Health Prevention and Disease Concepts
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Which of these options are examples of primary prevention in the health care system?

  • Pap smears
  • Antibiotic use
  • Immunizations (correct)
  • Surgery to remove a tumor
  • What is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

    Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease within a specific population and time period, while prevalence measures the proportion of existing cases of a disease in a population at a specific point in time.

    Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

  • Swelling
  • Redness
  • Numbness (correct)
  • Pain
  • Heat
  • What is the difference between a pneumothorax and a tension pneumothorax?

    <p>A pneumothorax refers to the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause partial or complete lung collapse. A tension pneumothorax is a more severe type where air enters the pleural space during inspiration but cannot escape, leading to a buildup of pressure in the chest.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a risk factor for developing pulmonary embolism?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factors can contribute to left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Left-sided heart failure is characterized by decreased cardiac output and signs of decreased tissue perfusion. Contributing factors include decreased cardiac output, activity intolerance, pulmonary congestion, impaired gas exchange, and pulmonary edema.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common cause of chronic kidney disease?

    <p>Asthma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the kidneys in blood pressure regulation?

    <p>The kidneys play a vital role in blood pressure regulation through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and by controlling the volume of blood in the body. When blood pressure drops, the kidneys release renin, triggering a cascade that constricts blood vessels and increases sodium and water retention, leading to elevated blood pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?

    <p>Massive proteinuria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence?

    <p>Stress incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine due to increased intra-abdominal pressure, commonly triggered by activities like coughing, sneezing, or exercise. Urge incontinence, on the other hand, is characterized by an urgent need to urinate and involuntary leakage due to overactive bladder muscles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of anemia?

    <p>Hyperthyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe the difference between conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin.

    <p>Unconjugated bilirubin is the form of bilirubin that is not yet processed by the liver. It is insoluble in water and bound to albumin in the bloodstream. Conjugated bilirubin is the water-soluble form that has been processed by the liver and can be excreted in bile.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heat exhaustion?

    <p>High Fever</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease?

    <p>Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the substantia nigra in the brain. This area is responsible for producing dopamine, a neurotransmitter crucial for smooth muscle movement and coordination. The degeneration of these neurons leads to a depletion of dopamine, resulting in the characteristic motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and slow movement (bradykinesia).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Multiple Sclerosis?

    <p>Hypersomnia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the five A's of Alzheimer's disease?

    <p>The five A's of Alzheimer's disease are: anomia (inability to remember names), apraxia (inability to perform familiar tasks), agnosia (inability to recognize familiar objects), amnesia (memory loss), and aphasia (inability to express oneself through speech).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a major complication of diabetes mellitus?

    <p>All of the above</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe the role of gastric mucosa in protecting the stomach.

    <p>The gastric mucosa serves as a protective barrier against the highly acidic environment and digestive enzymes present in the stomach. It is composed of specialized cells that secrete mucus, bicarbonate, and other substances, creating a layer that prevents damage to the underlying tissues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The pyloric sphincter controls the rate of stomach emptying.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is steatorrhea, and what can cause it?

    <p>Steatorrhea refers to the presence of excessive fat in the stool. Common causes include malabsorption disorders, such as celiac disease, pancreatitis, and deficiencies in bile salts or pancreatic enzymes. Removal of the gallbladder can also lead to steatorrhea due to impaired fat digestion.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

    <p>Heartburn</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of bile salts in the digestive process?

    <p>Bile salts, produced by the liver, play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of fats. They emulsify large fat globules, breaking them down into smaller micelles that can be more easily digested and absorbed by the small intestine.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of hepatitis virus is most commonly transmitted through blood transfusions?

    <p>Hepatitis C</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The formation of gallstones is primarily due to an excess of bilirubin in bile.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

    <p>The most common cause of peptic ulcers is infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), a bacterium that thrives in the acidic environment of the stomach.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of appendicitis?

    <p>Sudden, severe pain in the lower right abdomen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are some risk factors associated with peritonitis?

    <p>Peritonitis, inflammation of the peritoneum, can be caused by various factors, including abdominal surgery, ectopic pregnancy, perforation of a stomach ulcer, trauma, appendicitis, and diverticulitis. Risk factors also include weakened immune systems and underlying medical conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of esophageal cancer?

