Hematology Overview Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What condition is indicated by anuria?

  • Normal urine output
  • Severely reduced or complete absence of urine output (correct)
  • Involuntary urination at night
  • Excessive urine production

    • What color of urine is associated with elevated bilirubin levels?

  • Orange (correct)
  • Red to Brown
  • White
  • Clear

    • How is bilirubin formed in the body?

  • From the breakdown of proteins
  • From kidney filtration
  • From the destruction of red blood cells (correct)
  • From muscle metabolism

    • What term describes a urine output of less than 400 mL/day?

    <p>Oliguria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the preferred specimen volume for urine testing?

    <p>50 mL</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive bilirubin test indicate?

    <p>Early signs of liver disease or bile obstruction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What urine appearance is associated with amorphous phosphates?

    <p>White, cloudy appearance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What term refers to involuntary night-time urination?

    <p>Enuresis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of leukocytes in the body?

    <p>Aid in immune response</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is found in the structure of leukocytes?

    <p>Globulin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the lifespan of red blood cells (RBCs)?

    <p>120 days</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of white blood cells are characterized by lobulated nuclei?

    <p>Neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes immature red blood cells (reticulocytes)?

    <p>They exhibit a blue network when stained.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement describes the composition of arteries and veins in terms of blood color?

    <p>Arterial blood is brighter than venous blood.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common feature of granular white blood cells?

    <p>They contain granules with digestive enzymes.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is an example of agranular white blood cells?

    <p>Lymphocytes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the optimal temperature for refrigeration of urine samples if analysis cannot be completed within 1 hour?

    <p>4-5 degrees Celsius</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of urine sample is best for urinalysis?

    <p>Clean-catch midstream urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be checked first when handling urine samples?

    <p>Integrity of the sample</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should reagent strips be stored to ensure proper functionality?

    <p>With desiccant and cap</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one characteristic of a 24-hour urine specimen collection?

    <p>First urination is discarded and the second is collected</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of quality control (QC) in urine testing procedures?

    <p>To calibrate equipment and ensure accuracy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What byproduct indicates muscle destruction in urine tests?

    <p>Myoglobin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What would indicate the presence of Pseudomonas bacteria in a urinary tract infection?

    <p>Fluorescence (glowing) under UV light</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for treating all specimens as potentially infectious?

    <p>Due to the overuse of antibiotics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which item is considered the most important piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) in the medical laboratory?

    <p>Gloves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following represents a portal of exit for pathogens?

    <p>Ingestion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the proper sequence for doffing personal protective equipment?

    <p>Gloves, lab gown, goggles, mask, hair net, shoe cover</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the mode of transmission for opportunistic pathogens?

    <p>Direct contact, air, or vectors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with gloves after completing work with potentially infectious materials?

    <p>Remove them and wash hands</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why should laboratory professionals avoid eating or applying makeup while working with specimens?

    <p>It poses a risk of contaminating specimens</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of using a mask in a laboratory setting?

    <p>To protect against droplets from sneezing and coughing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the three products released into the bloodstream when fat is metabolized?

    <p>Acetone, Acetoacetic acid, Beta-hydroxybutyric acid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition is indicated by the presence of leukocytes in urine?

    <p>Urinary tract infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a positive nitrite test in urine generally indicate?

    <p>Presence of bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the normal pH range for urine?

    <p>4.6-8.0</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is microalbuminuria?

    <p>Chronic presence of small amounts of albumin in urine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary substance detected by leukocyte esterase reagent strips?

    <p>Neutrophils</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to ketonuria?

    <p>Diabetes mellitus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of zygote banking?

    <p>To preserve zygotes prior to transfer to a woman's womb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What kidney issue correlates with the appearance of squamous epithelial cells in a urine sample?

    <p>Shed cells from the lining of the urinary tract</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes allografts?

    <p>Transplants performed between two subjects of the same species</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the temperature used for freezing in cryobanking?

    <p>-196 C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method of cloning involves separating a very early embryo into individual cells?

    <p>Artificial Embryo Twinning</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is Short-Term Cryobanking primarily used for?

    <p>For preservation of sperm or zygote for less than a year</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following organs is most commonly transplanted?

    <p>Kidneys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of sex selection?

    <p>To control the gender of the offspring while in the womb</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cloning method was first performed in 1997?

    <p>Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Hematology Section

    • Hematology studies blood, blood-forming tissues, and blood disorders
    • Includes blood components like RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
    • Anemia and leukemia are related blood disorders

    Hematopoiesis / Blood Cell Formation

    • Process of blood cell development
    • Primarily occurs in red bone marrow
    • All blood cells originate from stem cells

    Blood Cell Types

    • Erythrocytes (RBCs): Most numerous, carry oxygen, contain hemoglobin
    • Leukocytes (WBCs): Include granular (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) and agranular (lymphocytes, monocytes) cells; crucial for the immune response
    • Platelets (Thrombocytes): Essential for blood clotting

    Factors Stimulating Blood Cell Production

    • Intrinsic Factor: Aids in Vitamin B12 absorption
    • Thrombopoietin: Stimulates platelet production
    • Colony-Stimulating Factor (CSF): Increases leukocyte formation
    • Interleukins: Influence lymphocyte growth and activation
    • Erythropoietin (EPO): Stimulates RBC production in response to low oxygen levels

    Stem Cells

    • Precursors of all blood cells
    • Have the capacity for self-renewal and differentiation
    • Self-renewal is the ability to divide and produce more stem cells with the same properties
    • Anemia affects red blood cells
    • Leukemia affects white blood cells
    • Disorders related to platelets include dengue and CFD

    Other

    • Blast cells are immature blood cells at different stages of development leading to RBCs, WBCs and platelets.
    • Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells.
    • Leukocytes are responsible for the immune response.
    • Granular WBCs include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
    • Agranular WBCs include lymphocytes and monocytes.
    • Monocytes in the blood are called macrophages when in the tissues.
    • Reticulocytes have remnant RNA, which stains blue when using a special stain
    • RBCs (Erythrocytes) circulate for 120 days.
    • Types of blood cells in the circulating blood include RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.

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    Principles of Medical Laboratory Science 1 PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on hematology, including blood components such as RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. Explore topics like hematopoiesis and common blood disorders like anemia and leukemia. This quiz will assess your understanding of blood cell formation and functions.

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