Genome, Genomics and DNA Cloning

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Questions and Answers

What is the primary function of DNA ligase in the process of creating recombinant DNA?

  • Joining two DNA fragments together covalently. (correct)
  • Cleaving DNA at specific recognition sequences.
  • Introducing DNA into bacterial cells.
  • Synthesizing new DNA strands using a DNA template.

Which characteristic is typical of Type II restriction endonucleases?

  • They cleave DNA at random sites.
  • They consist of large, multisubunit complexes.
  • They require ATP for their activity.
  • They recognize and cleave DNA at specific sequences within the recognition site. (correct)

When a restriction endonuclease makes staggered cuts in DNA, what kind of ends are produced?

  • Methylated ends
  • Phosphorylated ends
  • Sticky ends (correct)
  • Blunt ends

What is the purpose of including restriction endonuclease cleavage sites in PCR-amplified DNA when generating a DNA segment to be cloned?

<p>To facilitate directional cloning of the amplified DNA into a vector. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a multiple cloning site (MCS) in a plasmid?

<p>A region with multiple restriction enzyme recognition sequences. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the origin of replication (ori) in a plasmid used for DNA cloning?

<p>It allows the plasmid to be selectively amplified in a host cell. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process involves introducing small plasmids into bacterial cells using a high-voltage pulse?

<p>Electroporation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do selectable markers function during the process of DNA cloning in bacteria?

<p>By preventing the growth of cells that have not taken up the plasmid. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary advantage of using shuttle vectors in genetic engineering?

<p>They can replicate in cells from two or more different species. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common reason for cloning a gene into an expression vector?

<p>To produce large quantities of the protein encoded by the gene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are eukaryotic genes often difficult to express directly in bacteria?

<p>Eukaryotic genes often contain introns that bacteria cannot process. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of bacterial promoters and operators in a bacterial expression vector?

<p>To regulate transcription of the cloned gene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common disadvantage of using bacteria as hosts for expressing eukaryotic proteins?

<p>Eukaryotic proteins may not fold correctly in bacterial cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of site-directed mutagenesis?

<p>To introduce specific, targeted changes into a DNA sequence. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common use for terminal tags, such as His-tags or GST-tags, that are added to recombinant proteins?

<p>To enable affinity purification of the protein. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR), what type of molecule serves as the initial template for creating a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand?

<p>Messenger RNA (mRNA) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between standard PCR and quantitative PCR (qPCR)?

<p>qPCR allows for real-time monitoring of DNA amplification. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of creating a DNA library?

<p>To create a collection of DNA clones for gene discovery and study. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are complementary DNAs (cDNAs) typically generated for the construction of a cDNA library?

<p>By reverse transcribing mRNA into DNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is meant by the term genome annotation?

<p>Identifying the locations and functions of genes and other critical sequences. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between orthologs?

<p>They are genes in different species that evolved from a common ancestral gene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is synteny?

<p>The conserved order of genes along a chromosome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique relies on fusing a target gene with the jellyfish green fluorescent protein (GFP) to visualize the protein's cellular location?

<p>Fusion protein microscopy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which describes the process where a target protein is precipitated along with its interacting partners using an antibody specific to the target?

<p>Immunoprecipitation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of guide RNAs (gRNAs) in the CRISPR/Cas system?

<p>To direct the Cas protein to a specific DNA sequence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An experiment assesses an enzyme's network of interactions within a cell. Which level of protein function is being investigated?

<p>Cellular function (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which technique enables assessment of gene expression levels under varying conditions?

<p>RNA-Seq (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes genes within a single species that are similarly related to each other?

<p>Paralogs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When characterizing protein function, what does the Yeast Two-Hybrid Analysis probe?

<p>molecular interactions in vivo. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher conducts an experiment determining what happens to a cell when a protein is missing. What method is being utilized?

<p>CRISPR/Cas9 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main use for a combinatorial library?

<p>library focusing on sequence variants within one gene (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which is NOT a step in the process of DNA cloning?

<p>perform a western blot on the protein produced (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main benefit to using mammalian cells in culture?

