Week 14 Genetics 750
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Questions and Answers

Which type of genetic testing examines the chromosomes?

  • Direct or molecular testing
  • Biochemical testing
  • Linkage analysis
  • Cytogenetic testing (correct)

What is the primary goal of prenatal testing?

  • To lessen anxiety for expecting parents (correct)
  • To ensure the child has no genetic markers
  • To identify all genetic conditions in the fetus
  • To provide detailed treatment options for all conditions

Which testing method is NOT definitively diagnostic for genetic conditions?

  • Predictive testing
  • Carrier testing
  • Prenatal screening (correct)
  • Prenatal diagnostic testing

Which best describes presymptomatic testing?

<p>Testing that positively identifies gene mutations with guaranteed symptoms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these tests should be performed first in carrier testing?

<p>Mother's genetic test (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant advantage of non-disclosure preimplantation genetic diagnosis?

<p>Ensures children will not inherit certain late-onset disorders (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of testing evaluates the protein products of genes?

<p>Biochemical testing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following is predictive testing NOT typically used?

<p>Determining carrier status (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which test is performed at 15-18 weeks of gestation and provides a definitive diagnosis?

<p>Amniocentesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of autosomal recessive disorders?

<p>Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected outcome for 85% of patients with stage 1-2, node-negative, ER+ breast cancer treated with tamoxifen?

<p>They will experience no distant recurrence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk associated with chronic villi sampling?

<p>Increased risk of miscarriage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of individuals with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) develop polyps by age 35?

<p>95% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of carrier screening in genetic testing?

<p>To identify gene mutations in asymptomatic individuals (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes a key characteristic of Hereditary Non-polyposis Colorectal Carcinoma (HNPCC)?

<p>Cancer often occurs before age 50. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor increases the necessity for more invasive prenatal genetic testing?

<p>Abnormal maternal serum screen or ultrasound (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In patients at high risk for colorectal cancer due to FAP, when should genetic testing ideally begin?

<p>Age 10-11 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT an example of an autosomal recessive disorder?

<p>Huntington Disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of APOE-e4 in the context of Late Onset Alzheimer's Disease?

<p>It slightly increases the risk but is not definitive. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In predictive testing, which statement is true regarding the BRCA1/2 mutation?

<p>Positive results indicate an increased risk but not certainty of cancer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common recommendation prior to genetic testing for Huntington's Disease?

<p>Consult with a genetic counselor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary benefit of noninvasive prenatal genetic diagnosis?

<p>It is less risky and less expensive than invasive testing. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What screening is mandatory in every U.S. state?

<p>Newborn Screening (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic mutation is primarily associated with Hereditary Non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC)?

<p>MSH2/MLH1 mutations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which management strategy is linked to the identification of women at increased risk for HBOC?

<p>Enhanced preventive measures through targeted surveillance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Oncotype Dx test?

<p>To assess the likelihood of breast cancer recurrence. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

By which age does the risk for developing early onset Alzheimer’s Disease increase significantly in children of affected parents?

<p>40-50 years (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should individuals at high risk for colorectal cancer begin annual screenings?

<p>By age 10-11 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes disruption from deformation in tissue developmental abnormalities?

<p>Disruption involves the destruction of previously normal tissue. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which prenatal developmental stage is abnormal cell differentiation most likely to cause structural anomalies?

<p>Embryonic stage (4th to end of 7th week) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential causes of dysplasia as described in developmental abnormalities?

<p>Mutant genes affecting cellular biochemistry. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best defines malformation in prenatal development?

<p>It is a failure of completion of embryonic processes during early gestation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the most common reasons to consider a genetic diagnosis in a newborn, particularly relating to muscle tone?

<p>Hypotonia. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between prenatal screening and diagnostic testing?

<p>Screening indicates an increased risk, while diagnostic testing confirms a specific genetic condition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In predictive testing, what does predispositional testing, such as for BRCA1 and BRCA2, indicate?

<p>The individual has an increased risk, but it is not certain they will develop the disease. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which genetic testing approach examines the inheritance of gene markers linked to genetic conditions?

<p>Linkage analysis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What advantage does non-disclosure genetic testing provide for individuals with late-onset disorders?

<p>It ensures their children are free from inheriting the disease without revealing their own status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary goal of prenatal testing concerning the management of newborns?

<p>To deliver infants in a facility equipped for managing genetic conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of biochemical testing in the context of genetic conditions?

<p>Evaluating the metabolic products produced by genes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of carrier testing in genetic diagnostics?

