Faye&Emily Oral dental sciences quiz
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A more recent revised aetiological classification has been proposed which further divides pathological halitosis into how many types?

  • 6 (correct)
  • 5
  • 7
  • 4

    • What percentage of halitosis cases originate from the oral cavity?

  • 10%
  • 90% (correct)
  • 60%
  • 70%

    • Genuine halitosis can be sub-divided into

  • Pseudohalitosis and Physiologic
  • Pathologic and Pseudohalitosis
  • Pathogenic and Nonpathogenic
  • Physiologic and Pathologic (correct)

    • Halitophobia can be described as

    <p>A fear of others noticing an individual has oral malodour</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The gold standard measure of halitosis is

    <p>Organoleptic measurements</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are potential oral causes of halitosis?

    <p>Xerostomia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are potential non-oral/other causes of halitosis?

    <p>Diabetic Ketoacidosis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the main compounds responsible for intra-oral halitosis?

    <p>Volatile Sulphur Compounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the dental hygienist/dental therapist consider an onward referral?

    <p>Halitophobia</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes a secondary local factor in periodontal disease?

    <p>Something that increases the accumulation of plaque biofilm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main aetiological factor in periodontal disease?

    <p>Plaque bacteria</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are developmental secondary local risk factors in periodontal disease?

    <p>Root grooves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are iatrogenic secondary local risk factors in periodontal disease?

    <p>Amalgam overhang</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Calculus is identified as a secondary local factor for the following reasons:

    <p>It has a rough surface</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A traumatic overbite can cause plaque retention due to:

    <p>Direct gingival trauma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following may cause trauma which can be a secondary local risk factor for periodontal disease?

    <p>Lip piercing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Your patient Charlie attends for oral hygiene coaching. They have a fixed orthodontic appliance, and it is your job to go over oral hygiene coaching with them. Charlie’s plaque score is 80%. Which areas would you highlight in Charlie’s mouth when you are giving oral hygiene coaching?

    <p>Cleaning the insides and outsides of the teeth with a manual or electric toothbrush</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Whilst conducting a BPE on Mr Sanchy, you detect a groove palatally of the 12 (UR2). You realise this is a root groove. The prognosis for this tooth should be safe if the root groove extends to the apical portion of the root.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct notation for the mandibular left permanent canine?

    <p>LL3/33</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the functions of the incisors with regards to food?

    <p>Slicing and cutting</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age do the permanent mandibular central incisors generally erupt?

    <p>6-7 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which permanent anterior tooth is likely to have the greatest degree of variation?

    <p>maxillary lateral incisor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the canines?

    <p>Gripping and tearing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Approximately which age do the permanent maxillary canines erupt in the mouth?

    <p>11-12 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The crowns of the maxillary canines appear slightly more yellow than the other teeth. Why?

    <p>Due to the greater bulk of dentine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The crown appears to lean distally. Poorly defined/no cingulum. Which permanent anterior tooth is this?

    <p>Mandibular canine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct notation of the maxillary right permanent canine?

    <p>UR3 / 13</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many fossae are present on the occlusal surfaces of the canines?

    <p>2</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The mandibular canines can sometimes be seen to have a bifurcated root

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The permanent mandibular central incisor is the widest anterior tooth.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What are the correct notations of the permanent mandibular left second incisor?

    <p>LL2 / 32</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the premolars?

    <p>Tearing and crushing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Select the correct notations fot the mandibular right second premolar

    <p>LR5 / 45</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age does the maxillary first premolar erupt?

    <p>10-11 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    There is a distinct depression on the mesial surface; there are 2 roots. Which tooth is this?

    <p>Maxillary first premolar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Name the groove found on the mesial surface of the maxillary first premolar

    <p>Canine fossa</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many cusps might the mandibular second premolar have?

    <p>2-3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At which age approximately, does the mandibular first premolar erupt?

    <p>10-12 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Select the correct notations for the maxillary left first premolar

    <p>UL4/24</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the name of the triangular ridge that runs across the occlusal surface of the maxillary molars?

    <p>Oblique ridge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The function of the molars is to crush, grind and chew

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age does the maxillary second molar erupt?

