General Microbiology and Immunology, PMB201, Lecture 4B
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary advantage of indirect immunofluorescence over direct immunofluorescence?

  • It uses a broader range of fluorescent dyes.
  • Direct fluorochrome tagging provides clearer results.
  • Indirect methods require a smaller sample size.
  • Indirect immunofluorescence allows for signal amplification. (correct)
  • In the context of the immunochromatography test, what is the role of the control line?

  • It provides the mechanism for antibody binding.
  • It serves as the primary detection site.
  • It validates the test's validity. (correct)
  • It indicates the concentration of the antigen.
  • Which component is added last in the ELISA method described?

  • Capture antibody
  • Secondary antibody
  • Primary antibody
  • Substrate (correct)
  • What method uses dye-labelled antibodies to detect antigens in serum or microorganisms?

    <p>Immunofluorescence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which process results in the formation of a precipitate from the interaction between antibodies and antigens?

    <p>Precipitation reactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of immunofluorescence directly tags the antibody specific to the antigen?

    <p>Direct immunofluorescence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the labeled antibody in immunochromatography?

    <p>To specifically bind to the target antigen.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which immunological test is used for the diagnosis of syphilis?

    <p>Indirect immunofluorescence</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main principle behind direct agglutination reactions?

    <p>Detection of antibody using a soluble antigen in a serum sample</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test uses agglutination principles to diagnose syphilis?

    <p>Rapid Plasma Reagin test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In indirect agglutination tests, what surface is NOT commonly used to bind antigens?

    <p>Plastic beads</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of clumping in a slide test indicate?

    <p>Presence of syphilis antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which agglutination reaction is primarily used for blood grouping?

    <p>Direct agglutination</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is a characteristic of agglutination inhibition tests?

    <p>Measure soluble antigens using specific antibodies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The hemagglutination test detects interactions between what two components?

    <p>Antibodies and red blood cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT an application of indirect agglutination tests?

    <p>Testing for diphtheria bacilli</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the term 'titer' refer to in serological reactions?

    <p>The highest dilution of antibody producing a visible reaction</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a type of serological reaction?

    <p>Chromatography</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary disadvantage of the direct ELISA method?

    <p>Immunoreactivity is affected by labeling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the indirect ELISA method, what is the role of the labeled secondary antibody?

    <p>To bind to the primary antibody and measure enzyme label</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which enzyme is commonly used in ELISA techniques?

    <p>Alkaline phosphatase (AP)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of serological reaction uses a known antibody to detect an unknown antigen?

    <p>Direct ELISA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common application of ELISA in disease management?

    <p>Tracking the spread of disease outbreaks</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the substrates used in the detection process of ELISA?

    <p>3,3'5,5'-Tetramethylbenzidine (TMB)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    General Microbiology and Immunology, PMB201, Lecture 4B

    • Serology is a branch of laboratory medicine that tests for infection.
    • It evaluates antigen-antibody reactions in vitro.
    • It can detect and identify unknown antibodies using known antigens.
    • It can detect and identify unknown antigens using known antibodies.
    • Titer refers to the highest dilution of antibody that produces a visible reaction with an antigen.

    Types of Serological Reactions

    • ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
    • Precipitation
    • Agglutination
    • Neutralization test
    • Complement fixation test (CFT)
    • Immunofluorescence (IF)
    • Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
    • Blotting techniques

    Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

    • It is an immunoassay technique that involves the reaction of antigen and antibody in vitro.
    • ELISA is a sensitive and specific assay for the detection (and quantitation) of antigens or antibodies.
    • Principle: The antigen is immobilized to a solid surface(directly or by a capture antibody).
    • The antigen is detected by an antibody conjugated with an enzyme (horseradish peroxidase (HRP) or alkaline phosphatase (AP)).
    • The enzyme is detected by a substrate (e.g., 3,3',5,5'-Tetramethylbenzidine (TMB) or p-Nitrophenyl Phosphate (PNPP)).

    Applications of ELISA

    • Serum antibody concentrations
    • Disease outbreaks tracking
    • Detection of antibodies in blood samples for previous infection.
    • Detection of antigens (e.g., pregnancy hormones, drug allergens)
    • Detection of potential food allergens (e.g., milk, peanuts, walnuts, almonds, and eggs)

    Types of ELISA

    • Direct ELISA
    • Indirect ELISA
    • Sandwich ELISA
    • Competitive ELISA

    Direct ELISA

    • Uses a labelled primary antibody that directly reacts with the antigen.
    • Disadvantages: Immunoreactivity of the primary antibody is affected by labeling with enzymes or tags.

