Host Defenses and Innate Immunities

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Questions and Answers

Which of the following represents the first line of defense against pathogens?

  • T cell activation
  • Physical and chemical barriers (correct)
  • Inflammation
  • Antibody production

How do genetic differences contribute to variations in susceptibility to pathogens?

  • By influencing the availability of nutrients required for pathogen growth.
  • By influencing the presence or absence of host receptors that pathogens use to adhere to cells. (correct)
  • By affecting the efficiency of antibody production.
  • By altering the rate of pathogen replication inside the host.

Which of the following statements best describes the function of pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs)?

  • They are receptors on host cells that bind to molecules unique to pathogens. (correct)
  • They are structures on pathogens that stimulate an immune response.
  • They are antibodies produced by the host that neutralize pathogens.
  • They are enzymes secreted by pathogens to degrade host tissues.

How does the body differentiate between self and non-self in the immune system?

<p>By recognizing molecules shared by microorganisms but not found on host cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of hematopoiesis in the immune response?

<p>It generates new red and white blood cells, including immune cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key characteristic of pluripotent stem cells during hematopoiesis?

<p>They can differentiate into any type of blood cell. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately compares T cells and B cells?

<p>B cells produce antibodies, whereas T cells control immune responses and kill foreign cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do monocytes contribute to the immune response?

<p>They mature into macrophages and dendritic cells, which phagocytose pathogens and present antigens. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the lymphatic system in the immune response?

<p>To provide an auxiliary route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system and act as a drain-off system for the inflammatory response. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the primary function of lymph nodes?

<p>Filtration of lymph to remove pathogens and initiation of adaptive immune responses (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the thymus?

<p>Maturation and differentiation of T cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the spleen contribute to immune function?

<p>It filters circulating blood to remove worn-out red blood cells and pathogens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following processes is mediated by cytokines?

<p>All early immune responses, including inflammation and fever (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is vasodilation an important component of the inflammatory response?

<p>It allows immune cells to migrate out of blood vessels and into the affected tissue and causes redness and warmth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does chemotaxis contribute to the inflammatory response?

<p>It attracts immune cells to the site of injury using chemical signals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an endogenous pyrogen that induces fever?

<p>Interleukin-1 (IL-1) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is fever considered a beneficial defense mechanism against pathogens?

<p>It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms and reduces the availability of iron needed by bacteria. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of phagocytes in the second line of defense?

<p>To ingest and eliminate particulate matter, microbes, and injured cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Toll-like receptors (TLRs) contribute to phagocytosis?

<p>They facilitate the recognition and binding of phagocytes to pathogens. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during phagolysosome formation?

<p>Lysosomes fuse with the phagosome, delivering antimicrobial substances to digest the pathogen. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of interferon?

<p>To induce antiviral proteins in cells and inhibit expression of cancer genes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the genetic variation in a population contribute to the range of defenses against infections?

<p>Genetic variation can provide some individuals with resistance to infections, due to differences in receptors that microbes use to adhere to host cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Consider a scenario where a person's bone marrow is damaged due to radiation exposure. What is the most likely consequence of this damage on their immune system?

<p>A decreased production of immune cells, impairing their ability to fight infections. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has a parasitic worm infection. Which type of leukocyte would be most actively involved in eliminating this parasite?

<p>Eosinophils (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual experiences an allergic reaction. Which cells and chemical mediators are most directly involved in this immediate hypersensitivity response?

<p>Basophils/mast cells and histamine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the process of inflammation, what direct purpose does margination serve?

<p>To cause blood cells to stick to blood vessels, slowing them down. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How would interferons help uninfected cells in the presence of a viral infection?

<p>By destroying RNA and reducing protein synthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the overall purpose of phagocytosis by immune cells in the context of a bacterial infection?

<p>To survey for, ingest, breakdown, and extract information from foreign matter such as bacteria. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of leukocyte mediates acquired immunity?