    <p>12-13 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which tooth has a 'Y' shaped fissure pattern occlusally?

    <p>Mandibular first molar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the Cusp of Carabelli usually found?

    <p>The Cusp of Carabelli is found on the mesio-palatal surface of the maxillary first molar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which molars erupt at 6-7 years of age?

    <p>Mandibular and maxillary first molars</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The mandibular second molar has a cross shaped fissure pattern occlusally

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many cusps does the mandibular forst molar have?

    <p>5</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Calculus is considered a risk factor because:

    <p>The surface of calculus is irregular and provides a place for bacteria to grow undisturbed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dental calculus is mineralised petrified dental plaque and does not directly cause to progression of periodontal disease

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Kate attends the dental surgery presenting complaining that she always forms calculus on her lower anterior linguals and upper buccal molars. You reassured Kate with the following information (Select the most appropriate answer)

    <p>Kate is more at risk for forming calculus in these areas as they are located near salivary glands</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Methods of calculus detection are:

    <p>Vision</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Sam has had several crowns and implants fitted seven months ago. He has only attended the dental hygiene appointment for the first time since the prosthesis were fitted. (Select the most appropriate answer)

    <p>Sam is at risk of plaque and calculus growth on his prosthetic appliances and must attend dental hygiene appointments regularly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Supra and sub gingival calculus both derive their minerals from saliva

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The composition of dental calculus consists of organic & inorganic substances

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The composition of inorganic material in dental calculus is 10-30%

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for attachment of calculus to a tooth surface?

    <p>Attachment to the blood clots that can form on the tooth</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age do the first permanent molars calcify?

    <p>Birth/just before</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age does the first permanent tooth erupt?

    <p>6-7 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age would you expect to see the following dentition:

    <p>7-8 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    At what age would you expect to see the following dentition:

    <p>11-12 years</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Knowing the sequence of eruption/exfoliation helps to identify and explain anomalies such as Molar-incisor hypomineralisation (MIH)

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The order of eruption for deciduous dentition is:

    <p>A B D C E</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the order of eruption for maxillary permanent dentition?

    <p>6 1 2 4 5 3 7 8</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which permanent tooth erupts first?

    <p>First permanent molar</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The action of which muscle is to compress and protrude the lips?

    <p>Orbicularis Oris</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Depressor Anguli Oris originates beneath the angle of the mandible, and inserts into the corner of the mouth

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The Levator Labii Superioris originates from the canine fossa and elevates the corner of the mouth

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve?

    <p>Platysma</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is supplied by the masseteric nerve?

    <p>Masseter</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle is supplied by the temporal branch of the facial nerve?

    <p>Occipitofrontalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle of facial expression is being described: originates from the bridge of the nose, supplied by the temporal artery and pulls the eyebrows medially?

    <p>Corrugator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle of mastication is being described: fan shaped muscle, inserts into the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible, elevates the mandible, supplied by the deep temporal nerve

    <p>Temporalis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which muscle of mastication is being described: short thick muscles originating from 2 heads, upper head originates from the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, inserts into the pterygoid fovea, opens and protrudes the mouth.

    <p>Lateral pterygoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these is not a movement of the mandible?

    <p>Abduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The embryonic origin of cementum, a soft jelly like connective tissue is the:

    <p>Ectomesenchyme</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The process of cementogenesis is carried out by the following type of cell

    <p>Cementoblast</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dental implants have which of the following fibres

    <p>Alveologingival fibres and circular</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which cranial bone houses the foramen magnum

    <p>Occipital</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many bones make up the neurocranium

    <p>8</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If suffering from a headache, which cranial bone might you be rubbing/massaging

    <p>Temporal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The cranial cavity is made up of flat and irregular bones

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which following groups of bones are flat bones

    <p>Occipital, parietal, frontal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which best describes the ethmoid bone

    <p>It is situated in the paranasal sinuses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Crista Galli are a feature of which bone

    <p>Ethmoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following are not sutures associated with the cranium

    <p>Sagittarius</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The sphenoid bone is one of the 7 bones that form the orbit

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a paired bone

    <p>Mandible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which bone is anterior to the temporal bone

