Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)

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Questions and Answers

A patient receiving heparin develops thrombocytopenia two days after the start of treatment. Which characteristic is LEAST likely to be associated with this patient's condition?

  • Spontaneous platelet count normalization despite continued heparin exposure.
  • Requirement for immediate cessation of heparin therapy. (correct)
  • Non-immune mediated mechanism of platelet reduction.
  • Absence of detectable anti-PF4 antibodies.

A patient is diagnosed with HIT type 2. Which course of action is MOST appropriate?

  • Begin platelet transfusions to correct the thrombocytopenia.
  • Continue heparin therapy while closely monitoring platelet counts for stabilization.
  • Immediately discontinue heparin and initiate a non-heparin anticoagulant. (correct)
  • Administer corticosteroids to suppress the immune response.

A patient presents with a suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Initial laboratory results show a mildly reduced platelet count that stabilizes within 48 hours of continued heparin therapy. Which of the following BEST explains this scenario?

  • The patient is likely experiencing HIT type 2, necessitating immediate intervention.
  • The patient's presentation is atypical and requires further investigation to rule out other causes of thrombocytopenia.
  • The patient is likely experiencing HIT type 1, which typically resolves spontaneously. (correct)
  • The patient is likely experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

A patient with a history of heparin exposure develops new onset thrombosis and thrombocytopenia. Which diagnostic finding would STRONGLY suggest HIT Type 2 over HIT Type 1?

<p>Presence of heparin-dependent platelet activating antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), what is the primary immunological mechanism driving the pathophysiology of HIT Type 2?

<p>Antibody formation against platelet factor 4 (PF4) leading to platelet activation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would necessitate the STRONGEST consideration for immediate testing for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

<p>A patient on heparin for DVT treatment experiences a 50% drop in platelet count 7 days after heparin initiation, along with new onset skin necrosis at the injection site. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is suspected of having HIT type II. Which of the following test results would be MOST conclusive in confirming this diagnosis?

<p>A positive ELISA assay for heparin-PF4 antibodies followed by a positive serotonin release assay (SRA). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with confirmed HIT Type II requires urgent anticoagulation for a newly diagnosed pulmonary embolism. Which of the following anticoagulants is MOST appropriate to initiate?

<p>Fondaparinux, started at a weight-based dose. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST significant long-term risk associated with Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia type II (HIT Type II)?

<p>Recurrent thromboembolic events despite resolution of acute HIT. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately differentiates between Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia type I (HIT Type I) and type II (HIT Type II)?

<p>HIT Type I is a non-immune mediated, early-onset phenomenon, whereas HIT Type II is immune-mediated, typically occurring 4-10 days after heparin exposure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

HIT Type 1

Non-immune mediated, occurring within the first 2 days of heparin use, and does not typically require specific management. Platelet count normalizes with continuous heparin therapy.

HIT Type 2

Immune-mediated, typically occurring 4-10 days after heparin exposure, involving autoantibody formation against platelet factor 4, which can lead to venous and arterial thrombosis.

Study Notes

HIT Type 1

  • Occurs within the first 2 days of heparin use.
  • It is a non-immune disorder.
  • Management is not required.
  • Platelet count normalizes even with continuous heparin therapy.

HIT Type 2

  • It is immune-mediated.
  • Occurs 4-10 days after exposure to Heparin.
  • Autoantibody formation against factor 4 is the cause.
  • Causes both venous and arterial thrombosis.

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