230 Questions
Which molecule does haemoglobin reversibly combine with?
Oxygen
How many oxygen molecules can each haemoglobin molecule carry?
4
What is the role of haemoglobin in the transportation of CO2 waste?
It binds to globin's amino acids
Which ion is present in each haeme pigment of the globin protein?
Fe+2
How many oxygen molecules can each haemoglobin molecule carry?
4
Approximately how many haemoglobin molecules can each red blood cell (RBC) carry?
1 billion
What part of the haemoglobin molecule binds to carbon dioxide (CO2) waste?
The globin's amino acids
Each haemoglobin molecule can carry ______ oxygen molecules from lungs to tissue cells
4
If 1 RBC 250 million haemoglobin molecules, then each RBC can scoop up about ______ molecules of oxygen
1 billion
Haemoglobin transports ______% of total CO2 waste from tissue cells to lungs for release
23
CO2 binds to globin’s amino acids rather than the ______ group
haeme
Which molecule is haemoglobin bound to when it carries oxygen in the lungs?
Oxyhaemoglobin
What happens to the iron ion in haemoglobin when it is converted to methaemoglobin?
It is converted from Fe2+ to Fe3+
Where does carbon dioxide loading take place in the body?
Tissues
Match the following forms of haemoglobin with their correct descriptions:
Oxyhaemoglobin = Haemoglobin bound to oxygen, oxygen loading takes place in the lungs Deoxyhaemoglobin = Haemoglobin after oxygen diffuses into tissues, reduced Hb Carbaminohaemoglobin = Haemoglobin bound to carbon dioxide, carbon dioxide loading takes place in the tissues Methaemoglobin = Haemoglobin with Ferrous ion(Fe2+) converted to ferric iron (Fe3+)
Match the following forms of haemoglobin with their correct functions:
Oxyhaemoglobin = Carries oxygen in the lungs Deoxyhaemoglobin = Carries oxygen after it diffuses into tissues Carbaminohaemoglobin = Binds to carbon dioxide in the tissues Methaemoglobin = Formed when the iron ion in haemoglobin is converted to ferric iron (Fe3+)
Match the following haemoglobin forms with the locations of their loading:
Oxyhaemoglobin = Lungs Deoxyhaemoglobin = Tissues Carbaminohaemoglobin = Tissues Methaemoglobin = Not involved in loading, a result of a conversion
Which type of haemoglobin is found in human erythrocytes during embryonic development?
Portland I & II
Which type of haemoglobin is found in human erythrocytes during fetal development?
HbF
Which type of haemoglobin is found in adult human erythrocytes?
HbA
Which type of inherited disorder of haemoglobin is characterized by abnormal polypeptide chains being produced?
Haemoglobinopathies
What is the cause of Thalassaemias and related disorders?
Decreased or absent production of chains
What determines the amino acid sequences in the polypeptide chains of haemoglobin?
Globin genes
Which amino acid residue is replaced by valine in the abnormal β chains of Hb S?
Glutamic acid
Which chains are abnormal in Hb S?
Only β chains
Which type of haemoglobin is affected in Hb S?
Hb A
Which type of stem cell is transformed into proerythroblast during the formation of red blood cells?
Myeloid stem cell
How long does it take for proerythroblasts to develop into reticulocytes?
15 days
Where do reticulocytes enter after their formation?
Bloodstream
During red blood cell formation, which type of stem cell is transformed into proerythroblast?
Myeloid stem cell
How long does it take for proerythroblasts to develop into reticulocytes?
15 days
Which type of cells enter the bloodstream after developing from orthochromatic erythroblasts?
Reticulocytes
Which organelles do reticulocytes eject to become mature RBCs?
Nucleus and endoplasmic reticulum
What is the main component of the reticulum (network) found in reticulocytes?
Clumped ribosomal RNA
How long does it take for reticulocytes to escape from the bone marrow into the blood?
1-2 days
Which of the following conditions might be indicated by a low count of circulating RBC's in an anaemic person?
Nutritional deficiency
What might a high count of circulating RBC's indicate?
Successful iron therapy
What should be the percentage of circulating RBC's in the body?
0.5% to 1.5%
Which nutrient is necessary for DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells?
Vitamin B12
Where is iron stored in the body?
Liver
Which protein is responsible for transporting iron in the blood?
Transferrin
Which nutrient is essential for the production of red blood cells?