<p>Lymphocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct relationship between monocytes and macrophages?

<p>Monoycytes become macrophages. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of vasconstriction during a fever?

<p>Increases body temperature. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What event is directly dependent on cytokine activity?

<p>Inflammation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do complement proteins play as the first step in phagocytosis?

<p>Assist in phagocytosis by binding to pathogens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of lysozyme as a first line of defense?

<p>Hydrolyzing the cell wall of bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What's the relationship between PAMPs and PRRs?

<p>PRRs recognize PAMPs to stimulate the immune system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the first cells to attack an infection?

<p>Neutrophils (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does bioengineering differ from traditional biotechnology?

<p>Bioengineering involves direct modification of an organism's genome, while biotechnology utilizes an organism's biochemical and metabolic pathways for industrial production. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of using heat-stable DNA polymerase in PCR?

<p>It allows the polymerase to withstand the high temperatures required for DNA denaturation, enabling repeated cycling without enzyme degradation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of restriction endonucleases in genetic engineering?

<p>To recognize specific DNA sequences and cleave the DNA at those sites, creating fragments for gene splicing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the use of reverse transcriptase aid in the creation of recombinant DNA from eukaryotic genes?

<p>It synthesizes a DNA copy of mRNA, allowing intron-free eukaryotic genes to be expressed in prokaryotic cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A scientist is using gel electrophoresis to analyze DNA fragments. If the electrophoresis is run for an extended period, what is the likely outcome?

<p>The DNA fragments would run off the end of the gel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization (FISH) be most useful?

<p>Observing the presence and location of a specific DNA sequence on a chromosome within a cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a major application of transcriptomics?

<p>Analyzing all RNA molecules in a cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Sanger sequencing, what role do dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) play?

<p>They terminate DNA synthesis at specific bases, allowing for the determination of the DNA sequence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During PCR, what occurs during the annealing step?

<p>Primers bind to the single-stranded DNA template. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the use of 'sticky ends' benefit the process of gene cloning?

<p>They provide complementary overhangs that facilitate the insertion of a specific DNA fragment into a vector. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference between plasmid and bacteriophage vectors in recombinant DNA technology?

<p>Bacteriophages have a natural mechanism to inject DNA into bacterial hosts, while plasmids rely on transformation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for cloning vectors to contain a gene that confers drug resistance to their cloning host?

<p>To allow for the selection of cells that have successfully taken up the vector containing the desired gene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the absence of pathogenicity a desirable trait in a cloning host?

<p>To prevent the host from causing disease, ensuring safety in research and industrial applications. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using selective media in screening for recombinant microbes?

<p>To prevent the growth of bacteria that have not taken up the recombinant plasmid. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are transgenic plants typically created using Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

<p><em>Agrobacterium</em> is genetically engineered to carry desired genes into the plant cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary application of transgenic animals as disease models?

<p>Studying the development and progression of human genetic diseases in a controlled environment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gene therapy, what is the role of viral vectors?

<p>To deliver a normal gene into a patient's cells to correct a genetic defect. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) valuable in biomedical research?

<p>They serve as unique genetic markers for mapping the human genome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the advantage of using mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) in DNA profiling?

<p>It is present in a higher copy number than nuclear DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of short tandem repeat (STR) profiling in forensics?

<p>Identifying individuals by analyzing highly variable regions of their DNA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

DNA profiling techniques that rely on short tandem repeats (STRs) are effective because STRs:

<p>are variable in length among individuals. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does temperature cycling contribute to the specificity of PCR amplification?

<p>The annealing temperature is optimized to allow primers to bind only to the intended target sequence. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to use sterile techniques when performing Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

<p>To prevent contamination of the reaction with foreign DNA, which could lead to false positive results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher aims to introduce a specific gene into a bacterial plasmid. After digesting both the gene and the plasmid with the same restriction enzyme, what is the next crucial step to ensure successful gene insertion?