<p>proteins can be expressed either transiently or permanently (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a main difference between Sanger sequencing and Next-Gen sequencing?

<p>Sanger sequencing processes less base pairs than Next-Gen sequencing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major advantage when utilizing yeast cells as hosts?

<p>expression of eukaryotic genes can be more efficient (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What part of the CRISPR-Cas system serves to bind and destroy invading bacteriophage DNA?

<p>the complex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a listed advantage of bacterial hosts?

<p>regulatory sequences are poorly understood (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT directly affiliated with purification of protein complexes?

<p>Protein motifs (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do deletions do?

<p>cut out a segment with restriction endonucleases and ligating the remaining portions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What is a genome?

The complete haploid genetic complement of an organism.

What is genomics?

The study of DNA on a cellular scale, contributing to systems biology.

What is a clone?

An identical copy of a DNA segment or organism.

What is DNA cloning?

Selective amplification of a gene or DNA segment for study and utilization.

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What is recombinant DNA technology?

Methods to accomplish DNA cloning and related tasks.

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What are cloning vectors?

Small DNAs capable of autonomous replication, used to carry foreign DNA.

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What are recombinant DNAs?

Composite DNA molecules of covalently linked segments from two or more sources.

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What are restriction endonucleases?

Enzymes that recognize and cleave DNA at specific sequences.

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What are methylases?

Enzymes that catalyze methylation of host DNA to protect it from digestion.

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What is a restriction-modification system?

The restriction endonuclease and its corresponding methylase.

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What are type II restriction endonucleases?

Simpler than types I and III, require no ATP, and catalyze the hydrolytic cleavage of DNA phosphodiester bonds within the recognition sequence

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What are DNA ligases?

Joins the DNA fragment to be cloned to a suitable cloning vector.

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What are sticky ends?

Unpaired bases on the ends of DNA fragments, created by endonucleases.

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What are blunt ends?

No unpaired bases on the ends of DNA fragments, created by endonucleases.

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What are linkers?

Synthetic DNA fragments created to bridge ligated ends in DNA cloning.

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What is a multiple cloning site (MCS)?

Inserted DNA fragment with multiple recognition sequences for restriction endonucleases.

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What is a plasmid?

Circular DNA molecule that replicates separately from the host chromosome.

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What is the origin of replication (ori)?

Sequence where replication is initiated.

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What is transformation?

Laboratory process of introducing plasmids into bacterial cells via heat shock treatment.

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What is electroporation?

Laboratory process of introducing plasmids into bacterial cells via high-voltage pulses.

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What is a selectable marker?

Either permits the growth of a cell or kills the cell under defined conditions.

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What is a screenable marker?

Gene encoding a protein that causes the cell to produce a colored or fluorescent molecule.

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What are shuttle vectors?

Plasmids that can be propagated in cells of two or more species.

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What are expression vectors?

Cloning vectors with transcription and translation signals for regulated expression of a cloned gene.

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What is site-directed mutagenesis?

Technique used to individually replace specific amino acids in a protein.

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What is oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis?

Technique used to create a specific DNA sequence change, using synthetic oligonucleotides.

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What is a fusion protein?

Product of a ligated gene containing parts of two different genes.

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What is a tag?

Peptide or protein that binds a simple, stable ligand with high affinity and specificity.

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What is reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)?

Uses reverse transcriptase to generate a DNA strand from an RNA template.

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What is quantitative PCR (qPCR)?

Used to estimate relative copy numbers of particular sequences in a sample.

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What is a DNA library?

Collection of DNA clones, used for gene discovery and function determination.

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What are complementary DNAs (cDNAs)?

Double-stranded DNA fragments formed from mRNA templates, using reverse transcriptase.

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What is a cDNA library?

Population of clones created by inserting cDNA fragments into vectors for cloning.

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What is a combinatorial gene library?

Library focusing on sequence variants within one gene

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What is phenotypic function?

Describes the effects of a protein on the entire organism.

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What is cellular function?

Describes the network of interactions a protein engages in at the cellular level.