<p>To identify individuals at risk for genetic conditions to inform reproductive choices. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of genetic testing directly analyzes DNA and RNA?

<p>Direct or molecular testing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk associated with amniocentesis?

<p>Increased risk of miscarriage (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the Maternal Serum Screening?

<p>To identify risks for certain birth defects (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of autosomal recessive disorders?

<p>Individuals must inherit two abnormal genes for the disorder to manifest (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of noninvasive prenatal genetic diagnosis can be considered a risk?

<p>May lead to easy termination decisions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of testing for BRCA1/2 mutations in families?

<p>To identify individuals at risk for developing breast cancer (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does a pedigree play in genetic assessments?

<p>It assists in outlining familial connections and risk factors for genetic diseases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which testing method is characterized by the need to first test affected family members?

<p>Genetic testing for cancer-related mutations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes a benefit of chronic villi sampling?

<p>Provides results at a very early stage of pregnancy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor increases the likelihood of a major malformation if one minor malformation is observed?

<p>Presence of three or more minor malformations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic feature of predictive testing for Huntington Disease?

<p>Indicates certainty of developing symptoms if the person lives long enough (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of conducting an extensive literature review during the diagnostic process for rare diseases?

<p>It identifies previously documented cases and potential correlations for the condition. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which prenatal factor is linked with an increased risk of birth defects?

<p>Maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is newborn screening mandatory in every state in the USA?

<p>To identify metabolic conditions early (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a function of postnatal history assessment?

<p>Assessing growth parameters and developmental milestones. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are major congenital anomalies defined in the context of genetic assessments?

<p>Anomalies that require medical or surgical intervention, indicating serious risk. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of gathering inadequate family history in genetic evaluations?

<p>Missed opportunities for presymptomatic diagnosis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of a genetic physical assessment aids in identifying subtle physical clues?

<p>Photographic comparisons to known genetic syndromes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by a lethal prognosis, typically resulting in death before age 1?

<p>Zellweger Syndrome (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the craniosynostosis condition where the skull grows in a parallel direction due to early closure of sutures?

<p>Scaphocephaly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is NOT commonly associated with Turner Syndrome?

<p>Low birth weight (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is directly associated with untreated Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

<p>Musty odor in the breath (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions typically presents with significant intellectual difficulties and a unique high-pitched cry?

<p>Cri-du Chat Syndrome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a result of congenital Zika infection?

<p>Severe microcephaly (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is indicative of Crouzon Syndrome?

<p>Fused coronal sutures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition involves a low hairline at the back of the neck as a clinical feature?

<p>Turner Syndrome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is NOT associated with Apert Syndrome?

<p>Clouded cornea (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is commonly associated with Albinism?

<p>Vision problems (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary abnormality found in Treacher Collins Syndrome?

<p>Down slanting palpebral fissures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is indicative of Huntington Disease?

<p>Long face (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by symptoms such as a prominent forehead and short limbs?

<p>Achondroplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Wardenburg Syndrome, which feature is NOT typically present?

<p>Cleft lip and palate (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What facial feature is associated with Cornelia de Lange Syndrome?

<p>Down turned lips (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which syndrome is characterized by symptoms like rocker bottom feet and microcephaly?

<p>Trisomy 18 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is primarily identified in males and affects the cornea?

<p>Hurler Syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT associated with congenital heart defects?

<p>Neurofibromatosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Cytogenetic testing

Examines chromosomes for genetic conditions.

Linkage analysis

Looks for markers connected to genes causing genetic diseases.

Molecular/Direct testing

Examines DNA and RNA for genetic conditions directly

Biochemical testing

Examines protein products produced by genes.

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Prenatal screening

Indicates increased risk of genetic conditions (not definitive).

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Prenatal diagnostic testing

Confirms presence or absence of specific genetic conditions in fetus.

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Predictive/Predispositional testing

Identifying higher risk of developing certain diseases later in life (not certain diagnosis).

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Presymptomatic testing

Testing for diseases that will definitely develop later in life if genes carry the disease.

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Oncotype Dx

A diagnostic test that estimates the likelihood of breast cancer recurrence in women with early-stage, ER-positive breast cancer.

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FAP

A genetic disorder causing numerous polyps in the colon, increasing the risk of colon cancer.

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HNPCC

A genetic syndrome increasing the risk of colorectal and other cancers, often at a younger age.

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Prophylactic Colectomy

Removal of the colon to prevent colorectal cancer development.