Iron
What is the role of erythropoietin in response to hypoxia?
It speeds up the development of proerythroblasts into reticulocytes
What is the main cause of tissue hypoxia at high altitudes?
Decreased oxygen in the air
Which organ plays a major role in engulfing dying red blood cells in the body?
Spleen
What happens to the lifespan of red blood cells as they age?
It decreases
Where do old red blood cells often get trapped in the circulatory system?
Spleen
Quale es le pigmento que se forma quando haeme es degradate al intestino?
Bilirubin
In qual forma le pigmento urobilinogen se elimina del corpore?
Per le feces
Qual parte del haemoglobina es metabolisate in amino acidos?
Globin
Haeme e globina es separate e le haeme e degradate a pigmento bilirubina?
False
Le haeme es conservate pro reuso e le globina es metabolisate in acidos amino?
False
Le pigmento urobilinogen es eliminante del corpore in le urina?
False
True or false: Haeme and globin are separated during the degradation process?
True
True or false: Bilirubin is secreted by the liver into the intestines?
True
True or false: Globin is metabolized into amino acids?
True
What is the fate of haeme and globin during the degradation process?
Haeme is salvaged for reuse while globin is metabolized into amino acids.
What is the final pigment that leaves the body in feces?
The final pigment that leaves the body in feces is stercobilin.
Where is bilirubin secreted by the liver?
Bilirubin is secreted by the liver into the intestines (in bile).
What is the role of transferrin in the transportation of iron in the blood?
Transferrin is responsible for carrying iron(Fe+3) in the blood.
What is the final fate of urobilinogen that is reabsorbed from the intestines into the blood?
Urobilinogen is converted to a yellow pigment, urobilin, and excreted in urine.
Where is bilirubin secreted by the liver?
Bilirubin is secreted by the liver into bile.
What is the final product of bilirubin metabolism that is excreted in urine?
Urobilinogen
What is the role of transferrin in the transportation of iron in the blood?
Transferrin binds to iron in the blood and transports it to the liver
Where is iron stored in the body?
Bone marrow
Which type of anaemia is characterized by slight but persistent blood loss, such as from haemorrhoids or a bleeding ulcer?
Chronic haemorrhagic anaemia
What is the primary problem treated in chronic haemorrhagic anaemia?
Bleeding ulcer
Which type of anaemia is characterized by rapid blood loss, such as from a stab wound?
Acute haemorrhagic anaemia
Which type of anaemia is characterized by slight but persistent blood loss, such as from haemorrhoids or a bleeding ulcer?
Chronic haemorrhagic anaemia
What is the primary problem treated in haemorrhagic anaemia?
Blood loss
Which type of anaemia is caused by haemorrhagic anaemia, low iron intake, or impaired absorption?
Iron-deficiency anaemia
What is pernicious anaemia?
Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that destroys the stomach mucosa, resulting in a lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb Vitamin B12.
What causes macrocytes in pernicious anaemia?
In pernicious anaemia, the deficiency of Vitamin B12 causes the red blood cells to be unable to divide, resulting in macrocytes.
How is pernicious anaemia treated?
Pernicious anaemia is treated with B12 injections or nasal gel. It can also be caused by low dietary intake of B12, such as in vegetarians.
What are the three groups of causes of anaemia?
Blood loss, low RBC production, high RBC destruction
What is the primary cause of haemorrhagic anaemia?
Rapid blood loss (e.g., stab wound)
What is the primary cause of chronic haemorrhagic anaemia?
Slight but persistent blood loss (e.g., haemorrhoids, bleeding ulcer)
What is the primary cause of iron-deficiency anaemia?
Caused by haemorrhagic anaemia, low iron intake, or impaired absorption
What is the primary cause of pernicious anaemia?
Autoimmune disease that destroys stomach mucosa and causes lack of intrinsic factor needed to absorb Vitamin B12
What is the main cause of anaemia due to chronic renal failure?
Lack of EPO
What is the treatment for anaemia due to chronic renal failure?
Synthetic EPO
What condition often accompanies renal disease?
Anaemia
What is aplastic anemia?
Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the destruction or inhibition of red marrow by drugs, chemicals, radiation, or viruses.
What are the symptoms and effects of aplastic anemia?
Aplastic anemia affects all cell lines and can lead to anemia, clotting defects, and immunity defects.
How is aplastic anemia treated?
Aplastic anemia is treated short-term with transfusions and long-term with transplanted stem cells.