    <p>Diarrhea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the difference between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis?

    <p>Both Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis are inflammatory bowel diseases, but they differ in their location and the extent of the inflammation. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus, while ulcerative colitis is confined to the colon. Crohn's disease is characterized by patchy inflammation, while ulcerative colitis causes continuous inflammation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Portal hypertension often results in a decrease in pressure within the portal venous system.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for erectile dysfunction?

    <p>Hypothyroidism</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the primary functions of the prostate gland?

    <p>The prostate gland is a fibromuscular, glandular organ located inferior to the bladder. Its primary functions include secreting a thin, alkaline fluid that contributes to semen, adding volume and aiding sperm motility. It also plays a role in the elimination of urine through the prostatic urethra.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a symptom of hypogonadism in men?

    <p>Reduced muscle mass</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that needs immediate attention.

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a physiological effect of progesterone?

    <p>Promotes growth of the alveolar structures in the breasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is menopause, and what are some common symptoms?

    <p>Menopause is the natural cessation of menstrual periods, marking the end of a woman's reproductive years. It is caused by the depletion of ovarian follicles and a decline in estrogen production. Common symptoms include hot flashes, night sweats, vaginal dryness, mood swings, sleep disturbances, and urinary urgency.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about HPV?

    <p>HPV is the most common STI in the US.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), and who is most at risk?

    <p>Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the upper reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is often caused by sexually transmitted infections, particularly chlamydia and gonorrhea. Young women, especially those who are sexually active, have multiple sexual partners, or have a history of PID, are at higher risk of developing PID.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of gonorrhea?

    <p>Often asymptomatic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Chlamydia is a common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Describe the characteristics of bacterial vaginosis.

    <p>Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a thin, milky-white or gray vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. A whiff test (a pungent odor when a 10% potassium hydroxide solution is applied to the discharge) is often positive. The vaginal pH is typically elevated, usually above 4.5, and the presence of 'clue cells,' which are epithelial cells covered with bacteria, is a microscopic finding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions could lead to vascular dementia?

    <p>Hypertension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main goal of tertiary prevention?

    <p>To reduce complications and prevent further deterioration of existing disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the term 'etiology'?

    <p>The cause or trigger of a disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the context of acid-base balance, what causes respiratory acidosis?

    <p>CO2 retention due to hypoventilation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which manifestations are associated with respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Lightheadedness and shortness of breath</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the difference between prevalence and incidence?

    <p>Prevalence focuses on existing disease in a population at a given time, while incidence measures new cases over a specified time</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Metabolic acidosis is typically characterized by which of the following?

    <p>Low pH and low bicarbonate levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary treatment for respiratory alkalosis?

    <p>Rebreath exhaled CO2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of prevention involves measures such as immunization?

    <p>Primary prevention</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal when treating alkalosis?

    <p>Treat the underlying issue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of pneumothorax?

    <p>Weight gain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What complication is a direct result of a tension pneumothorax?

    <p>Pressure build-up on heart</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions can lead to dyspnea?

    <p>Obesity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a primary risk factor for developing DVT?

    <p>Immobilization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is associated with hypocalcemia during alkalosis?

    <p>Hyperactive reflexes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one potential treatment for a large pneumothorax?

    <p>Chest tube placement</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What physiological change may occur with left-sided heart failure?

    <p>Building up of pressure in the lungs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following does NOT characterize a pulmonary embolism?

    <p>Swelling in arms</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of pulse oximetry?

    <p>Determine oxygen saturation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes type 1 diabetes mellitus?

    <p>Destruction of pancreatic beta cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition results from an imbalance of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters in the corpus striatum?

    <p>Parkinson’s Disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a likely symptom of hyperglycemia?

    <p>Increased thirst</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a cause of peptic ulcers?

    <p>Chronic stress</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which symptom is characteristic of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

    <p>Regurgitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a complication that can arise from Crohn's disease?

    <p>Fistulas formation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during hepatitis A infection?

    <p>Usually self-limiting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of bile salts in digestion?

    <p>Absorbing digested fat</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common risk factor is associated with developing vascular dementia?