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Total Abdominal Hysterectomy and Bilateral Salpingo-Oophorectomy

Surgical removal of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries.

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Huntington Disease Testing

Genetic testing for the Huntington Disease gene, usually not recommended before age 18.

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APOE-e4

A genetic variant linked to increased risk of late-onset Alzheimer's disease.

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Presenilin 1 (PSEN1)

A gene mutation associated with early-onset Alzheimer's disease, causing onset in the 40s and 50s.

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Precursor Protein (APP)

A gene associated with early-onset Alzheimer's disease, causing onset in the 40s and 50s.

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Presenilin 2 (PSEN2)

A gene associated with early-onset Alzheimer's disease, causing onset between 40 and 75 years of age.

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Maternal Serum Screening

A type of prenatal screening that analyzes the mother's blood for certain markers associated with birth defects.

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Triple/Quad Test

A part of maternal serum screening that measures four substances in the mother's blood to look for birth defects like Down syndrome and neural tube defects.

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Invasive Prenatal Testing

Procedures that directly sample fetal tissue to diagnose conditions like Down syndrome with higher accuracy. These tests carry a small risk of miscarriage.

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Chronic Villi Sampling (CVS)

An invasive prenatal test that takes a sample of the placenta to test for genetic conditions. It's done earlier in pregnancy than amniocentesis. It is more risky than maternal serum screening.

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Amniocentesis

An invasive prenatal test that takes a sample of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus to diagnose genetic conditions. It's done later in pregnancy than CVS.

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Carrier Screening

A test that identifies individuals who carry a gene mutation for a recessive genetic condition but don't show symptoms themselves.

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Autosomal Recessive Disorders

Genetic disorders where both genes in a pair must be abnormal for the person to have the disorder.

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Newborn Screening

Mandatory tests performed on babies shortly after birth to identify potentially treatable conditions.

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Predictive Testing

Genetic testing used to assess an individual's risk for developing certain diseases later in life.

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Deformation

A change in the shape or form of a body part that occurs late in gestation due to pressure or constraints within the womb. It usually involves structures like cartilage, bone, and joints. Many deformities resolve spontaneously.

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Disruption

Damage or destruction of previously normal tissue caused by disruptive events like mechanical forces, insufficient blood supply (ischemia), or bleeding (hemorrhage). It affects different tissue types in a specific area.

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Dysplasia

Abnormal development of cells and tissues, often due to genetic errors. It can lead to structural abnormalities and often has severe, even lethal, consequences.

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Malformation

A birth defect that occurs early in pregnancy due to incomplete development of organs or body parts. These defects can be caused by genetic factors, environmental factors, or both.

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Critical Period

The specific time during embryonic development when organs are forming and are most vulnerable to disruptions that can lead to birth defects.

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What are the benefits for couples having prenatal testing?

Prenatal testing can help reduce parental anxiety, allow for early treatment of certain conditions, and provide a chance to prepare for a child with genetic conditions. It also enables couples to have a child without the condition, using techniques like sperm/egg donation or preimplantation diagnosis.

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Non-disclosure preimplantation genetic diagnosis

A testing option for people at risk of late-onset disorders like Huntington's, who don't want to know their own genetic status but want to ensure their children don't inherit the disease.

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What is the main goal of prenatal screening?

Prenatal screening aims to identify mothers with an increased risk of carrying a child with a neural tube defect or chromosomal abnormality. It is not a definitive diagnosis.

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What is the key distinction between prenatal screening and diagnostic testing?

Screening indicates increased risk, while diagnostic testing confirms or rules out specific genetic conditions in the fetus.

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What is the difference between predispositional and presymptomatic testing?

Predispositional testing shows a higher risk of developing a disease, but doesn't guarantee it. Presymptomatic testing confirms the presence of a gene that will definitely lead to the disease, with the onset depending on lifespan.

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Why does carrier testing usually start with the woman?

If the woman is negative for the genetic condition, testing the father is unnecessary. The father only needs to be tested if the woman is found to be a carrier.

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Example of direct/molecular testing

Directly examining the DNA and RNA of a person to find specific genes or mutations.

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Example of biochemical testing

Analyzing the protein products of genes to detect any abnormalities.

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Noninvasive Prenatal Screening

A type of prenatal testing that analyzes the mother's blood or uses ultrasound to identify potential risks of certain genetic conditions in the baby. It does not directly sample fetal tissue.

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Invasive Diagnostic Testing

A type of prenatal testing that involves directly sampling fetal tissue to confirm the presence or absence of specific genetic conditions. These tests are more precise but have a small risk of miscarriage.