What is the cause of Sickle-cell Anaemia?
Sickle-cell Anaemia results from a defective gene coding for an abnormal haemoglobin: haemoglobin S (HbS)
How does the shape of red blood cells change in Sickle-cell Anaemia?
In Sickle-cell Anaemia, the red blood cells become sickle-shaped due to changes in the haemoglobin molecule within the cells
What are the consequences of sickle-shaped red blood cells in Sickle-cell Anaemia?
Sickle-shaped red blood cells in Sickle-cell Anaemia can easily rupture, leading to anaemia and clot formation
What is the main reason for the increased resistance to malaria in individuals with only one sickle cell gene?
RBC membranes leak K+ & lowered levels of K+ kill the parasite infecting the red blood cells
What is the effect of incomplete plasmodium cycle on infected RBCs in individuals with sickle cell trait?
Infected RBCs sickle more easily
What is the cause of increased ROS (O2-, H2O2) in sickle trait erythrocytes?
Incomplete plasmodium cycle—infected RBCs sickle more easily
What are the treatment options for acute crisis in sickle cell anaemia?
Transfusions and inhaled nitric oxide
What is the mechanism of action of hydroxyurea in sickle cell anaemia?
It induces fetal hemoglobin formation which does not sickle
What are the potential treatments for sickle cell anaemia?
Transfusions, inhaled nitric oxide, hydroxyurea, blocking RBC ion channels, stem cell transplants, gene therapy
What are the main types of polycythaemia and what are their causes?
The main types of polycythaemia are polycythaemia vera, which is caused by bone marrow cancer, and secondary polycythaemia, which can be caused by factors such as high altitude or increased production of erythropoietin (EPO).
What is blood doping and why is it dangerous?
Blood doping is the practice of injecting previously stored red blood cells before an athletic event. It is dangerous because it increases blood viscosity, forcing the heart to work harder and increasing the risk of stroke and heart failure.
What are the two classifications of white blood cells (WBCs) based on cytoplasmic granules?
The two classifications of white blood cells based on cytoplasmic granules are granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils) and agranulocytes (monocytes or lymphocytes).
What are the characteristics of granulocytes and agranulocytes?
Granulocytes have obvious membrane-bound cytoplasmic granules, while agranulocytes lack obvious granules.
What is the main function of white blood cells (WBCs)?
The main function of white blood cells is to defend the body against infections and foreign substances.
Match the following neutrophil actions with their descriptions:
Lysozymes = Destroy/digest bacteria Defensin proteins = Act like antibiotics & poke holes in bacterial cell walls Strong oxidants = Destroy bacteria Direct actions against bacteria = Fastest response of all WBC to bacteria
Match the following neutrophil actions with their outcomes:
Release lysozymes = Bacteria destruction/digestion Release defensin proteins = Bacterial cell walls destruction Release strong oxidants = Bacteria destruction Direct actions against bacteria = Fast response
Match the following neutrophil actions with their effects on bacteria:
Lysozymes = Destroy/digest bacteria Defensin proteins = Poke holes in bacterial cell walls Strong oxidants = Destroy bacteria Direct actions against bacteria = Fastest response of all WBC
Match the following globulins with their correct functions:
α-globulins = Mainly transport haptoglobin(Hb), Ceruloplasmin(Cu) β-globulins = Transport transferrin(Fe) γ-globulins = Immunoglobulins - antibodies; combat pathogens Prothrombin = Promotes blood clotting
Match the following proteins with their primary roles:
Complement proteins = Aid in destruction of toxins and microorganisms Immunoglobulins = Antibodies; combat pathogens Prothrombin = Promotes blood clotting Transferrin = Transport of iron (Fe)
Match the following components with their associated globulins:
Haptoglobin(Hb) and Ceruloplasmin(Cu) = α-globulins Transferrin(Fe) = β-globulins Immunoglobulins = γ-globulins Prothrombin = Not associated with any specific globulin
Match the following eosinophil functions with their descriptions:
Leave capillaries to enter tissue fluid = Process of eosinophils exiting the blood vessels to reach the site of infection or inflammation Release histaminase = Action of eosinophils that helps slow down inflammation caused by basophils Attack parasitic worms = Eosinophils directly target and destroy parasitic worms Phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes = Eosinophils engulf and destroy antibody-antigen complexes, a process known as phagocytosis
Match the following roles of eosinophils with their descriptions:
Role in allergies and asthma = Eosinophils play a major role in allergic reactions and asthma by releasing toxic granules Role in modulating immune response = Eosinophils help regulate and modulate the overall immune response
Match the following eosinophil actions with their outcomes:
Release histaminase = Slows down inflammation caused by basophils Attack parasitic worms = Destroys parasitic worms Phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes = Eliminates harmful antibody-antigen complexes Role in allergies and asthma = Contributes to the development and progression of allergies and asthma
What are the functions of eosinophils?