    <p>Diabetes Mellitus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following diet and lifestyle changes is essential for managing type 2 diabetes?

    <p>Exercise regularly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is considered a normal cardiac output range resting level?

    <p>4-8 L/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor decreases stroke volume?

    <p>High afterload</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which GFR level suggests chronic kidney disease?

    <p>50 mL/min</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role does angiotensin II play in blood pressure regulation?

    <p>Acts as a vasoconstrictor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which stage of chronic kidney disease is there a GFR of 15-29 mL/min?

    <p>Stage 4</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What triggers the urge to urinate during bladder fullness?

    <p>Stretch receptors activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of urinary incontinence involves the bladder failing to empty completely?

    <p>Overflow incontinence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common symptom of heat exhaustion?

    <p>Nausea and fatigue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is more accurate for measuring kidney function but less common due to inconvenience?

    <p>24-hour urine test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition is characterized by the unregulated overproduction of red cell mass?

    <p>Polycythemia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does aldosterone have in the kidneys?

    <p>Promotes sodium reabsorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential cause of anemia related to red blood cell production?

    <p>Inadequate hemoglobin synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following actions occurs during the bladder filling phase?

    <p>Detrusor muscle relaxes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Types of Prevention

    • Primary: Removing risk factors to prevent disease. Accomplished outside healthcare systems at a community level. Examples include immunizations.
    • Secondary: Detecting disease early when it's still curable. Done in clinical settings. Examples include pap smears.
    • Tertiary: Preventing further deterioration or reducing complications of a disease. This goes beyond initial treatment, such as using antibiotics.

    Etiology, Pathogenesis, and Clinical Manifestations

    • Etiology: The cause of a disease.
    • Pathogenesis: How a disease process evolves.
    • Clinical Manifestations: Signs and symptoms of a disease.

    Prevalence and Incidence

    • Prevalence: A measure of existing disease in a population at a specific point in time.
    • Incidence: The number of new cases of a disease arising in a population at risk during a defined time period.

    Morbidity and Mortality

    • Morbidity: Describes the effect a disease has on a person's life.
    • Morbidity rate: Examines how many people have a certain disease in a defined population.
    • Mortality: Pertains to causes of death in a specific population.
    • Mortality rate: The number of deaths in a year in a given population.

    Cardinal Signs of Inflammation

    • Rubor: Redness
    • Calor: Heat
    • Tumor: Swelling
    • Dolor: Pain
    • Functio Laesa: Loss of function

    Modes of Transmission

    • Direct Contact
    • Ingestion
    • Inhalation
    • Penetration

    Disease Course

    • Incubation: Pathogens may not produce recognizable symptoms.
    • Prodromal Stage: Initial symptoms appear before a specific disease indication or worse symptoms.
    • Acute Stage: Host experiences the maximal impact of infection symptoms.
    • Convalescent: Containment and elimination of pathogens, resolution of symptoms.

    Respiratory Alkalosis and Acidosis

    • Respiratory Alkalosis: pH increases, CO2 decreases.
    • Respiratory Acidosis: pH decreases, CO2 increases.
    • Metabolic Alkalosis: pH increases, CO2 increases.
    • Metabolic Acidosis: pH decreases, CO2 decreases.

    Dyspnea

    • Subjective difficulty breathing. Includes chest tightness, shortness of breath, air hunger, or breathlessness.

    6-P's of Dyspnea

    • Possible foreign body
    • Pulmonary bronchial constriction
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Pneumothorax
    • Pneumonia
    • Pump failure

    Epiglottitis

    • Airway inflammation resulting in obstruction.
    • Increased pulse and respirations
    • Restlessness
    • Retractions
    • Anxiety
    • Inspiratory stridor
    • Drooling

    Pneumothorax

    • Presence of air in the pleural space.
    • Causes partial or complete collapse of the affected lung.
    • Spontaneous pneumothorax arises from a ruptured bleb on the lung surface.
    • Rupture allows atmospheric air to enter the pleural cavity.