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Genetic Testing for Cancer

Genetic testing that looks for specific gene mutations that can increase the risk of developing certain cancers. It is often recommended for individuals with a strong family history of cancer.

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Pedigree's Purpose

A pedigree is a visual family history chart used to identify genetic syndromes, diagnose genetic diseases before symptoms appear, find at-risk individuals, understand patterns of inheritance, and reveal social and biological relationships.

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Prenatal History: What to Track

Prenatal history examines factors during pregnancy that may impact fetal development, including multiple gestations, fetal movements, maternal conditions, medications, alcohol use, screening tests, ultrasounds, and past pregnancy outcomes.

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Perinatal History: Birth Details

Perinatal history captures events around the time of birth, including presentation, APGAR score, birth measurements, initial physical exam, and the baby's adaptation to life outside the womb.

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Postnatal History: Growth & Development

Postnatal history tracks the child's growth, body proportions, and development, both intellectually (smiling, talking) and physically (sitting, walking). It also notes any serious illnesses.

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Genetic Physical Assessment: Finding Clues

A genetic physical assessment involves a detailed examination to detect physical signs of potential genetic conditions, including subtle features, measurements, and photographs.

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Major Anomalies: Impact

Major anomalies require medical or surgical intervention and can occur as isolated problems or in multiples. They are a leading cause of health costs and morbidity in children.

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Minor Anomalies: Warning Signs

Minor anomalies, while not needing cosmetic or functional correction, can be clues to undiagnosed genetic conditions and may indicate the presence of an underlying, more serious malformation.

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Anomalies and Major Malformation Risk

The presence of minor anomalies increases the chance of a major malformation. One minor anomaly raises the risk by 3%, while three or more increase the risk to 90%.

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Hypotonia in newborns

A condition where babies have reduced muscle tone, limited voluntary movement, and increased joint flexibility, often due to underlying medical conditions.

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Importance of diagnosing hypotonia

It's crucial to identify the cause of hypotonia to understand the prognosis, guide management, and prevent secondary complications.

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What is Turner Syndrome?

A genetic disorder affecting females, characterized by short stature, webbed neck, low hairline, low-set ears, and other physical features.

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What is Macrocephaly?

An abnormally large head size, often associated with conditions like hydrocephalus or certain genetic syndromes.

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What is Microcephaly?

An abnormally small head size, often associated with developmental delays and intellectual disabilities.

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Cri-du-Chat Syndrome

A rare genetic disorder characterized by a distinctive high-pitched cry, microcephaly, intellectual disability, and other physical features.

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PKU (Phenylketonuria)

A genetic disorder affecting metabolism, causing an inability to break down phenylalanine, leading to potentially severe developmental issues if untreated.

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Craniosynostosis

A condition where one or more sutures in an infant's skull fuse prematurely, preventing normal skull growth and potentially affecting brain development.

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What is Apert Syndrome?

A genetic disorder causing premature fusion of skull bones (craniosynostosis), fused fingers and toes, and characteristic facial features.

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What are the eye features in Apert Syndrome?

Widely spaced eyes (hypertelorism) due to the skull bones fusing prematurely around the eyes.

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What is Wardenburg Syndrome characterized by?

A genetic disorder with features like a white patch of hair on the forehead (poliosis), different colored irises in both eyes, hearing loss, and inner canthi displaced outwards.

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What are the key features of Albinism?

A genetic condition causing lack of melanin pigment, resulting in pale skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes that are sensitive to light.

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What is Trisomy 13?

A genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 13, leading to a range of physical and mental abnormalities.

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What are the prominent features of Hurler Syndrome?

A genetic disorder primarily affecting males, characterized by clouded corneas, coarse facial features, and a large face with a wide nasal bridge and widely spaced teeth.

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What is Neurofibromatosis?

A genetic disorder causing tumors to grow on nerves and skin, often with distinctive skin markings like café-au-lait spots.

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What is Fragile X Syndrome?

A genetic disorder caused by a mutation on the X chromosome, leading to a range of physical and mental characteristics.

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What is Cornelia de Lange Syndrome?

A genetic disorder characterized by distinct facial features like a single eyebrow (synophrys), upturned nose (anteverted nares), and downturned lips.

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What is Velo-Cardo-Facial Syndrome 22q Microdeletion?

A genetic disorder caused by a deletion on chromosome 22, resulting in facial features like a small mouth, prominent nose, and learning difficulties.

