Human Reproductive and Respiratory Physiology Quiz

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Questions and Answers

What is primarily required for a confirmed cancer diagnosis?

Physical examination and imaging

Genetic testing and blood cultures

Tissue biopsy and microscopic examination (correct)

Blood test and patient history

What may be the first symptom of endothelial injury in men?

Loss of libido

Penile erection issues (correct)

Increased spermatogenesis

Emotional instability

Which hormone is most critical for libido and spermatogenesis in men?

Progesterone

Testosterone (correct)

Estrogen

Luteinizing hormone

What percentage of infertility cases are attributed to ovulatory disorders?

40% Signup and view all the answers

What factor primarily impacts the regularity of ovulation and quality of ova with age?

Increasing age Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a major contributor to blockages within the reproductive tract?

Endometriosis Signup and view all the answers

What term has replaced 'venereal disease' in medical terminology?

Sexually transmitted infection (STI) Signup and view all the answers

What condition accounts for approximately 20% of infertility cases?

Abnormalities of the reproductive tract Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of interleukins in obstructive pulmonary diseases?

To cause airway damage and mucus production Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT strongly correlated with persistent HPV infection?

Healthy diet Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the early asthmatic response?

Antigen exposure to bronchial mucosa Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of impaired expiration in asthma?

Increased work-of-breathing Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of asthma?

Allergic asthma Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of air trapping in obstructive pulmonary diseases?

Increased dyspnea Signup and view all the answers

What initiates immune activation in the early asthmatic response?

Antigen presentation to T-helper cells Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant characteristic of obstructive pulmonary diseases?

Increased work of breathing Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the lifestyle factors that can trigger acid reflux?

Obesity Signup and view all the answers

What pH level is typically associated with the highly acidic gastric contents in acid reflux?

2 Signup and view all the answers

Which type of ulcer is more frequently associated with H.pylori infection?

Duodenal ulcers Signup and view all the answers

What role does H.pylori play in duodenal ulcers?

It activates immune cells and damages the mucosa. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a long-term consequence of reflux esophagitis?

Adenocarcinoma Signup and view all the answers

What condition may precipitate the formation of gastric ulcers?

Chronic gastritis Signup and view all the answers

What effect does increased duodenal acid have when chronic ulceration occurs?

Metaplasia in the duodenum Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary defect associated with gastric ulcers?

Increased mucosal barrier permeability to hydrogen ions Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant difference between gastric ulcers and duodenal ulcers regarding cancer risk?

Gastric ulcers have an increased cancer risk. Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is typical for pain associated with duodenal ulcers?

Pain occurs 2-3 hours after eating. Signup and view all the answers

What is a common factor contributing to inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis?

Loss of mucin leading to increased permeability. Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is commonly associated with severe inflammation in ulcerative colitis?

Frequent diarrhea with small amounts of blood. Signup and view all the answers

Which inflammatory mediator is NOT typically involved in the inflammatory response of ulcerative colitis?

Prostaglandin E1 Signup and view all the answers

At what age range does the onset of gastric ulcers typically occur?

50-70 years of age Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is correct regarding the family history of individuals with duodenal ulcers?

Family history is often positive. Signup and view all the answers

What effect do NSAIDs have on mucosal synthesis related to ulcers?

Decrease mucosal synthesis of prostaglandins. Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of surfactant in the lungs of premature infants?

To separate liquid molecules and decrease alveolar surface tension Signup and view all the answers

What genetic mutation is primarily responsible for cystic fibrosis?

Mutation in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

Parental smoking Signup and view all the answers

Which pathogen is most commonly associated with bronchiolitis in children under 2 years of age?

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Signup and view all the answers

What condition is primarily characterized by the reflux of stomach contents leading to esophagitis?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is true?

Infants with low-birth weight are at higher risk for SIDS. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT related to the severity of bronchiolitis in premature infants?

History of asthma Signup and view all the answers

What leads to the thick, dehydrated mucus characteristic of cystic fibrosis?

Improper transport of chloride and water across epithelial membranes Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of postprandial vomiting in infants?

Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT associated with an increased risk of cleft lip and/or palate?