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What is molecular function?

Describes the precise biochemical activity of a protein.

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What is a transcriptome?

The entire complement of transcribed RNAs present at a given moment in the cell.

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What is a proteome?

The entire complement of proteins present at a given moment in a cell.

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What is comparative genomics?

Process by which gene functions can be assigned by using genome databases to perform genome comparisons.

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What is genome annotation?

Converts the sequence of residues into useful information about the location and function of genes and other critical sequences.

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Study Notes

Genome and Genomics

  • The genome is the complete haploid genetic complement of an organism.
  • Genomics is the study of DNA on a cellular scale.
  • Genomics contributes to systems biology, the study of biochemistry on whole cells and organisms.

Genes and DNA Cloning

  • A clone is an identical copy.
  • DNA cloning selectively amplifies a gene or DNA segment for study and utilization.
  • Recombinant DNA technology, or genetic engineering, includes methods for DNA cloning and related tasks.

Process of DNA Cloning

  • DNA cloning involves obtaining a DNA segment, selecting an autonomous replication molecule, joining the fragments covalently, and moving recombinant DNA to a host.
  • Host cells containing the recombinant DNA must be selected or identified.
  • Cloning vectors are small DNAs capable of autonomous replication.
  • Recombinant DNAs are composite DNA molecules with covalently linked segments from two or more sources.
  • E. coli cloning offers advantages like well-understood DNA metabolism and naturally occurring cloning vectors like plasmids.
  • E. coli cloning has techniques for moving DNA from one bacterial cell to another.

Restriction Endonucleases

  • Restriction endonucleases, or restriction enzymes, recognize and cleave DNA at specific sequences, called recognition sequences or restriction sites.
  • Methylases catalyze host DNA methylation, protecting it from digestion by the host cell's restriction endonucleases.
  • A restriction-modification system encompasses the restriction endonuclease and its corresponding methylase.
  • Type II restriction endonucleases are simpler than Types I and III, require no ATP, and catalyze hydrolytic cleavage of DNA phosphodiester bonds within the recognition sequence.
  • Restriction endonucleases can produce sticky or blunt ends.
  • Sticky ends are unpaired bases on the ends making staggered cuts that can base pair with each of their complementary sticky ends.
  • Blunt ends are ends with no unpaired bases on the ends due to endonucleases making straight cuts.

Restriction Enzymes and DNA Ligases

  • DNA ligases join DNA fragments to cloning vectors.
  • Including restriction endonuclease cleavage sites facilitates the subsequent cloning of amplified DNA.
  • Cleavage of PCR-amplified DNA creates sticky ends used to ligate the amplified DNA to a cloning vector.
  • Linkers are synthetic DNA fragments used to bridge ligated ends.
  • Multiple cloning sites (MCS) are inserted DNA fragments with multiple recognition sequences for restriction endonucleases, useful for inserting additional DNA later.

Plasmids and Vectors

  • Plasmids are circular DNA molecules that replicate independently from the host chromosome.
  • Plasmids range from 5,000 to 400,000 bp and often have a symbiotic role in the cell.
  • A constructed E. coli plasmid, pBR322, has key features like an origin of replication, resistance genes, and recognition sequences for restriction endonucleases.
  • Shuttle vectors are plasmids propagated in two or more species and incorporate multiple replication origins or other elements.
  • Bacterial transformation is a lab process that introduces small plasmids into bacterial cells using heat shock treatment.
  • Electroporation is a lab process that introduces small plasmids into bacterial cells through high-voltage pulses, transiently rendering the bacterial membrane permeable.
  • Selectable markers identify cells that have taken up plasmid DNA, permitting growth or killing cells under specified conditions.
  • Screenable markers are genes encoding proteins that produce a colored or fluorescent molecule.