<p>Anneal the gene and plasmid together using DNA ligase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a promoter in the context of recombinant DNA technology?

<p>It is a sequence that initiates transcription, ensuring the gene is expressed effectively in the host cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is designing a PCR experiment to amplify a specific gene. What is the most critical consideration when designing the oligonucleotide primers?

<p>Confirming that the primers are complementary to the regions flanking the target DNA sequence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might researchers choose to use genetically modified (GM) crops?

<p>GM crops can be engineered with enhanced nutritional value, contributing to food security. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable concern associated with the release of recombinant microbes into the environment?

<p>That they could negatively impact the local ecosystem. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A scientist is attempting to develop a new treatment for a genetic disease using gene therapy. What is a critical challenge they might encounter?

<p>Ensuring the therapeutic gene is delivered only to the intended cells and tissues. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by the term 'genetically modified organism' (GMO)?

<p>An organism that has had its genome intentionally altered by introducing genetic material from a different organism. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher wants to create multiple copies of a recombinant plasmid. What is the most appropriate method to achieve this?

<p>Introducing the plasmid into a cloning host and allowing it to replicate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of performing Nucleic Acid Hybridization?

<p>Hybridization base-pairs a short known synthesized sequence to an unknown to see if it exists in the sample. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What purpose does the probe DNA serve for the test DNA in Analysis of DNA?

<p>The probe DNA attaches to the test DNA to indicate where the sequence is and be observed for diagnostics or to find on what chromosome a gene is. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the ultimate goal of recombinant DNA technology?

<p>To alter the function of an organism in a desired way via adding DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a researcher wanted to measure at what rate genes are expressed within a single cell, what technique would they use?

<p>Microarray analysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the temperature cycling in PCR contribute to the exponential amplification of a specific DNA sequence?

<p>It optimizes primer annealing and DNA polymerase activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the use of a cloning host that is non-pathogenic important in recombinant DNA technology?

<p>To avoid any potential health hazards that could arise from the release of a pathogenic organism. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does reverse transcriptase enable the synthesis of eukaryotic genes for cloning?

<p>It transcribes mRNA into cDNA, which lacks introns, making the gene suitable for expression in prokaryotic cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Sanger sequencing, what happens when a dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP) is incorporated into a growing DNA strand?

<p>It halts further elongation of the strand because it lacks the 3'-OH group necessary for forming a phosphodiester bond. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of using selective media during the screening of recombinant microbes?

<p>To distinguish between recombinant and non-recombinant microbes and isolate recombinant colonies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which consideration is critical when designing oligonucleotide primers for PCR?

<p>Their degree of complementarity to the flanking regions of the target DNA sequence. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher wants to introduce a gene into a bacterial plasmid. After digesting both the gene and the plasmid with the same restriction enzyme, what's the next step?

<p>Anneal the DNA fragments via ligase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the use of 'sticky ends' facilitate gene cloning?

<p>They allow for specific and efficient annealing of DNA fragments from different sources cut with the same restriction enzyme. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of recombinant DNA technology, what is the purpose of a promoter?

<p>A specific DNA sequence that initiates gene transcription. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is introducing recombinant microbes into the environment a concern?

<p>Because of their potential to disrupt the existing biodiversity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Nucleic Acid Hybridization used for?

<p>To unite single-stranded DNA with other single-stranded DNA or RNA. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of probe DNA in the analysis of DNA?

<p>To base-pair with and detect complementary sequences in the test DNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one problem associated with the use of gene therapy?

<p>The targeted gene may be silenced over time. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most practical use of protein products as a result of recombinant DNA technology?

<p>To manufacture medications (hormones, enzymes, vaccines) on a large scale. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What makes short tandem repeats (STRs) effective for DNA profiling?

<p>STRs show a high degree of variability among individuals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are transgenic plants created using Agrobacterium tumefaciens?