    <p>Sphenoid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the vomer bone located

    <p>Inside nasal cavity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The hyoid bone is connected to what via ligaments

    <p>Posterior portion of mandible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The hyoid bone is involved in all the following except:

    <p>Allowing head to pivot</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What bone is the most fragile bone of the skull

    <p>Lacrimal</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An effective dental caries risk assessment can be undertaken just with clinical examination

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factors need to be considered as part of dental caries risk assessment

    <p>General health factors and clinical assessment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    To undertake a dental caries risk assessment we can use both structured and non structured approaches

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is not a recognised caries risk assessment (CRA) tool?

    <p>British dental association CRA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    There is a lot of evidence that utilising caries risk assessment tools prevents caries initiation

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Protective factors should also be considered as part of a caries risk assessment

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following will your caries risk assessment not influence

    <p>Whether a patient is eligible for referral</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which three pieces of guidance specially relate patient management to their caries risk?

    <p>Delivering better oral health, NICE recall guidance, selection criteria for dental radiology</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Patients should be in the moderate to low caries risk category prior to undergoing complex restorative treatment

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Dentate patients with xerostomia should automatically be considered high risk for dental caries regardless of other factors

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cellular hyperplasia is an increase in the number of individual cells

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Cellular hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the individual cell

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Pathological Halitosis

    • A more recent revised aetiological classification of pathological halitosis has proposed a division into two types.
    • 90% of halitosis cases originate from the oral cavity.
    • Genuine halitosis can be sub-divided into either "oral halitosis" or "extrinsic halitosis".
    • Halitophobia is the irrational fear of having bad breath.
    • The gold standard measure of halitosis is organoleptic assessment using a halimeter.
    • The oral causes of halitosis are: dental caries, periodontal disease, poor oral hygiene, xerostomia, tongue coating and smoking.
    • The non-oral/other causes of halitosis are: sinusitis, tonsillitis, post nasal drip, gastrointestinal problems, certain foods, medications, and metabolic disorders.
    • Volatile sulfur compounds (VSCs) are the main compounds responsible for intra-oral halitosis.
    • The dental hygienist/dental therapist should consider an onward referral if the halitosis is persistent, if the patient presents with unusual symptoms, and if the patient is unresponsive to treatment.
    • A secondary local factor in periodontal disease is a factor that contributes to the progression of the disease and exacerbates the primary aetiological factor.
    • The main aetiological factor in periodontal disease is dental plaque.
    • Developmental secondary local risk factors in periodontal disease are: enamel pearls, root grooves, and developmental enamel defects.
    • Iatrogenic secondary local risk factors in periodontal disease are: restorations with overhangs, poorly contoured crowns, and orthopaedic appliances.
    • Calculus is identified as a secondary local factor for the following reasons:
      • It is a bacterial nidus.
      • It increases plaque retention.
      • Its rough surface makes it difficult for plaque to be removed.
      • It can cause trauma to the gingiva.
      • It can cause a change in the oral microbiome.
    • A traumatic overbite can cause plaque retention due to: a misaligned bite, a deep overbite, and a lack of tooth contact.
    • Trauma which is a secondary local risk factor for periodontal disease is:
      • Direct trauma from biting on hard objects.
      • Trauma from chewing habits.
      • Trauma from a tooth fracture.
    • Areas to highlight in Charlie’s mouth when giving oral hygiene coaching:
      • Around the fixed orthodontic appliance.
      • In interdental spaces.
      • On the lingual surfaces of lower anterior teeth.
      • On the buccal surfaces of upper molars.
    • The correct notation for the mandibular left permanent canine is 33.
    • The incisors cut and tear food.
    • The permanent mandibular central incisors generally erupt at 6-7 years of age.
    • The permanent maxillary lateral incisor is likely to have the greatest degree of variation.
