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Questions and Answers

What is the purpose of using the toe-brachial index (TBI) in diagnosing peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

To evaluate blood flow in the toes (correct)

To measure blood pressure in the arm

To assess the risk of coronary artery disease

To determine the patient's overall fitness level

A decrease of 20% in the ankle-brachial index (ABI) after exercise is indicative of peripheral artery disease.

True

What treatment is recommended for patients with peripheral artery disease showing symptoms and an ABI of 0.90 or less?

Aspirin, clopidogrel, or ticagrelor

The structured ________ program is an important part of treating peripheral artery disease.

exercise Signup and view all the answers

Match the following treatments with their effects on peripheral artery disease:

Aspirin = Reduces downside events Statins = Decreases major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) Cilostazol = Improves walking distance Rivaroxaban = Reduces MACE but increases bleeding risk Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is classified as a type of cancer?

Leukemia Signup and view all the answers

Immunosuppressed hosts are at higher risk for fungal infections.

True Signup and view all the answers

Name one disorder associated with calcium metabolism.

Calcium Disorders Signup and view all the answers

_____ is a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation of the joints.

Rheumatoid Arthritis Signup and view all the answers

Match the following types of pneumonia with their characteristics:

Aspiration Pneumonia = Occurs when food or liquid enters the lungs Bacterial Pneumonia = Typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae Viral Pneumonia = Commonly caused by viruses, including influenza Fungal Pneumonia = Caused by fungal infections, often in immunocompromised individuals Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common side effect of chemotherapy?

Nausea and vomiting Signup and view all the answers

Diabetes Mellitus can lead to increased risk of rheumatic diseases.

True Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary concern in infections of the nervous system?

Meningitis Signup and view all the answers

What effect does dupilumab have on patients with severe asthma?

Decreases exacerbations Signup and view all the answers

Yearly flu shots are recommended for patients with asthma to help manage their condition.

True Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal for achieving complete control in asthma management?

Daily symptoms ≤ 2/week, no nocturnal symptoms, reliever medication ≤ 2/week, normal peak expiratory flow rate or FEV1. Signup and view all the answers

In asthma management, one can abort an exacerbation by quadrupling the __________ if control deteriorates.

ICS Signup and view all the answers

Match the asthma evaluation criteria with their descriptions:

Prior intubation = Risk factor for life-threatening asthma Pulsus paradoxus = Physical exam finding Current exacerbation duration = Assessment criteria Hemodynamic instability = Contraindication for positive-pressure ventilation Signup and view all the answers

Which method is NOT considered a contraindication for positive-pressure ventilation?

Personal best PEF known Signup and view all the answers

Asthma treatments should be adjusted without the need for monitoring patient control levels.

False Signup and view all the answers

What is a classic association with STE V1–V4?

Right axis deviation (RAD) Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of peak expiratory flow (PEF) monitoring in asthma management?

It helps to determine personal best and assess asthma control. Signup and view all the answers

Elevated ST segment in lead aVR greater than 1 mm is associated with decreased mortality in STEMI.

False Signup and view all the answers

What is one indication for considering Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NPPV)?

Signs of increased work of breathing Signup and view all the answers

What is the main symptom of pneumonia?

Pleuritic pain, dyspnea, fever, cough, sputum Signup and view all the answers

Ventilator-associated pneumonia has a mortality rate of approximately 10%.

False Signup and view all the answers

The condition characterized by sharp pleuritic pain and hyperresonance on examination is known as ___.

pneumothorax Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical screening criteria for performing a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT)?

Stable vital signs, minimal secretions, adequate cough. Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of esophageal reflux?

Sharp pleuritic pain Signup and view all the answers

The recommended ventilator parameters for predicting failure include PaO2/FiO2 >200 and PEEP ≤ ____.

5 Signup and view all the answers

What diagnostic tests are suggested for diagnosing esophageal spasm?

Manometry Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pathogens is commonly associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia?

MRSA Signup and view all the answers

Match the following terms with their associated descriptions:

Ventilator-induced lung injury = Damage caused by mechanical ventilation Cuff leak test = Assessment for laryngeal edema Daily awakening trial = Assessment for sedation and readiness Enteral nutrition = Preferred over total parenteral nutrition in vented patients Signup and view all the answers

Match the following conditions with their primary diagnostic procedure:

Pneumonia = CXR infiltrate Peptic Ulcer Disease = EGD Mallory-Weiss = EGD Biliary Disease = RUQ U/S Signup and view all the answers

Stress ulcer prophylaxis with PPI has shown a significant improvement in the overall course of patients.

False Signup and view all the answers

The abnormal heart rhythm characterized by a downsloping ST segment in leads V1–V2 is known as ___.

Brugada syndrome Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'acute ventilatory deterioration' refer to?

A sudden worsening of a patient's respiratory function requiring immediate intervention. Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of left axis deviation (LAD)?

Axis beyond -30° Signup and view all the answers

Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) always presents with left axis deviation.

False Signup and view all the answers

Name one common etiology of left anterior fascicular block (LAFB).

Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) Signup and view all the answers

If the R wave in V3 is less than or equal to ______ mm, it indicates poor R wave progression.

