)?

<p>It regulates securities firms and enhances compliance across borders.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Canada Deposit Insurance Corporation (CDIC)?

<p>A federal Crown Corporation providing deposit insurance for members.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does Canada's Anti-Spam Legislation (CASL) require?

<p>Businesses must obtain consent to send commercial electronic messages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes a conflict of interest?

<p>A situation where the interests of a client and a registrant diverge.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by cybersecurity in financial compliance?

<p>Protecting against cyber attacks that threaten operational integrity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a discount broker?

<p>An investment representative role offering reduced commission services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the National Do Not Call List (NDNCL)?

<p>A list establishing rules for telemarketing calls.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the fit and proper test?

<p>A suitability test for individuals seeking IIROC approval.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information must fund facts contain?

<p>Key information about each mutual fund's class or series.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines an Investment Representative?

<p>A registered individual who sells securities and provides client services.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does PIPEDA govern?

<p>Rules regarding the collection and use of personal information in commerce.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a Portfolio Manager's role?

<p>To provide discretionary management for managed accounts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an unsolicited order?

<p>Direct orders to buy or sell securities given to registered representatives.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does continuing education (CE) ensure?

<p>Proficiency in knowledge and skills for ongoing licensing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is IIROC Note 11-0349 about?

<p>Regulations regarding the use of social media by dealer members.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a beneficial owner?

<p>The individual financially responsible for the account.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a cash account?

<p>An account requiring full payment before securities purchases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is client discovery?

<p>A process to observe client behavior for signs of money laundering.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does delivery against payment (DAP) refer to?

<p>An account type where securities purchase occurs with payment on settlement date.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a discretionary account?

<p>An account where a dealer member can make decisions without constant client approval.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is insider trading?

<p>The illegal use of non-public information by company insiders.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a managed account?

<p>An account managed continuously by a dealer member under a signed agreement.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines a margin account?

<p>An account requiring partial payment for securities purchases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a politically exposed person (PEP)?

<p>A client in a position of public trust or their close associates.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a power of attorney?

<p>To grant legal authority for someone to act on another's behalf.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA)?

<p>Regulations that registered representatives must follow for reporting responsibilities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a red flag in a client relationship?

<p>Indicators suggesting potential money laundering or improper activities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the new account application form (NAAF)?

<p>A document required to open a new client account.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a receipt against payment (RAP) account?

<p>An account functioning like DAP, where securities are sold directly by clients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are registered accounts?

<p>Accounts registered with the CRA including RRSPs and TFSAs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a Pro account?

<p>An account for employees or family members of a dealer member.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a relationship disclosure document outline?

<p>The nature of the account relationship and services for the client.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a portfolio record?

<p>A document showing each client's current holdings.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a security cross reference?

<p>An alphabetical list of all securities held by a firm's clients.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who are accredited investors?

<p>Entities and individuals meeting specific requirements to purchase securities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a best efforts deal?

<p>A distribution of new securities with no guarantee of sales.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a bought deal?

<p>A distribution where the dealer purchases securities for resale.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does crowdfunding enable companies to do?

<p>Raise capital by collecting small amounts of funding from many investors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is early warning in securities?

<p>A signal issued prior to a takeover bid.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are exchange-traded funds (ETFs)?

<p>Investment products that track an index and are traded on exchanges.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the exempt market?

<p>A capital market segment with restricted participation based on specified criteria.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the final prospectus?

<p>The complete disclosure document for an offering of securities.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an initial public offering (IPO)?

<p>The first issuance of a company's securities to the market.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines an institutional customer?

<p>A customer with securities under management exceeding $10 million.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an issuer bid?

<p>When a company repurchases its own shares from the market.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are principal-protected notes (PPNs)?

<p>Fixed income securities guaranteeing the return of the initial investment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are private placements?

<p>Securities offerings that are sold privately rather than through public markets.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a prospectus?

<p>A legal document required for securities offerings.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a red herring prospectus?

<p>A preliminary prospectus indicating it is not final.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Duty of Care

  • Obligation of registered representatives (RRs) to act honestly, in good faith, and professionally.
  • Requires RRs to provide advice based on skills and knowledge, with a standard of care that is not perfection.
  • Emphasizes two aspects: suitability and fiduciary duty.