Exposure to radiation during pregnancy Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical structures are absent in Hirschsprung disease, leading to functional obstruction?

Meissner and Auerbach plexuses Signup and view all the answers

What primarily causes the pyloric sphincter to become enlarged and inflexible in IHPS?

Thickened muscle fibers Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a potential link to infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

Bottle feeding Signup and view all the answers

What condition results in the distension of the proximal colon due to lack of neural stimulation?

Megacolon Signup and view all the answers

Clefts involving the palate may result from which of the following factors?

Familial predisposition Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the pyloric sphincter in IHPS is accurate?

Muscle layers may become hypertrophied Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of cystocele?

Childbirth trauma Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is NOT commonly cited as a risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse?

High levels of physical fitness Signup and view all the answers

What is rectocele primarily associated with?

Descent of the rectum into the vaginal canal Signup and view all the answers

What treatment is commonly required for a large enterocele?

Surgical intervention Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions may lead to increased intra-abdominal pressure, contributing to pelvic organ prolapse?

Refractory constipation Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes a spermatocele?

Benign cyst in the epididymis filled with milky fluid Signup and view all the answers

Which of these conditions is associated with damage potentially caused by childbirth?

Cystocele Signup and view all the answers

What symptom may be exacerbated by activities such as sneezing or vigorous exercise in women with pelvic organ prolapse?

Increased bulging and descent of pelvic organs Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of infected men may never show symptoms of gonorrhea?

5% to 10% Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant risk group for chlamydia infections?

Individuals younger than 26 Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is correct regarding the transmission of gonorrhea during childbirth?

It can cause serious eye infections in the infant. Signup and view all the answers

How is human papillomavirus (HPV) commonly transmitted?

Via direct contact with lesions or infected secretions Signup and view all the answers

What condition may result from untreated gonorrhea in an infant?

Bilateral corneal ulceration Signup and view all the answers

What strategy is recommended for preventing HPV acquisition in young adults?

Vaccination against HPV Signup and view all the answers

Which infection is often asymptomatic and a leading cause of preventable infertility?

Chlamydia Signup and view all the answers

What is the estimated annual occurrence of unreported chlamydia infections?

1 million infections Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between a spermatocele and a hydrocele regarding the appearance of the fluid upon aspiration?

Hydrocele fluid appears clear and yellow. Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is most commonly associated with the development of ovarian cancer?

Genetic predisposition involving BRCA mutations. Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the BRCA2 gene in the context of breast cancer?

To repair damaged DNA. Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is commonly associated with lower urinary tract obstruction in males?

Urinary hesitancy. Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the classification of ovarian cancer is accurate?

Current evidence suggests it may also arise from other tissues like fallopian tubes. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for breast cancer?

Regular physical exercise. Signup and view all the answers

What is a likely consequence of having excess adipose tissue in breast cancer patients?

Promotion of breast cancer cell proliferation. Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic feature of a malignant ovarian tumor during its early stages?

It is often diagnosed after metastasis occurs. Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of the underdevelopment of the vomer and nasal septum in cleft lip and palate conditions?

Free communication between the nasal and oral cavities Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of developing infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS)?

Bottle feeding Signup and view all the answers

What primary issue arises due to the absence of parasympathetic plexuses in Hirschsprung disease?

Failure to propel feces through the colon Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by thickened muscle fibers in the pyloric sphincter?

Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis Signup and view all the answers

What is one genetic or environmental factor associated with cleft lip and palate?

Previous family history of cleft conditions Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical change is seen in IHPS that contributes to the obstruction?

Narrowing of the pyloric opening Signup and view all the answers

Which lifestyle factor may increase the risk of cleft lip and palate?

Smoking cigarettes Signup and view all the answers

What might lead to the term 'megacolon' in Hirschsprung disease?

Failure of neural crest cells to migrate Signup and view all the answers

What is a unique feature of Crohn's disease compared to ulcerative colitis?

Common occurrence of small intestinal malabsorption Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the lesions in Crohn's disease?

Skip lesions are mixed with uninflamed areas Signup and view all the answers

Which complication is more commonly associated with Crohn's disease compared to ulcerative colitis?