<p><em>Agrobacterium tumefaciens</em> acts as a vector to transfer desired genes into the plant's genome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are transgenic animals used as disease models?

<p>To mimic human genetic diseases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do researchers measure the activity of thousands of genes in a single cell at once?

<p>Using Microarray Analysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do viral vectors play in gene therapy?

<p>Delivering therapeutic genes into target cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does reverse transcriptase do?

<p>Synthesizes a DNA sequence from an mRNA sequence (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does restriction endonuclease do?

<p>Recognizes particular sequences of DNA and makes double-stranded cuts (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does ligase do?

<p>Rejoins the phosphate-sugar bonds. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is the right order of the Sanger Sequencing Method?

<p>Original DNA, DNA denatured, primer added, polymerase added (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the end result of DNA getting reheated and cooled?

<p>The two strands need not be from the same organisms as long as they have matching sites. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gene therapy, what is the purpose of isolating a healthy gene from the subject?

<p>Clone the gene for insertion into a viral vector. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do Single nucleotide polymorphisms directly affect?

<p>Vaccine response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is single nucleotide polymorphism used?

<p>In disease diagnosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these would NOT be classified as an Immune Treatment?

<p>EPO (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is transformed when Agrobacterium picks up vector with foreign DNA?

<p>Microbial cloning (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What part of the process is related to using cDNA?

<p>Isolating DNA of interest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is TRUE when producing milk samples?

<p>The milk has the same composition as human breast milk (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What term can be used to reference GMOs?

<p>Transgenic (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In recombinant DNA technology, to where does the donor gene need to be exposed?

<p>Restriction endonucleases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What step creates a single recombinant plasmid?

<p>Complementary ends are bound by ligase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In transgenic plants, what carries the herbicide gene into the plant nucleus?

<p>The Ti plasmid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a desirable trait in a cloning host's genome?

<p>Foreign genes through multiple generations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process is considered the intentional removal of genetic material?

<p>Recombinant DNA technology (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What causes the sequence to be determined in the Sanger Sequencing process?

<p>The replication of each new strand at the point of addition of a dd nucleotide (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gel electrophoresis, will larger fragments move more slowly, or more quickly?

<p>More slowly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are recombinant bacteria used for?

<p>To help re mediate disturbed environments or ecosystems. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential to use the same restriction enzyme when combining DNA fragments from different organisms?

<p>To create complementary sticky ends on both DNA fragments, allowing them to join correctly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the Sanger sequencing method, what is the functional consequence of incorporating a dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP) into a growing DNA strand?

<p>It terminates the replication of the strand at the point of incorporation due to the absence of a 3'-OH group. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of heating DNA to 90-95°C during the initial step of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

<p>To denature the double-stranded DNA, separating it into single strands. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of plasmids makes them ideal for use as cloning vectors?

<p>Their small size, ease of manipulation, and ability to be transferred into host cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of recombinant DNA technology, what is the role of a 'selection marker' gene—such as antibiotic resistance—in a cloning vector?

<p>To help researchers identify which host cells have successfully taken up the recombinant vector. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential ecological concern associated with the release of recombinant microorganisms into the environment?

<p>The irreversible alteration of existing ecosystems due to the novel traits of the recombinant organisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In producing transgenic plants using Agrobacterium tumefaciens, what part of the bacterium's natural mechanism is exploited?

<p>The bacterium's natural process of transferring its T-DNA into the plant cell genome. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the analysis of Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) in DNA profiling enable the identification of individuals?

<p>The number of repeats at STR loci varies greatly between individuals, providing a unique genetic fingerprint. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of using mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) in forensic DNA analysis compared to nuclear DNA?

<p>mtDNA is present in higher copy numbers in cells, increasing the chances of obtaining a profile from degraded or limited samples. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gene therapy, what is a major advantage of using viral vectors to deliver therapeutic genes?