Leave capillaries to enter tissue fluid, Release histaminase slows down inflammation caused by basophils, Attack parasitic worms, Phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes, Role in allergies and asthma, Role in modulating immune response
What is the role of eosinophils in allergies and asthma?
Eosinophils play a role in allergies and asthma by releasing histaminase to slow down inflammation caused by basophils.
What is the function of eosinophils in modulating the immune response?
Eosinophils have a role in modulating the immune response.
What are the functions of basophils?
Basophils are involved in inflammatory and allergy reactions. They leave capillaries and enter connective tissue, where they release heparin, histamine, and serotonin to heighten the inflammatory response and account for hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions. They are functionally similar to mast cells.
What is the role of basophils in inflammatory and allergy reactions?
Basophils release heparin, histamine, and serotonin, which heighten the inflammatory response and account for hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions.
How are basophils functionally similar to mast cells?
Basophils and mast cells have similar functions, such as releasing heparin, histamine, and serotonin. They both play a role in inflammatory and allergy reactions.
What are the functions of lymphocytes?
The functions of lymphocytes include destroying bacteria and their toxins, attacking viruses, fungi, transplanted organs, cancer cells, and some bacteria, and attacking many different microbes and some tumor cells.
Where are lymphocytes mostly found?
Lymphocytes are mostly found in lymphoid tissue, such as lymph nodes and spleen, with only a few circulating in the blood.
What is the role of B cells in immunity?
B cells destroy bacteria and their toxins and can turn into plasma cells that produce antibodies.
What is the role of natural killer cells in immunity?
Natural killer cells attack many different microbes and some tumor cells, and they destroy foreign invaders by direct attack.
What is the function of monocytes?
Monocytes leave circulation, enter tissues, and differentiate into macrophages. They are actively phagocytic cells and crucial against viruses, intracellular bacterial parasites, and chronic infections.
What happens to monocytes once they leave the capillaries?
Once monocytes leave the capillaries, they become wandering macrophages.
What is the primary role of wandering macrophages?
Wandering macrophages destroy microbes and clean up dead tissue following an infection.
How do monocytes differ from neutrophils in terms of their response to infection?
Monocytes take longer to get to the site of infection, but they arrive in larger numbers.
What is the role of monocytes in activating lymphocytes?
Monocytes activate lymphocytes to mount an immune response.
What is the role of adhesion molecules (selectins) in the immune response?
Adhesion molecules (selectins) help white blood cells (WBCs) stick to the endothelium near the site of injury.
What is the function of molecules (integrins) found on neutrophils?
Molecules (integrins) found on neutrophils assist in their movement through the wall.
What is the process by which neutrophils and macrophages eliminate bacteria and debris?
Neutrophils and macrophages phagocytize bacteria and debris.
What are the two families of cytokines that hormonally stimulate leukopoiesis?
Interleukins and colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
What are the names of the cytokines that belong to the interleukin family?
IL-1, IL-2
What are the names of the cytokines that belong to the colony-stimulating factor (CSF) family?
Granulocyte-CSF
Which cells are important sources of cytokines in leukopoiesis?
Macrophages and T cells
What are the clinical uses of haematopoietic hormones?
Stimulating bone marrow
What are the two broad categories of leukocyte disorders?
Leukopenia and leukemias
What is the difference between myeloid leukemia and lymphocytic leukemia?
Myeloid leukemia involves myeloblast descendants, while lymphocytic leukemia involves lymphocytes
Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?
Acute leukemia
Which type of leukemia is more prevalent in older people?
Chronic leukemia
What is the treatment for leukemia?
Irradiation, antileukemic drugs, and stem cell transplants
What is the role of thrombopoietin in platelet formation?
Thrombopoietin regulates platelet formation.
How long is the lifespan of platelets?
Platelets have a lifespan of about 10 days.
What keeps platelets inactive and mobile?