Strictures and obstruction Signup and view all the answers

How does the incidence of family history differ between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease?

More common in Crohn's disease Signup and view all the answers

What is the main pathological difference in the layers affected by ulcerative colitis compared to Crohn's disease?

Mucosal layer involved in ulcerative colitis Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is less common in Crohn's disease than in ulcerative colitis?

Bloody stools Signup and view all the answers

What defines the appearance of lesions typically associated with Crohn's disease?

Cobblestone appearance with ulceration Signup and view all the answers

Where in the gastrointestinal tract can Crohn's disease manifest?

Anywhere from the mouth to the perianal area Signup and view all the answers

What physiological change is primarily caused by hypoxemia in respiratory conditions?

Increased pH leading to respiratory alkalosis Signup and view all the answers

What is a major consequence of severe bronchospasms in status asthmaticus?

Air trapping leading to hyperexpansion Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes chronic bronchitis?

Hypersecretion of mucus with a chronic productive cough Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about emphysema is true?

It is characterized by abnormal enlargement of air spaces due to alveolar wall destruction. Signup and view all the answers

What causes cor pulmonale in pulmonary disorders?

Hypercapnia and hypoxemia causing pulmonary vasoconstriction Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical feature of emphysema related to chest appearance?

Barrel chest due to air trapping Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the ciliary function in chronic bronchitis?

It becomes impaired, reducing the ability to clear mucus. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of respiratory acidosis?

Hyperventilation Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea?

Pelvic inflammatory disease Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is most commonly associated with endometriosis?

Dysuria Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of primary dysmenorrhea?

Excessive prostaglandin production Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following can be a clinical manifestation of endometriosis?

Progressive dysmenorrhea Signup and view all the answers

What is the usual site of ectopic endometrial tissue in endometriosis?

Lungs Signup and view all the answers

What causes uterine hypercontractility in primary dysmenorrhea?

Excessive prostaglandins Signup and view all the answers

What term best describes the painful intercourse associated with endometriosis?

Dyspareunia Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common site for ectopic endometrial tissue in endometriosis?

Spinal column Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of prolonged exposure to supersaturated bile on gallbladder motility?

Decreased motility and incomplete emptying Signup and view all the answers

What pathological process can lead to acute pancreatitis following gallstone obstruction?

Reflux of bile acid into the pancreatic duct Signup and view all the answers

How does sustained hypercalcemia affect the activation of trypsin in the pancreas?

It accelerates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin Signup and view all the answers

What structural issue leads to a cleft lip (CL) in newborns?

Inadequate fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process Signup and view all the answers

What part of the mouth is affected by a cleft palate?

Soft palate and may extend to the alveolar ridge Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following may complicate the presence of a cleft lip?

Missing or malformed teeth along the cleft line Signup and view all the answers

Which is a potential physiological response due to inflammation in acute pancreatitis?

Increased recruitment of neutrophils Signup and view all the answers

What effect can cleft palate have on the alignment of dental structures?

Potential misalignment of teeth and jaw development Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common intrahepatic cause of portal hypertension?

Vascular remodeling with shunts Signup and view all the answers

What physiological change primarily results in the formation of esophageal varices during portal hypertension?

Increased pressure in the portal vein Signup and view all the answers

How does ascites affect the availability of body fluid for physiological functions?

Decreases the amount of usable body fluid Signup and view all the answers

What biochemical alteration primarily leads to hepatic encephalopathy?

Toxins accumulating in the brain Signup and view all the answers

What process leads to the formation of gallstones in the biliary tract?

Impaired metabolism of cholesterol and bilirubin Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of capillary hydrostatic pressure in the development of ascites due to portal hypertension?

It exceeds capillary oncotic pressure, pushing water into the peritoneal cavity Signup and view all the answers

What structure involves distended collateral veins and is associated with prolonged pressure in the portal vein?

Esophageal varices Signup and view all the answers

What complication occurs when ammonia accumulates in the body due to liver dysfunction?

Development of hepatic encephalopathy Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of increased pulmonary arterial pressure on the right ventricle?

Right-sided heart failure Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of tobacco smoke exposure in lung cancer development?