<p>Viruses have the natural ability to enter cells and deliver genetic material efficiently. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Immune system

A multilevel network of physical barriers, immunologically active cells, and chemicals that protect the body against pathogens.

First line of defense

Any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry; nonspecific.

Second line of defense

Protective cells and fluids with inflammation and phagocytosis; less specific but can detect and stop types of microbes.

Third line of defense

Acquired with exposure to foreign substance; produces protective antibodies and creates memory cells; specific.

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Innate defenses

Inborn, nonspecific defenses including physical or anatomical barriers, chemical defenses and genetic resistance to infection

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Built-in skin defenses

Outermost layer of skin with epithelial cells cemented together and impregnated with keratin.

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Lysozyme

Enzyme that hydrolyzes the cell wall of bacteria.

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Defensins

Peptides that lyse bacteria and fungi.

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Immunology

Study of the body's 2nd and 3rd lines of defense

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Pathogen-associated patterns (PAMPs)

Molecules shared by microorganisms that trigger immune responses

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Pathogen recognition receptors (PRRs)

Receptors on WBCs that recognize PAMPs

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Hematopoiesis

The process in long bones (femur, humerus) where immune cells are made from stem cells.

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Hematopoietic stem cells

Can become any type of blood cell.

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Granulocytes

White blood cells with granules containing enzymes and chemicals.

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Neutrophils

Phagocytes that are first to attack an infection.

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Eosinophils

Destroy eukaryotic pathogens and mediate allergies.

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Basophils

Release potent chemical mediators, including allergies.

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Agranulocytes

Lack dark spots also known as granules

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B cells

Specific immune response which produces antibodies; activated directly by antigen or T-cell activation.

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T cells

Control immune functions and kill foreign cells; activated by antigen on innate cells.

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Dendritic cells

Trap pathogens and participate in immune reactions; phagocytose microbes and present to T and B cells.

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Lymphatic system

Auxiliary route for return of extracellular fluid to circulatory system.

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Lymph

Plasma-rich liquid carried by lymphatic circulation.

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Lymph nodes

Small, encapsulated, bean-shaped organs along lymphatic channels.

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Thymus

High growth until puberty, then begins to shrink; site of T-cell maturation.

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Spleen

Nestled below the diaphragm; filters circulating blood.

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Cytokines

Protein signals released by one immune cell that tells other immune cells what is happening.

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Inflammatory response

A reaction to any traumatic event in the tissues that attempts to restore homeostasis.

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Chemotaxis

Chemical signals from damages cells and/or invading microbe signals nearby WBC's to release signals

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Emigration/Diapedesis

Migration of white blood cells out of blood vessels into the tissues due to cytokine signals.

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Fever response

Initiated by circulating pyrogens which reset the hypothalamus to increase body temperature.

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Pyrogens

Resetting the body's thermostat to a higher temperature.

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General activities of phagocytes

Survey tissue compartments, ingest and eliminate materials, and extract immunogenic information from foreign matter.

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Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

Protein receptors within cell membrane of macrophages, that detect foreign molecules and signal the macrophage to produce chemicals to stimulate an immune response

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Phagosome formation

A. Phagocyte extends pseudopods that enclose pathogen in a vacuole called a phagosome

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Phagolysosome

Lysosomes with antimicrobial substances fuse with the phagosome to form a digestive organelle.

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Interferon

Small protein produced by certain WBCs and tissue cells in response to viruses, RNA, immune products, and antigens.

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Applied Science

Using basic science to create practical applications or useful products.

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Bioengineering

Direct and intentional modification of an organism's genome.

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Biotechnology

Using an organism's biochemical and metabolic pathways for industrial production.

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Restriction Endonuclease

Enzymes that breaks phosphodiester bonds in DNA at specific sequences.

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Palindromes

Nucleotide sequences with the same sequence forwards and backwards.

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Ligase

Rejoins phosphate-sugar bonds cut by endonucleases.

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cDNA

DNA copy of RNA.