    Open Pneumothorax/Communicating and Tension Pneumothorax

    • Open pneumothorax: Air enters the chest during inspiration and exits during expiration.
    • Tension pneumothorax:Air enters during inhalation but cannot leave the chest during exhalation

    Pulse Oximetry

    • Painless, non-invasive procedure to measure oxygen levels in the blood.
    • Detects hypoxia.

    Pulmonary Embolism

    • Blockage in a lung artery.
    • Clot in an artery blocking blood flow.
    • Often arising from deep veins of the legs (DVT)
    • Can cause pulmonary infarction.

    Risks of Immobilization

    • Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
    • Blood clots in veins. (Usually legs)
    • Swelling and pain.

    Aortic Aneurysm

    • An aneurysm in the aorta can cause a blood clot.
    • Swelling and pain in the chest.

    Heart Failure

    • Left-sided: Decreased cardiac output, activity intolerance, pulmonary congestion.
    • Right-sided: Peripheral tissue congestion, dependent edema and ascites, GI tract congestion.

    Cardiac Preload and Afterload

    • Preload: Pressure from blood volume in ventricles at the end of diastole.
    • Afterload: Resistance left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood. Increased in hypertension and vasoconstriction.

    Stroke Volume and Cardiac Output

    • Stroke Volume (SV): Amount of blood pumped with each beat.
    • Cardiac Output (CO): SV * HR

    Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

    • Measurement of blood flow through kidneys.
    • Measured amount of glomerular filtrate moves into tubular segments of nephron.

    Role of the Kidney in Blood Pressure Regulation

    • Sympathetic stimulation affects renal blood flow.
    • Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activation affects sodium and water retention.

    Nephrotic Syndrome

    • Constellation of clinical findings from inc. glomerular permeability and loss of plasma proteins in the urine.
    • Characterized by massive proteinuria (greater than 3.5 g/day), lipiduria, and hypoalbuminemia (less than 3g/dL).

    Progression of Chronic Kidney Disease

    • CKD commonly arises from hypertension and diabetic kidney disease.
    • GFR progressively reduces
    • Severe reduction in GFR < 15 may need renal replacement therapy

    Process of Bladder Emptying

    • Urine flow from the kidneys through the ureters to the bladder.
    • Ureters enter the bladder on the sides, near the base of bladder for entry into the urethra.
    • Trigone is where the ureters join the bladder.
    • Micturition is the process of voluntary bladder emptying

    Types of Urinary Incontinence

    • Stress: Loss of urine associated with increased intra-abdominal pressure.
    • Overactive bladder/Urge: Urgency and frequency caused by detrusor muscle hyperactivity.
    • Overflow: Loss of urine with increased pressure over maximal urethral pressure.
    • Functional: Inability to reach the bathroom for urination due to cognitive or physical problems.

    Serum and Plasma

    • Serum is blood without clotting factors.
    • Plasma is blood with clotting factors.

    Anemia

    • Abnormally low number of circulating red blood cells or a low level of hemoglobin.
    • Diminished oxygen-carrying capacity.

    Hemoglobin

    • Vehicle for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport in red blood cells.

    Red Blood Cell Production

    • Red bone marrow produces red blood cells.
    • Production declines after age 20.

    Polycythemia

    • Increase in RBC mass. Can be relative (loss of vascular fluid) or primary (proliferation disease of bone marrow).

    Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

    • Widespread coagulation and bleeding in the vascular compartment.
    • Massive activation of the coagulation cascade following unregulated thrombin generation.

    Hemoglobin Synthesis

    • Rate depends on iron availability.

    Destruction of Red Blood Cells

    • Spleen responsible for RBC destruction.
    • Unconjugated bilirubin accumulates from excessive RBC destruction in the blood.

    Conjugated vs. Unconjugated Bilirubin

    • Conjugated: Processed by the liver, soluble in water, and excreted in bile.
    • Unconjugated: Not yet processed by the liver, insoluble in water, and attached to albumin until processed by liver.

    Hemolytic Anemia

    • Low number of RBC due to excessive hemolysis.

    Leukemias vs. Lymphomas

    • Leukemias: Malignant blood disorders originating from hematopoietic stem cells. Classified according to the cell lineage.
    • Lymphomas: Originate in lymphatic tissue.