Ethics

  • Set of values or morals guiding individual behavior based on societal standards of right and wrong.
  • Continuous examination of choices and decisions within moral principles, necessary for navigating complex business situations.

Fiduciary Duty

  • Higher standard than the duty of care, imposed by common law.
  • Exists when trust is placed in another with greater authority or expertise.
  • Non-compliance can lead to civil litigation regarding investment advice.

Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC)

  • National self-regulatory organization overseeing the securities industry in Canada.
  • Regulates actions and conduct of RRs and ensures compliance with ethical standards.

IIROC Rule 1402 Standards of Conduct

  • Outlines expectations for RRs, including high ethical standards and the prohibition of negligent behavior.
  • Requires adherence to legal and regulatory obligations, promoting investor confidence.

Know Your Client (KYC)

  • Obligation for RRs to understand a client's circumstances prior to making investment recommendations.
  • Ensures suitable investment advice by maintaining detailed client records.

Know Your Product (KYP)

  • Obligation for RRs to understand the investment products being recommended.
  • Requires knowledge of product structure, performance, and market conditions.

Registered Representative (RR)

  • Permitted to offer advice on equity and fixed income securities; must meet certification and ethical standards.
  • Responsibilities include KYC, KYP, and maintaining client confidentiality while avoiding conflicts of interest.

Suitability

  • Relates to a client's financial situation, investment knowledge, objectives, time horizon, and risk tolerance.
  • Ensures appropriateness of investment recommendations made to clients.

End Values

  • Define long-term personal goals; examples include accomplishment, security, and social recognition.

Ethical Dilemma

  • Situations presenting two or more choices requiring ethical decision-making.
  • Two categories: right vs. wrong issues and right vs. right dilemmas; the latter involves conflicting core values.

Front Page Test

  • Part of the ethical decision-making process focusing on personal reputation.
  • Evaluates potential damage to reputation if decisions were made public.
  • Evaluates whether a person's actions are illegal or violate industry rules or terms.

Means Values

  • Daily actions undertaken to achieve goals; influence decision-making.
  • Examples include ambition and competence.

Mom Test

  • Considers comfort in revealing a decision to important personal figures, reflecting potential ethical outcomes.

Morals

  • Society's established rules of conduct based on reason; guide decision-making but are not established by authorities.

Unified Value System

  • Alignment of end values and means values; crucial for avoiding conflicts in values leading to unethical behavior.

Values

  • Cultural or individual beliefs regarding the worth of ideas and behaviors, influencing life goals and decisions.

Laws

  • Not synonymous with ethics but emerge from societal values; essential for allowing structured coexistence.

Tone at the Top

  • Establishes a climate of ethical behavior within firms; influences conduct throughout the organization.

Ethical Relativism

  • Concept that denies the existence of universal moral principles, emphasizing personal interpretation of right and wrong.

Types of Ethical Dilemmas

  • Categories include truth vs. loyalty, individual vs. group rights, short term vs. long term considerations, and justice vs. mercy.

Ethical Decision-Making Process

  • Steps include recognizing moral issues, determining stakeholders, gathering facts, and testing ethical dilemmas before making a decision.

Ethical Dilemma Solutions

  • Outcomes may include various ethical thinking approaches such as end-based thinking (greatest good), rule-based thinking, and social contract-based thinking.

Administrator

  • Securities regulatory authority in each Canadian province responsible for registration and regulation of market activities.

Canadian Investor Protection Fund (CIPF)

  • Established in 1969 to protect client assets from dealer insolvency but does not cover poor investment performance.

Canadian Securities Administrators (CSA)

  • An organization aimed at harmonizing capital market regulation in Canada, working to protect investors and ensure efficient markets.

Dealer Member

  • Brokers that facilitate buying and selling securities for investors.

Designated Stock Exchange

  • Only listed securities on these exchanges can be held in registered accounts; must meet specific operational and regulatory standards.

Disclosure

  • Fundamental principle of Canadian securities regulation requiring full transparency of material facts before public securities sales.

Financial Transactions and Reports Analysis Centre of Canada (FINTRAC)

  • Enforces compliance with anti-money laundering laws for securities dealers in Canada.