NO and prostacyclin from endothelial cells lining blood vessels keep platelets inactive and mobile.
What happens when platelets are activated?
Platelets form a temporary plug that helps to seal breaks in blood vessels when they are activated in response to injury.
What are the three phases of haemostasis?
Vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, coagulation
What is the purpose of vascular spasms in haemostasis?
To cause immediate vasoconstriction in response to injury and reduce blood loss
What chemicals do platelets store in granules for platelet plug formation?
Clotting factors, platelet-derived growth factor, ADP, ATP, Ca+2, serotonin, fibrin-stabilizing factor, and enzymes that produce thromboxane A2
What are the steps involved in platelet plug formation?
Platelet adhesion, platelet release reaction, and platelet aggregation
What do platelets stick to during platelet adhesion?
Exposed collagen underlying damaged endothelial cells in the vessel wall
What chemicals are released during platelet release reaction?
Thromboxane A2 and ADP, which activate other platelets, as well as serotonin and thromboxane A2, which act as vasoconstrictors to decrease blood flow through the injured vessel
What is platelet aggregation?
The process where activated platelets stick together and activate new platelets to form a mass called a platelet plug
What reinforces the platelet plug during the clotting process?
Fibrin threads formed during the clotting process
What are the reactions involved in haemostasis?
Vascular spasms, platelet plug formation, and coagulation
What are the chemicals stored in platelet granules for platelet plug formation?
Clotting factors, platelet-derived growth factor, ADP, ATP, Ca+2, serotonin, fibrin-stabilizing factor, and enzymes that produce thromboxane A2
What are the three phases of haemostasis?
Vascular spasms, Platelet plug formation, Coagulation
What is the process of platelet adhesion?
Platelets stick to exposed collagen underlying damaged endothelial cells in vessel wall
What is the process of platelet release reaction?
Platelets activated by adhesion extend projections to make contact with each other and release thromboxane A2 and ADP
What is the process of platelet aggregation?
Activated platelets stick together and activate new platelets to form a mass called a platelet plug
What is the role of thrombin in blood clotting?
Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin threads
What substances are required for blood clotting?
Ca+2, enzymes synthesized by liver cells, and substances released by platelets or damaged tissues
What is the main cause of anaemia due to chronic renal failure?
The kidneys produce erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin, leading to a decrease in red blood cell production and resulting in anaemia.
What is the primary cause of iron-deficiency anaemia?
Iron-deficiency anaemia is caused by a lack of iron in the body, which is necessary for red blood cell production.
What are the functions of eosinophils?
Eosinophils play a role in the immune response against parasitic infections and are involved in allergic reactions.
What is the function of molecules (integrins) found on neutrophils?
Integrins on neutrophils play a role in cell adhesion and migration during inflammation and immune response.
Which of the following is NOT required for blood clotting?
Prothrombin activator
What is the role of thrombin in blood clotting?
Converts fibrinogen into fibrin threads
Which pathway of blood clotting is triggered by exposure to tissue factor?
Extrinsic pathway
What is the function of platelets in blood clotting?
Release substances required for clotting
Which phase of blood clotting involves the formation of prothrombin activator?
Coagulation phase 1
What is the role of Ca+2 in blood clotting?
Activates the next clotting factor in the sequence
Which of the following triggers the intrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
All of the above
What is the function of fibrin threads in blood clotting?
Form the structure of a blood clot
What are the substances required for blood clotting?
All of the above
Which of the following is true about the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
It is faster than the intrinsic pathway
Which enzyme catalyzes the transformation of prothrombin to thrombin?
Prothrombin activator
How long does it take for a clot to form once prothrombin activator is formed?
10-15 seconds
What is the role of factor XIII in blood clotting?
Cross-links fibrin
What is the role of platelets in clot retraction and repair?
Platelets release fibrinogen and factor XIII to stabilize the clot.
What is the function of factor XIII in clot retraction?
Factor XIII cross-links fibrin strands to stabilize the clot.
What is the role of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) in clot retraction and repair?
PDGF stimulates the growth of new blood vessels.
What is the function of fibroblasts in clot retraction and repair?
Fibroblasts produce collagen to strengthen the wound.
What happens during clot retraction?
The clot pulls the edges of the damaged blood vessel together.
What is the role of endothelial cells in clot retraction and repair?
Endothelial cells multiply and restore the endothelial lining of the blood vessel.
What is the protein that is converted to fibrin by thrombin during blood clotting?