    • The canines are designed to pierce, tear and hold food.
    • The permanent maxillary canines erupt in the mouth at approximately 11-12 years of age.
    • The crowns of the maxillary canines appear slightly more yellow than the other teeth because they have a thicker layer of enamel.
    • The maxillary right permanent canine is denoted by 13.
    • There are no fossae on the occlusal surfaces of the canines.
    • The permanent mandibular central incisor is the widest anterior tooth.
    • The correct notations of the permanent mandibular left second incisor are 32.
    • The premolars are designed to crush and grind food.
    • The correct notations for the mandibular right second premolar are 35.
    • The maxillary first premolar erupts at 10-11 years of age.
    • The tooth with a distinct depression on the mesial surface and 2 roots is the maxillary first premolar.
    • The groove found on the mesial surface of the maxillary first premolar is the marginal groove.
    • The mandibular second premolar might have 2 cusps.
    • The mandibular first premolar erupts at approximately 10-11 years of age.
    • The correct notations for the maxillary left first premolar are 24.
    • The triangular ridge that runs across the occlusal surface of the maxillary molars is called the oblique ridge.
    • The molars function to crush, grind and chew.
    • The maxillary second molar erupts at 12-13 years of age.
    • The maxillary first molar has a 'Y' shaped fissure pattern occlusally.
    • The Cusp of Carabelli is usually found on the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar.
    • The maxillary first and second molars erupt at 6-7 years of age.
    • The mandibular forst molar has five cusps.
    • Calculus is considered a risk factor because it is a nidus for bacteria, which can lead to inflammation and periodontal disease.
    • Dental calculus is mineralised (petrified) dental plaque and does not directly cause periodontal disease, but it is a risk factor.
    • Kate should be reassured that calculus is harmless.
    • Methods of calculus detection include:
      • Visual inspection
      • Tactile examination
      • Use of a dental explorer
    • Sam’s oral hygiene should target areas around the prosthesis, since plaque retention can lead to peri-implant mucositis.
    • Supra and sub gingival calculus both derive their minerals from saliva; however, subgingival calculus derives its minerals from gingival crevicular fluid.
    • The composition of dental calculus consists of organic & inorganic substances, split roughly 50/50.
    • The composition of inorganic material in dental calculus is not 10-30%, it is 60-80%.
    • The mechanisms for attachment of calculus to a tooth surface are:
      • Acquired pellicle
      • Direct attachment
      • Attachment via bacterial matrix
    • The first permanent molars calcify at 2 years of age.
    • The first permanent tooth erupts at 6 years of age.
    • At 6-7 years of age you would expect to see the following dentition:
      • Maxillary first molars
      • Mandibular first molars
      • Central incisors.
    • At 8-9 years of age you would expect to see the following dentition:
      • Lateral incisors
      • Canines
      • First Premolars
      • Second Premolars
      • Second Molars.
    • Knowing the sequence of eruption/exfoliation helps to identify and explain anomalies such as Molar-incisor hypomineralisation (MIH).
    • The order of eruption for deciduous dentition is:
      • Mandibular central incisors
      • Maxillary central incisors
      • Mandibular lateral incisors
      • Maxillary lateral incisors
      • Mandibular canines
      • Maxillary canines
      • Mandibular first molars
      • Maxillary first molars
      • Mandibular second molars
      • Maxillary second molars.
    • The order of eruption for maxillary permanent dentition is:
      • Incisors
      • Canines
      • Premolars
      • Molars.
    • The first permanent tooth to erupt is the mandibular first molar.
    • The action of the orbicularis oris muscle is to compress and protrude the lips.
    • The buccinator is innervated by the cervical branch of the facial nerve.
    • The masseter is supplied by the masseteric nerve.
    • The zygomaticus major is supplied by the temporal branch of the facial nerve.
    • The procerus muscle originates from the bridge of the nose, is supplied by the temporal artery and pulls the eyebrows medially.
    • The temporalis is a fan shaped muscle, inserts into the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible, elevates the mandible, supplied by the deep temporal nerve.
    • The lateral pterygoid muscle is a short thick muscle originating from 2 heads, upper head originates from the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, inserts into the pterygoid fovea, opens and protrudes the mouth.
    • Superior glide is not one of the movements of the mandible.

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    Halitosis, secondary local factors, permanent dentition, calculus, tooth eruption/exfoliation, combined muscles - Moodle quizzes. Skull and histology workbooks, dental caries risk assessment

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