Integrated Market Enforcement Teams (IMETs)

  • Established to enhance capabilities in detecting and investigating capital markets fraud in cooperation with various agencies.

Joint Serious Offences Team (JSOT)

  • Investigates serious violations of securities law; collaborates with multiple law enforcement agencies.

Money Laundering

  • Process of converting illegal funds into legitimate assets through three stages: placement, layering, and integration.

Mutual Fund Dealers Association (MFDA)

  • Self-regulatory organization overseeing mutual fund distribution in Canada, separate from mutual fund regulation itself.

National Instrument (NI)

  • Harmonized regulatory instruments adopted by CSA jurisdictions, governing securities markets.

Passport System

  • CSA tool to streamline regulatory filings across jurisdictions, promoting mutual reliance.

Primary Distribution

  • Initial sale of stocks or bonds from an issuing entity as a means of raising capital.

Registrant

  • Individuals maintaining licensing requirements for securities registration and operation.

Secondary Distribution

  • Sale of previously issued securities, proceeds going to existing shareholders instead of the issuing entity.

Secondary Trading

  • Trading of securities after their initial distribution, occurs mainly through stock exchanges.

Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO)

  • Industry bodies with regulatory powers, ensuring member compliance with securities legislation.

Universal Market Integrity Rules (UMIR)

  • Set of trading rules promoting fair markets and compliance monitoring by IIROC.

International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO)

  • Governing body with over 200 global members, including various Canadian regulators.

Financial Stability Board (FSB)

  • Organization assessing vulnerabilities in the financial system and promoting international cooperation on financial stability.

Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)

  • U.S. counterpart to IIROC, enhancing cross-border cooperation in security regulation and oversight.### Regulatory Entities and Legislations
  • The largest independent regulator for U.S. securities firms ensures compliance and protects investors.
  • Canada Deposit Insurance Corporation (CDIC) provides deposit insurance for up to $100,000 per depositor against bank failures.
  • Canada's Anti-Spam Legislation (CASL) mandates consent for sending commercial electronic messages, enforced by the CRTC.

Financial Concepts and Practices

  • Conflict of interest arises when client and registrant interests diverge, potentially harming the client relationship.
  • Cybersecurity is critical in financial compliance, protecting against reputational damage and operational risks.
  • Investment representatives can serve as discount brokers or sales assistants in their roles.

Client Accounts and Transactions

  • Cash accounts require full payment for transactions; subject to Cash Account Rule.
  • Discretionary accounts allow dealers to make investment decisions without continuous client permission.
  • Managed accounts involve ongoing discretionary authority granted by the client to the dealer member.
  • Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) governs the handling of personal data by businesses.
  • Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA) obliges RRs to report suspicious activities; violations can lead to severe penalties.
  • The fit and proper test assesses individuals seeking IIROC approval based on integrity and competence.

Investment Tools and Strategies

  • Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) track an index and typically have lower fees than mutual funds.
  • Private placements involve directly selling securities to investors meeting specific criteria under provincial law.
  • Principal-protected notes (PPNs) guarantee investors a minimum return, irrespective of underlying asset performance.

Documentation and Record-Keeping

  • New account application form (NAAF) collects essential details before account setup, functioning as a contract for services.
  • Relationship disclosure documents outline services offered and associated fees, enhancing transparency for clients.
  • Security cross-reference lists all securities held by clients, facilitating communication regarding important developments.

Market Operations and Transactions

  • Initial public offerings (IPOs) mark the first issuance of securities by a company to the public.
  • Best efforts deals involve a dealer acting as an agent, with no guarantee of sales.
  • Bought deals entail the dealer purchasing securities upfront, taking on the risk of resale.

Investor Rights and Protections

  • Consumers hold the right of rescission to cancel certain agreements and loans.
  • Investors have a right of withdrawal within 48 hours of purchase, ensuring the opportunity to reconsider decisions.

Risk and Due Diligence

  • Politically exposed persons (PEPs) are clients in prominent public positions, requiring heightened scrutiny due to potential risks.
  • Due diligence obligations ensure that dealer members provide clients with appropriate and thorough service.

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