    Infectious Mononucleosis (Mono)

    • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) causes a self-limited lymphoproliferative disorder.

    Heat Cramps

    • Slow, painful muscle cramps from salt and fluid loss during strenuous activities.

    Heat Exhaustion

    • Profuse sweating, elevated heart rate and body temperature, and symptoms indicating heat cramps.

    Heat Stroke

    • Failure in thermoregulation with high core body temperature, dry skin, lack of sweating.

    Parkinson's Disease

    • Degeneration of basal ganglia, causing tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia (slow movement).

    Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

    • Progressive neurologic disorder that affects motor function.

    Multiple Sclerosis

    • Demyelination disease of the central nervous system (CNS) characterized by exacerbations and remissions.

    Alzheimer's Disease

    • Progressive brain disease accounting for 60-80% of dementia cases.
    • Short-term memory loss, personality changes, and impaired cognitive function are early signs.

    Severe Alzheimer's Disease

    • Inability to respond to environment
    • Require total care
    • Complications related to chronic debilitation

    Vascular Dementia

    • Thought processes impaired because of the brain damage caused by impaired blood flow to brain.

    Negative Feedback Loop

    • Most common mechanism of hormone control. A feature of hormone action inhibits further hormone secretion so that the hormone level returns to an ideal level.

    Chronic Complications of Diabetes Mellitus

    • Microvascular: Neuropathies, nephropathies, retinopathies
    • Macrovascular: Coronary, cerebral, and peripheral vascular disease.
    • Gastrointestinal disorders and foot ulcers.

    Type I Diabetes

    • Majority of DM cases with relative insulin deficiency.
    • Formerly called adult onset, non-insulin dependent DM.
    • Strong genetic component
    • High, normal, or low insulin levels (insulin resistance).

    Type I Diabetes

    • Majority of DM cases with relative insulin deficiency.
    • Formerly called adult onset, non-insulin dependent DM.
    • Strong genetic component
    • High, normal, or low insulin levels (insulin resistance).

    Hyperglycemia

    • Imbalance between insulin secretion and cellular responsiveness.
    • Body cells aren't able to take up glucose, and glucose levels increase.

    Hypoglycemia

    • Low blood sugar.

    Sensory Neuropathy

    • Microvascular damage from advanced glycation end products (AGEs) and reactive oxygen species (ROS).

    Cholelithiasis

    • Precipitation of substances contained in bile (mainly cholesterol and bilirubin) leading to gallstones.

    Peptic Ulcers

    • Ulcerative disorders in areas exposed to acid-pepsin secretions.
    • Common causes include H. pylori, aspirin use, other factors

    Appendicitis

    • Inflammation, swelling, and potential gangrene of the appendix.
    • Abrupt onset pain, usually affecting the periumbilical or epigastric area that progressively localizes to the right lower quadrant.

    Esophageal Cancer

    • Malignant tumors in the esophagus.
    • Several types, including squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma.

    Diverticulitis

    • Inflammation of diverticula (small pouches) in the colon.
    • Pain in lower left quadrant, tenderness, fever, nausea and vomiting.

    Crohn's Disease

    • Recurrent granuloma inflammatory response affecting any area of the GI tract from mouth to anus.

    Portal Hypertension

    • Increased resistance to flow in the portal venous system

    Hepatitis

    • Viral infection of the liver, potentially leading to chronic inflammation and liver damage.

    Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

    • Inflammation of the upper reproductive tract.
    • Polymicrobial infection, often from Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.

    Sexually Transmitted Infections

    • Broad range of diseases transmitted through sexual contact. Examples are Herpes, Gonorrhea, Syphilis and Chlamydia.

    Chlamydia

    • Common STI frequently with few or no symptoms
    • Can lead to PID if untreated.

    Bacterial Vaginosis

    • Caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina.

    Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

    • Symptoms or mucosal damage produced by abnormal reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus or oral cavity.
    • May include pain in back or neck, dyspepsia, increased burping, bloating and pain after meals.

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    Explore the various types of disease prevention, including primary, secondary, and tertiary strategies. Understand key concepts like etiology, pathogenesis, prevalence, and incidence. This quiz will test your knowledge of health concepts critical to public health and clinical practice.

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