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Gel Electrophoresis

Separates DNA fragments by size using an electric current.

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Gene Probes

Short DNA fragments of known sequence base-pair with stretches of complementary DNA.

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Southern blotting

Separates DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis, denatures it, then incubated with DNA probes.

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FISH (Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization)

Uses probes applied to intact cells to find location of specific sequences.

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DNA sequencing

Determining the order and type of bases in DNA.

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Sanger Technique

Most common sequencing technique that involves denaturing strands, primes, polymerase, and dideoxynucleuotide.

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PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

Amplifies DNA rapidly by increasing the amount in a sample.

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Recombinant DNA Technology

An intentional removal of genetic material from one organism, and combining it with different organisms.

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Plasmids

Small, well-characterized DNA molecules easily transferred into host cells.

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Bacteriophages

Cloning vectors that inject their DNA into bacterial hosts.

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Genomics

Systematic study of all organism's genes and their functions.

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Transcriptomics

Analysis of all RNA molecules in a cell.

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Proteomics

Study of proteins and function mediated by proteins.

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Metagenomics

Study of all the genomes in a defined ecological niche.

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Metabolomics

Study of all small chemicals in a cell at a given time.

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Recombinant Microbes

Organisms with modified bacteria and viruses.

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Multicellular organism

Organisms with transgenic plants and animals.

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Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Use tumor-producing bacterium to cause infection.

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PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

Molecules shared by microorganisms that can trigger an immune response..

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Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)

Specific polymorphisms that commonly occur in a genome.

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STR profiling

Profiling uses short tandem repeats for DNA fingerprinting.

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Microarray analysis

Track the expression of thousands of genes in a single cell.

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Gene therapy

Intentional gene insertion into human cells to treat diseases.

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Study Notes

Genetic Engineering

  • Basic knowledge is used to derive applied science or useful products.
  • Bioengineering is the direct, deliberate modification of an organism's genome.
  • Biotechnology utilizes an organism's biochemical and metabolic pathways for industrial production.

Tools and Techniques of Genetic Engineering

  • DNA heated to 90-95°C causes the two strands to separate, allowing nucleotides to be identified, replicated, or transcribed.
  • Slow cooling of DNA allows complementary nucleotides to hydrogen bond, allowing DNA to regain its double-stranded form.
  • Heat denatures DNA by breaking hydrogen bonds and separating strands; cooling allows strands to rejoin at matching sites, even from different organisms.

Enzymes for Dicing, Splicing, and Reversing Nucleic Acids

  • Restriction endonuclease recognizes specific DNA sequences and breaks phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides.
  • Restriction endonucleases can be used to cleave DNA at desired palindromic sites.
  • Restriction endonucleases are used to cut DNA into restriction fragments, which can differ in length (RFLPs).
  • Action of restriction endonucleases involves recognizing and cleaving DNA at specific palindromic sequences, often producing staggered tails called sticky ends for gene splicing.
  • Sticky ends join DNA from different organisms if cut by the same restriction enzyme, ensuring complementary ends.
  • Ligase is necessary to rejoin phosphate-sugar bonds (sticky ends) cut by endonucleases.
  • Ligase is used for the final splicing of genes into plasmids and chromosomes.
  • Reverse transcriptase makes a DNA copy of RNA (cDNA) from mRNA, tRNA, or rRNA.
  • Reverse transcriptase can synthesize eukaryotic genes from mRNA transcripts, which are free of introns.

Analysis of DNA

  • Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size.
  • DNA samples are placed on soft agar gel and subjected to an electric current in gel electrophoresis.
  • The negative charge of the DNA molecule causes it to move toward the positive pole during gel electrophoresis.
  • The rate of movement in gel electrophoresis depends on fragment size, with larger fragments moving more slowly (compared to a DNA size ladder).
  • Nucleic acid hybridization unites single-stranded DNA with other single-stranded DNA or RNA, or RNA with other RNA.
  • Gene probes, short DNA fragments of a known sequence, base-pair with complementary DNA stretches in a sample.
  • The Southern blot method separates DNA fragments by electrophoresis, denatures them, and incubates them with DNA probes. Probes attach to complementary segments if present.
  • Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) applies probes to intact cells and observes for presence/location of specific sequences for diagnostics or gene location on a chromosome.