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Study Notes

Genetic Testing: Across the Lifespan

  • Types of Genetic Testing:

    • Cytogenetic testing: Examines chromosomes.
    • Linkage analysis: Looks at markers inherited with a gene that causes a genetic condition.
    • Direct or molecular testing: Directly examines DNA and RNA.
    • Biochemical testing: Examines protein products of genes.
  • Genetic Testing Availability:

    • Prenatal diagnosis
    • Carrier testing (always test women first).
    • Confirmation of a genetic diagnosis.
    • Predictive testing:
      • Predispositional: Testing for BRCA1/2; doesn't mean disease development, just higher risk.
      • Presymptomatic: Positive test for Huntington's means eventual disease development with enough time.
    • Prenatal Testing includes screening and diagnostic testing.
      • Screening is not definitive, and indicates risk of certain birth defects or chromosomal abnormalities.
      • Diagnostic testing indicates specific genetic conditions in a fetus.

Ethnic Backgrounds at Increased Risk

  • Ashkenazi Jewish: Gaucher disease, cystic fibrosis, Tay-Sachs, Canavan disease, Fanconi anemia, Niemann-Pick, and Bloom syndrome.
  • French-Canadian: Tyrosinemia, Tay-Sachs disease.
  • African-American: Sickle cell anemia.
  • Mediterranean: Beta-thalassemia.
  • Southwest Asian: Beta-thalassemia, Alpha-thalassemia.
  • Northern European: Beta-thalassemia, Alpha-thalassemia, Hemochromatosis, Alpha-antitrypsin deficiency.

Goals of Prenatal Testing

  • Lessen anxiety, especially in couples with a strong family history of genetic conditions.
  • Treat some conditions prenatally (e.g., neural tube defects).
  • Allow couples to prepare for a child with a genetic condition.
  • Give families the option of having their child born in a healthcare facility with appropriate resources.
  • Enable some infertile couples to have a child without the genetic condition (e.g., using donor gametes or preimplantation genetic diagnosis).

Types of Prenatal Testing

  • Noninvasive Prenatal Screening:

    • Maternal serum screening
    • Ultrasound
  • Invasive Diagnostic Testing:

    • Chronic villi sampling (11-13 weeks) -increased risk of miscarriage ~1:150
    • Amniocentesis (15-18 weeks) -increased risk of miscarriage ~1:200
    • Maternal Serum Screening- Blood test to identify women at increased risk of birth defects (15-20 weeks).

Previous Child with Chromosome Abnormalities

  • Previous child with a chromosome abnormality
  • Presence of a structural chromosome abnormality in one of the parents
  • Family history of a genetic disorder
  • Abnormal maternal serum or ultrasound

Noninvasive Prenatal Genetic Diagnosis

  • Benefits: definitive diagnosis, less risky, less expensive than invasive testing.
  • Risks: decision to terminate, decrease in services for children with Down syndrome.

Carrier Screening

  • Testing identifies individuals with genes for a genetic condition, without symptoms, that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
  • Both genes must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed.
  • Examples include PKU, Sickle Cell Anemia, Cystic Fibrosis, and Tay Sachs disease.

Newborn Screening

  • Mandatory in most US states.
  • Identifies PKU and hypothyroidism, as well as other conditions.

Predictive Testing (2 Types)

  • Predispositional:
    • Genetic testing for BRCA1/2 mutations shows risk for, but does not guarantee, breast cancer.
  • Presymptomatic:
    • Mutation analysis for Huntington's Disease determines if symptoms will appear, given enough time.

Genetic Testing for Cancer

  • Families with a strong family history of cancer (especially at a young age) have a greater chance of finding a mutation using testing.

Predictive Testing for other conditions

  • Detailed predictive testing is available for various conditions, including late-onset Alzheimer's disease. This assesses the APOE-e4 genetic markers.

Other Important Notes

  • Oncotype Dx Story: A diagnostic assay for breast cancer recurrence.
  • Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP): High risk for colon cancer development.
  • Hereditary Non-polyposis Colorectal Carcinoma (HNPCC): Cancer occurs at a younger age; usually before age 50.
  • Whole Genome Sequencing: Used to diagnosis rare diseases.
  • Prenatal History: Important factors, including multiple gestation.
  • Anomalies: Major and minor anomalies.

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Explore the various types of genetic testing available throughout life, including cytogenetic testing, linkage analysis, and more. This quiz covers topics such as prenatal diagnosis, carrier testing, and predictive testing methods. Understand the implications of genetic tests and their impact on health.

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