Progression from metaplasia to carcinoma in situ Signup and view all the answers

Which type of lung cancer is typically located centrally near the hila?

Squamous cell carcinoma Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of pneumoconiosis?

Bacterial infection Signup and view all the answers

Which feature distinguishes small cell lung carcinoma from large cell carcinoma?

It has the worst prognosis of all lung cancers Signup and view all the answers

What are the three main components of the triad of Virchow associated with pulmonary embolism?

Venous stasis, coagulopathy, endothelial injury Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following contributes primarily to airway obstruction in pediatric obstructive apnea syndrome (OSAS)?

Upper airway soft tissue obstruction Signup and view all the answers

In which lung cancer type does pulmonary adenocarcinoma develop through a stepwise progression?

Non-small cell lung cancer Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes large cell carcinomas in the context of lung cancer?

They exhibit rapid growth and early metastasis. Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary risk factors for developing lung cancer?

Genetic predisposition combined with environmental toxins Signup and view all the answers

What is the common symptom associated with large squamous cell lung tumors?

Hemoptysis Signup and view all the answers

What defines the condition of cor pulmonale?

Right ventricle hypertrophy and dilation Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom presented by individuals with large cell carcinomas?

Extensive formation of granulomas Signup and view all the answers

What stage process is most lung cancer characterized by?

Progression through areas of chronic inflammation Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true about the treatment for pneumoconiosis?

It primarily focuses on managing symptoms Signup and view all the answers

What is a common impact of pediatric obstructive apnea syndrome on children during sleep?

Waking due to oxygen desaturation and hypercapnia Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consequence of untreated intussusception?

Bowel perforation Signup and view all the answers

Which demographic factor contributes significantly to the prevalence of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in older adults?

Immune system efficiency Signup and view all the answers

What is a common clinical manifestation of painful bladder syndrome/interstitial cystitis?

Frequent or urgent need to urinate Signup and view all the answers

Which causative organism is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections, particularly in females?

Escherichia coli Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely outcome of chronic inflammation in painful bladder syndrome?

Fibrosis of the bladder wall Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is typical for the pain experienced in painful bladder syndrome?

Severe and chronic Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is significant in the difficulty of diagnosing urinary tract infections in older adults?

Vague symptoms like confusion Signup and view all the answers

What anatomical feature contributes to the higher risk of UTIs in females compared to males?

Proximity of the urethra to the anus Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Exam 4 Fall 2024 Adv Pathophysiology

Exam opens Tuesday, December 10th at 8 AM Central Time and closes Friday, December 13th at 8 AM Central Time.
Scores will be posted by Saturday, December 14th at 5 PM.
Exam covers Chapters 25, 26, 27, 35, 36, 38, 39, 41, and 42.
Average exam score of 79.5% required to pass the course. Remaining points from assignments and discussions will add to the final grade.

Alterations in the Female Reproductive System

Hormonal and Menstrual Alterations:
- Primary dysmenorrhea results from excessive endometrial prostaglandin production.
- Elevated prostaglandin levels lead to uterine hypercontractility, reduced blood flow, and nerve hypersensitivity, resulting in painful periods.
- Secondary dysmenorrhea arises from pelvic pathologies like endometriosis, endometritis, uterine fibroids, polyps, tumors, ovarian cysts, or intrauterine devices (IUDs).
Endometriosis:
- Presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus (ectopic).
- Common sites include the pelvic peritoneum, ovaries, uterosacral ligaments, and occasionally the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, diaphragm, abdomen, and pericardium.
- Exact cause unknown.
- Symptoms are variable, including progressive dysmenorrhea, dysuria (painful urination), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), constipation, and abnormal vaginal bleeding.
- High risk for infertility and certain cancers, particularly ovarian cancer.
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS):
- Unknown underlying cause, suspected genetic basis.
- Characterized by at least two of three features: irregular ovulation, elevated androgens (e.g., testosterone), and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.
- Hyperandrogenism and ovulatory dysfunction are key features.
- Elevated androgens affect follicular development.
- Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is decreased, impacting egg production.
- Often associated with glucose intolerance/insulin resistance (IR) which worsens hyperandrogenism.
- Obesity exacerbates IR and the severity of PCOS symptoms.