Research Fields in the Study of the Genome

  • Genomics is the systematic study of an organism's genes and their functions.
  • Transcriptomics involves the analysis of all RNA molecules in a cell.
  • Proteomics involves the study of an organism's complement of proteins and functions mediated by the proteins.
  • Metagenomics is the study of all the genomes in a particular ecological niche, as opposed to individual genomes from single species.
  • Metabolomics studies the complete complement of small chemicals present in a cell at any given time.

DNA Sizing, Sequencing, and Synthesizing

  • DNA sequencing determines the actual order and type of bases for all types of DNA.
  • The most common sequencing technique is the Sanger technique.
  • Sanger sequencing denatures test strands to serve as a template, then complementary strands synthesize.
  • Sanger technique separates fragments into tubes containing primers, DNA polymerase, all 4 nucleotides, and fluorescent labeled dideoxynucleotide.
  • Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA, rapidly increasing the amount of DNA in a sample.
  • PCR adds primers of known sequence to indicate where amplification begins, with heat-tolerant DNA polymerase and nucleotides.
  • PCR repetitively cycles through denaturation, priming, and extension.
  • Each PCR cycle doubles the number of copies for analysis.
  • PCR is essential in gene mapping, genetic defect/cancer studies, forensics, taxonomy, and evolutionary studies.

Sanger Sequencing Method

  • Original DNA is sequenced with the Sanger Sequencing Method.
  • DNA denatures to produce a single template strand for the Sanger Sequencing Method.
  • The Sanger Sequencing Method labels a strand with a specific primer molecule.
  • A reaction tube in the Sanger Sequencing Method contains DNA polymerase, primed single strands four all regular nucleotides
  • Sanger: Small amount of the four fluorescently labeled dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that provide a visible tracer of the locations of terminal bases added by the polymerase.
  • Each new strand terminates during replication at the point of addition of a dd nucleotide.

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

  • DNA is amplified in cycle 1, denatured, primed, and replicated by a polymerase that can function at high temperatures.
  • Resulting strands are then used for a second cycle of denaturation, priming, and synthesis.
  • DNA Sample is made, then begins Denaturation with seperation of strands in cycle 1
  • An Oligonucleotide primers attach at ends of strands to promote replication of amplicons during priming Heat-stable DNA polymerase synthesizes complementary strand for extension.

Recombinant DNA Technology

  • Recombinant DNA technology is the intentional removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with that of a different organism.
  • The objective of recombinant technology is cloning, which requires donor gene selection, excision by restriction endonucleases, and isolation.
  • The gene is inserted into a vector (plasmid, virus) that will insert the DNA into a cloning host.
  • The cloning host is usually bacterium or yeast, which can replicate the gene and translate it into a protein product.

Characteristics of Cloning Vectors

  • Vectors must carry a significant piece of donor DNA and which must be readily accepted by the cloning host.
  • Plasmids are small, well characterized, easy to manipulate and can be transferred into appropriate host cells through transformation.
  • Bacteriophages naturally inject their DNA into bacterial hosts through transduction.
  • Vectors need an origin of replication and must accept DNA of the desired size and confers drug resistance to their cloning host.

Desirable Features in a Cloning Host

  • A desirable Microbial Cloning Host has a rapid turnover, fast growth rate.
  • A microbial cloning host can be grown in large quantities using ordinary culture methods.
  • For microbial cloning a genome must be well delineated (mapped) is capable of foreign genes to multiply.
  • Nonpathogenic cloning hosts should maintain foreign genes through multiple generations.
  • The cloning host should secrete a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes.