3 Signup and view all the answers

Match the following conditions with their defining characteristics:

Left axis deviation (LAD) = Axis beyond -30° Right axis deviation (RAD) = Axis between 90° and 180° Left posterior fascicular block (LPFB) = S in I & aVL, qR in III & aVF Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) = R > S in V1 Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a criterion for right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH)?

R in aVR ≥ 4 mm Signup and view all the answers

A small (septal) q wave in lead I is considered abnormal.

False Signup and view all the answers

What does ST elevation in the context of acute myocardial infarction typically look like?

Upward convexity (a 'frown') Signup and view all the answers

The Romhilt-Estes point-score system states that if left anterior fascicular block (LAFB) is present, the S wave in III plus the maximum R + S in any lead must be at least mm in men or mm in women.

30, 28 Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is typically NOT associated with ST elevation?

Severe bradycardia Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Book Title and Edition

Pocket Medicine, Seventh Edition
By Marc S. Sabatine
Published by Wolters Kluwer
Handbook of Internal Medicine

Book Content

Contains chapters on Cardiology, Pulmonary, Gastroenterology, Nephrology, Hematology-Oncology, Infectious Diseases, Endocrinology, Rheumatology, Neurology, and more.
Edited by Marc S. Sabatine, MD, MPH, Professor of Medicine at Harvard Medical School.
Book is a collaborative effort by several medical professionals.
Book has pages of content including index, and contributing authors.
Provides specific information about different medical conditions.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Description

Test your knowledge on the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions, including peripheral artery disease, pneumonia, and autoimmune disorders. This quiz covers topics related to clinical assessments, treatment effects, and disease associations in a healthcare context.

Current 2024 Dx & Rx

Choose a study mode

Podcast

Questions and Answers

What is the purpose of using the toe-brachial index (TBI) in diagnosing peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A decrease of 20% in the ankle-brachial index (ABI) after exercise is indicative of peripheral artery disease.

What treatment is recommended for patients with peripheral artery disease showing symptoms and an ABI of 0.90 or less?

The structured ________ program is an important part of treating peripheral artery disease.

Match the following treatments with their effects on peripheral artery disease:

Which of the following is classified as a type of cancer?

Immunosuppressed hosts are at higher risk for fungal infections.

Name one disorder associated with calcium metabolism.

_____ is a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation of the joints.

Match the following types of pneumonia with their characteristics:

Which of the following is a common side effect of chemotherapy?

Diabetes Mellitus can lead to increased risk of rheumatic diseases.

What is the primary concern in infections of the nervous system?

What effect does dupilumab have on patients with severe asthma?

Yearly flu shots are recommended for patients with asthma to help manage their condition.

What is the goal for achieving complete control in asthma management?

In asthma management, one can abort an exacerbation by quadrupling the __________ if control deteriorates.

Match the asthma evaluation criteria with their descriptions:

Which method is NOT considered a contraindication for positive-pressure ventilation?

Asthma treatments should be adjusted without the need for monitoring patient control levels.

What is a classic association with STE V1–V4?

What is the significance of peak expiratory flow (PEF) monitoring in asthma management?

Elevated ST segment in lead aVR greater than 1 mm is associated with decreased mortality in STEMI.

What is one indication for considering Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation (NPPV)?

What is the main symptom of pneumonia?

Ventilator-associated pneumonia has a mortality rate of approximately 10%.

The condition characterized by sharp pleuritic pain and hyperresonance on examination is known as ___.

What is the clinical screening criteria for performing a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT)?

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of esophageal reflux?

The recommended ventilator parameters for predicting failure include PaO2/FiO2 >200 and PEEP ≤ ____.

What diagnostic tests are suggested for diagnosing esophageal spasm?

Which of the following pathogens is commonly associated with ventilator-associated pneumonia?

Match the following terms with their associated descriptions:

Match the following conditions with their primary diagnostic procedure:

Stress ulcer prophylaxis with PPI has shown a significant improvement in the overall course of patients.

The abnormal heart rhythm characterized by a downsloping ST segment in leads V1–V2 is known as ___.

What does the term 'acute ventilatory deterioration' refer to?

What is the definition of left axis deviation (LAD)?

Right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) always presents with left axis deviation.

Name one common etiology of left anterior fascicular block (LAFB).

If the R wave in V3 is less than or equal to ______ mm, it indicates poor R wave progression.

Match the following conditions with their defining characteristics:

Which of the following is a criterion for right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH)?

A small (septal) q wave in lead I is considered abnormal.

What does ST elevation in the context of acute myocardial infarction typically look like?

The Romhilt-Estes point-score system states that if left anterior fascicular block (LAFB) is present, the S wave in III plus the maximum R + S in any lead must be at least ______ mm in men or ______ mm in women.

Which of the following conditions is typically NOT associated with ST elevation?

Study Notes

Book Title and Edition

Book Content

Studying That Suits You

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Description

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The Romhilt-Estes point-score system states that if left anterior fascicular block (LAFB) is present, the S wave in III plus the maximum R + S in any lead must be at least mm in men or mm in women.