Expressing Cloned Genes

  • Expression vectors are cloning vectors with transcription and translation signals for regulated expression of a cloned gene.
  • Purified proteins can elucidate protein function, study reaction mechanisms, generate antibodies, reconstitute complex activities, and examine protein-binding partners.
  • Virtually any organism can host protein expression from a different species, including bacteria and yeast.
  • Bacterial hosts are commonly used due to well-understood regulatory sequences, high expression levels, easy storage, and efficient transformation.
  • However, some heterologous proteins may not fold correctly and eukaryotic proteins may aggregate into insoluble precipitates, known as "inclusion bodies".
  • The Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a typically utilized and well-understood eukaryotic organism.
  • Principles of protein expression in yeast are similar to bacteria: Cloned genes require appropriate promoters, while gene expression is controlled by selecting an appropriate medium.
  • Mammalian cells in culture use engineered mammalian viruses as vectors.
  • Protein changes and Alterations: Site-directed mutagenesis can be used to replace specific amino acids.
  • Alterations to Cloned Genes product altered proteins. Site-directed mutagenesis is used to individually replace specific amino acids. Oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis is also used to create a specific DNA sequence change.

Affinity Purification Tags

  • Terminal tags are peptides or proteins that bind a simple, stable ligand with high affinity and specificity.
    • Used to fuse to genes encoding target proteins.
    • Permits purification by affinity chromatography.

PCR

  • Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) uses reverse transcriptase to generate DNA from an RNA template, followed by standard PCR.
  • Quantitative PCR (qPCR) or real-time PCR is used to estimate relative copy numbers of particular sequences in a sample
  • A DNA library contains a collection of DNA clones for gene discovery and determining gene or protein function.
  • Combinatorial or gene libraries focus on sequence variations within a gene.
  • Complementary DNAs (cDNAs) are double-stranded DNA fragments formed from mRNA templates. They depend on reverse transcriptases.
  • Clicker Question: Restriction endonucleases recognize and cleave DNA at specific sequences.
  • Clicker Question: The operator of a typical E. coli expression vector permits regulation by a repressor that binds to it.
  • Clicker Question: Tags for affinity purification may affect protein folding.

Protein Function

  • Phenotypic function describes effects on the entire organism.
  • Cellular function describes interactions at the cellular level.
  • Molecular function describes precise biochemical activity.
  • Transcriptome is the entire complement of transcribed RNAs, and its study is transcriptomics.
  • Proteome is the entire complement of proteins, and its study is proteomics.
  • Comparative genomics assigns gene functions using genome databases, with BLAST algorithms facilitating rapid searches.
  • Genome annotation converts the sequence of residues into useful information about the location and function of genes and other critical sequences.
  • Orthologs are genes in different species with a clear sequence and functional relationship.
  • Paralogs are similarly related genes within a single species.
  • Synteny is the conserved gene order, it provides additional evidence for an orthologous relationship between genes at identical locations within the related segments.
  • Sequence-associated structural motifs help define the molecular function.

Methods to determine protein function

  • Location analysis of protein and when: Proteins involved in reactions/processes must be present in specific location and moment. Techniques: RNA-Seq/transcriptomics, cell proteomes/mass spectrometry, fusion proteins/immunofluorescence.
  • Mass spectrometry accurately catalogs and quantifies proteins providing info about modified proteins complementing RNA-Seq.
  • Green fluorescent protein (GFP), a jellyfish protein, is a useful location marker that is of other colors and characteristics.
  • Immunofluorescence is an alternative approach for visualizing cellular endogenous protein.
  • Epitope tags are bound to a short and attached protein sequence by an antibody tightly.
  • Techniques: Purification of protein complexes and yeast two-hybrid analysis
  • CRISPR sequences regularly repeating sequences that use Cas protein for protection and immune defense.
  • The CRISPR-Cas protein complex contains transcribed viral sequences that are cleaved that activates CRISPR RNA and has at least +1 Cas proteins.
  • The complex destroys invading bacteriophage DNA by the Cas protein nuclease activities.
  • CRISPR Technology consist of Cas protein and can alter guide sequence and target genomic sequences.
  • Clicker Question: Cloning vectors are not sometimes plasmids, small circular DNA molecules lacking an ori sequence.
  • Clicker Question: Tags for affinity purification of tags may affect protein folding.

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