Construction of a Recombinant - The recombinant plasmid is introduced

  • In transformation the competent cloning host bacteria, which are grown on media that select only clones that are antibiotic resistant and carry the donor gene.
  • Recombinant isolates are grown in culture to increase numbers and will now contain a replicated plasmid carrying the donor gene.
  • Recombinant cells are induced to transcribe and translate the donor gene
  • Protein products from the culture and purified from this yields. Selective media can be used to quickly identify recombinants.

Protein Products of Recombinant DNA Technology

  • Recombinant DNA Technology enables the large-scale manufacturing of medications (hormones, enzymes, vaccines).
  • Recombinant DNA produces Insulin for diabetes and Human growth hormone for dwarfism/Erythropoietin for anemia
  • Proteins that can be generated by recombinant DNA Factor VIII for hemophilia/HBV vaccine
  • Immune Treatments: Interferons peptides treat some types of multiple sclerosis, and viral infections such as hepatitis and genital warts.
  • Interleukins act to: Regulate types of white blood cells; uses on Cancer treatment for bone marrow.

The following Hormones with use of Treatment:

  • Erythropoietin (EPO), stimulates bone marrow treatment for anemia; can be replaced
  • Tissue plasminogen activator/Hemoglobin/ Human growth.

Various Enzyme Treatments

  • Cystic Fibrosis lung secretions rDNase, thick lung
  • Anitrypsin acts to benefit emphysema
  • PEG-SOD after severe trauma
  • Adding Lipases helps laundry detergents.

Miscellaneous Vaccine products:

  • Bovines, apolipoprotein and spider silk.

Gmos: the New Recombinant World

  • Recombinant organisms are introduced foreign genes for genetically modified organisms
  • Recombinant microbes: modified bacteria and viruses Multicellular/transgenic plants bacteria that used to disturbed ecosystem
  • Recombinant bacteria are used to disturb ecosystem - bacteria that encode pesticides.

Plants and Plamsmids

  • Plant Techniques used to tumors a plant or inject plasmids with disease resistance.
  • To add recombinant, the plasmids are taken up by cells, which multiply/copy the foreign gene.
  • Bacterium fuses with T1 that carries the herbicide gene into the T-dna to be expressed in a seed will be part of plant's genome.

Transgenic Animal Types

  • Animal strains now exist for research and disease . Mice. Pigs. Sheep. Cattle.
  • Used for the genetic models study disease as well as to treat diseases and provide medicine and hormones.

Genomic DNA Profiling

Every organism has a unique sequence of DNA but vary to extent of closeness For these reasons some Techniques are :

  • PCR (Increase number of gene copies): Amplification increases by copies
  • Electrophoreses (Seperate DNA fragments )
  • Hybridizing probes ( Primitives which link to certain sequences)

Types of genomic DNA tests

  • Short tandem repeats - (STRs). MtDNAs
  • Or mitotyping. Single nucleotide polymorphisms -(SNPs)

Short Trandem Profiling DNA ( STR) Testing

  • Has sample and then you ampify to find large numbers of fragments DNA
  • A profile to tagged DNA that are specific to human genomes is created.
  • Laser detections to scan and code is computer analyzed show to what type of material is D. A profile is compared then to location and correlated the number.

DNA profiling applications consists identifying

  • Identify missing forensics
  • Missing diseases
  • Tracing parentages

Mitochondrion-based testing

• Known as DNA which the DNA and contains base pairs with a number genes - highly conservative and consistent over a period of time. • With variations to identify the levels species even certain • Or ancient due will be useful compared Genbank or bar code Genomic.

SNP

  • The polymorphs occur by random through out the genes and DNA. • Valuable for tests medicine • Known to affect genetics agents of drugs cancer and diabetes .

Microarrays Analysis

  • It checks for the amount genes within each cell as well to help and devise how to treat genetics types in medical disorders. </existing_notes>

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