Fibrinogen
What is the protein that stabilizes the fibrin mesh in clot retraction and repair?
Factor XIII
What are platelets activated by when a blood vessel is damaged?
The damaged vessel wall
What is the initial role of the clot in clot retraction and repair?
To plug the ruptured area of the blood vessel
Which medication is a fast-acting anticoagulant often used in the hospital setting?
Heparin
Which medication is an oral anticoagulant that works by blocking the synthesis of vitamin K?
Warfarin
What is the purpose of citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) in blood banks?
To store blood
Which medication is used to dissolve blood clots in acute conditions such as stroke and heart attack?
Thrombolytic agents
Which medication directly activates plasminogen to dissolve blood clots?
Streptokinase
Which medication indirectly activates plasminogen by converting it to plasmin?
Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
Which medication can cause serious side effects, including bleeding?
Thrombolytic agents
Which medication is a slower-acting anticoagulant than heparin and can take several days to reach its full effect?
Warfarin
Which medication is used during hemodialysis and surgery to prevent blood clots from forming?
Heparin
Which ions are removed from the blood by citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) to prevent blood clots from forming in stored blood?
Calcium ions
Which vitamin is required for the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Vitamin K
Which cells are responsible for the rebuilding of the blood vessel wall?
Fibroblasts
What is the role of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) in clotting?
Rebuilding the blood vessel wall
What is the process by which a clot is dissolved?
Fibrinolysis
Which of the following is a symptom of haemophilia?
Subcutaneous hemorrhaging
Which clotting factor is lacking in haemophilia A?
Factor VIII
Which medication is used to prevent blood clotting during hemodialysis and surgery?
Heparin
Which medication is used to dissolve blood clots directly or indirectly?
Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
What is the primary cause of bleeding disorders?
Inability to synthesize procoagulants by the liver
What is the treatment for haemophilia?
Transfusions of fresh plasma
Which of the following is a potential cause of disseminated intravascular clotting?
Low oxygen levels
What is the main consequence of disseminated intravascular clotting?
Multisystem organ failure
When are blood transfusions necessary?
Substantial blood loss
What is the shelf life of collected blood at 4°C?
35 days
What are the antigens on RBC membranes used to classify blood groups?
Agglutinogens
What happens if RBCs with foreign antigens are transfused into another individual?
Agglutination
What are the proteins, glycoprotein, and glycolipid antigens on RBC membranes recognized as?
Foreign
When are packed red cells used in blood transfusions?
Anaemia
Which blood group has both A and B agglutinogens on their red blood cells (RBCs)?
Type AB
Which blood group has neither A nor B agglutinogens on their red blood cells (RBCs)?
Type O
Why is the ABO blood group system the most important for blood transfusions?
It is the most common blood group system
What can happen if a person receives a blood transfusion with incompatible blood?
Severe reaction
What are the symptoms of a mild transfusion reaction?
Fever and chills
What are the symptoms of a severe transfusion reaction?
Shock and organ failure
What are agglutinogens responsible for?
Blood transfusions
What are the two main types of agglutinogens?
A and B
What can antibodies against agglutinogens cause?
Transfusion reaction
Which of the following causes Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)?
Rh- antibodies of a sensitized Rh+ mother
What can prevent a Rh- mother from becoming sensitized?
Rh+ blood from a previous pregnancy of an Rh+ baby
What is the treatment for haemolytic disease of the newborn?
Pre-birth transfusions and exchange transfusions after birth
What is the purpose of typing and cross-matching blood?
To determine blood compatibility for transfusions
What happens when incompatible blood is mixed?
Agglutination (visible clumping) and formation of antigen-antibody complexes
What is the purpose of cross-matching in blood transfusions?
To test compatibility between donor cells and recipient's serum
What is the process of transfusion?
Transfer of whole blood, cells, or plasma into the bloodstream of the recipient
What happens during incompatible blood transfusions?
Antigen-antibody complexes form between plasma antibodies and 'foreign proteins' on donated RBCs
What is the final pigment that leaves the body in feces?
Urobilin
What causes problems in blood transfusions due to incompatibility?
Incompatibility between donor's cells and recipient's plasma
Test your knowledge of haemoglobin with this quiz! Learn about its structure, function, and role in oxygen transport. Can you answer questions about the number of polypeptide chains, the presence of haeme pigment, and its ability to carry oxygen? Take the quiz to find out!
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