Alterations of the Pulmonary System

Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases: Characterized by lung inflammation, cytokine release, and mucus production. Airway obstruction is worse during expiration.
Asthma:
- Early asthmatic response triggered by antigen exposure to bronchial mucosa, activating immune cells (T-helper cells), leading to IgE production and release of inflammatory mediators (histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes). These mediators cause capillary permeability, mucosal edema, bronchial smooth muscle contraction, and mucus secretion, leading to airway narrowing.
- Late asthmatic response involves neuropeptide release, further increasing hyperresponsiveness, and potentially leading to hyperinflation and respiratory alkalosis (decreasing PaCO2 and increasing pH).
- Status Asthmaticus is a severely progressive condition with persistent obstruction and increasing CO2 retention.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD):
- Two major types: chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
- Chronic bronchitis is characterized by chronic inflammation and mucus production.
- Emphysema involves the destruction of alveolar walls and enlargement of air spaces.
Restrictive Lung Diseases: Characterized by decreased lung compliance, the effort required to expand the lungs.
- Examples include aspiration, pulmonary edema, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and pneumoconiosis.
- Causes include inhalation of inorganic dust (silicosis, asbestos, coal), leading to inflammation and impaired lung function.

Alterations of the Digestive Function

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD):
- Acid and pepsin reflux from the stomach into the esophagus causing inflammation (esophagitis).
- Caused by abnormalities in lower esophageal sphincter (LES) function and gastric emptying.
Peptic Ulcer Disease:
- Duodenal ulcers are more common, often caused by Helicobacter pylori infection or NSAID use.
- Helicobacter pylori increases duodenal acid and impairs bicarbonate production, resulting in mucosal damage.
Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate: Common craniofacial malformations in newborns. Results from incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary processes during embryonic development.

Alterations of the Renal and Urinary Tract Systems

Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Common cause is E. coli, particularly in females due to anatomical structure. UTI is challenging to diagnose in older adults due to vague symptoms.
Painful Bladder Syndrome/Interstitial Cystitis (PBS/IC): Often associated with other chronic disorders, PBS/IC is a chronic bladder pain disorder with a poorly understood cause.
Nephrolithiasis (Kidney Stones):
- Characterized by crystals, primarily calcium oxalate, in urine.
- Formation is caused by increased mineral concentration in urine, lack of inhibitors, and other factors.
Acute Glomerulonephritis (AG): Glomerular inflammation caused by immune reactions, most commonly involving immune complex deposition. Clinically presents with hematuria, proteinuria, and renal dysfunction.
Chronic Kidney Failure (CKD): Characterized by progressive and irreversible loss of kidney function, often associated with systemic diseases like diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
Acute Kidney Injury (AKI): A sudden decline in renal function, can be caused by decreased perfusions, vascular dysfunction, or nephrotoxic substances.
Vesicoureteral Reflux (VUR): A condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureters, often associated with UTIs and resultant kidney problems in children.

Other Systems

Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (IHPS): Narrowing and obstruction of the pylorus, commonly causing postprandial vomiting in infants.
Hirschsprung Disease: Absence of parasympathetic nerve plexuses (Meissner and Auerbach plexuses) in the colon, leading to functional obstruction. Common in newborns/infants.
Intussusception: Telescoping of one portion of the intestine into another, often occurring in the ileocecal valve.
Cirrhosis: Irreversible scarring of the liver, often from chronic liver injury (e.g., alcohol).
Nonalcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD): Infiltration of liver cells with fat, typically associated with obesity, and often a precursor to liver problems.
Portal Hypertension: Increased pressure in the portal venous system, usually due to liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis).
Cystic Fibrosis: Inherited disorder resulting in thickened mucus production, impacting digestive and respiratory systems in affected individuals.

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Test your knowledge on human reproductive health and respiratory physiology with this quiz. Explore key concepts such as infertility, hormonal roles, and asthma mechanisms. This quiz will help reinforce your understanding of these important biological processes.