    Indirect ELISA

    • Antigen is bound to a solid phase
    • Antibody tested serum (primary antibody) is added
    • Known labeled secondary antibody binds with enzyme.
    • Measure enzyme label

    Sandwich ELISA

    • Plate is coated with a capture antibody
    • Sample is added and antigen binds to the capture antibody
    • Primary antibody binds to the antigen
    • Enzyme-linked secondary antibody binds to the detecting antibody.
    • Substrate is added, converted into a detectable form by the enzyme

    Immunofluorescence test

    • Fluorescent dyes (e.g., fluorescein or rhodamine) are attached to known specific antibodies (Abs) to detect the presence of antigens (Ag) in serum or microorganisms in a sample.
    • It's valuable for identifying and locating antigens on cell surfaces or tissues.
    • Types: Direct and Indirect

    Direct Immunofluorescence

    • The antibody specific to the antigen is directly tagged with the fluorochrome.
    • Used in detecting rabies virus in brain smears.

    Indirect Immunofluorescence

    • The antibody specific for the antigen is unlabeled.
    • A second antibody directed toward the first antibody is tagged with the fluorochrome.
    • Indirect fluorescence is more sensitive due to signal amplification.
    • Used in detecting syphilis.

    Immunochromatography (Rapid test)

    • Speed method for the etiologic diagnosis of infections
    • Dye-labelled antibody specific for the target antigen is present on the end of a nitrocellulose strip/plastic well
    • Antibody specific for the target antigen binds to the strip
    • Either antibody specific for the labelled antibody or the antigen is bound at the control line
    • Test (T): Presence/absence of Antigen or Antibody determined.
    • Control (C): Assesses Validity of the Test.
    • Applications: HCV (serum antibody), HBC (serum antigen), pregnancy hormones (HCG)

    Precipitation reactions

    • Interaction between antigen and antibody molecules resulting in precipitate formation from solution.
    • Types: Ring test, Tube test.

    Ring test

    • Ascoli's thermoprecipitin test, used for diagnosing anthrax.

    Tube test

    • A simple quantitative tube precipitation test (e.g., Kahn's test) for syphilis.

    Slide test

    • Antigen and antibody mixed on a slide producing floccules (for positive tests), used for VDRL syphilis test.

    Immunodiffusion

    • Elk test for toxigenicity in diphtheria bacilli

    Agglutination reactions

    • Interaction between antibody and antigen resulting in visible clumping (agglutination).
    • If the antigen is an erythrocyte, the interaction is called hemagglutination.
    • Types: Direct agglutination tests, Indirect agglutination tests, Hemagglutination inhibition.

    Direct Agglutination Reaction

    • Detects soluble antibodies in serum using specific antigen.
    • Serum is serially diluted.
    • Antigen is added, mixed, and incubated.
    • Results are expressed as a titer (highest dilution with positive agglutination).
    • Applications: blood grouping, brucellosis, typhoid (enteric fever).

    Widal Test

    • Rapid slide test or quantitative tube test
    • Detects presence/absence of S. Typhi and S. Paratyphi antibodies
    • Results interpreted based on antibody rise, signifying recent or convalescent stage infection

    Indirect Agglutination

    • Tests for antibodies in patient serum using antigens bound to artificial surfaces (latex, RBCs, bentonite, or charcoal).
    • Antibody reaction to antigens leads to agglutination of carrier particles (visible clumps).
    • Applications: pregnancy hormone assays, rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis (Rose-Waaler test)

    Agglutination Inhibition

    • Tests for soluble antigens in patient serum using reagent antibody specific for the antigen and reagent antigen (latex or RBCs).
    • Presence of antigen blocks reagent antibody from binding to particles, thereby inhibiting agglutination and showing absence antigen.
    • Applications: virus infection detection, illegal drug detection.

    The Adaptive or Specific Immune System

    • It takes effects after the innate immune response.
    • It's the third line of defense against infection.
    • It is specific, acquired, and has immune memory.
    • It involves B and T lymphocytes

    Adaptive Immunity: Functions

    • Recognizes specific antigens.
    • Eliminates specific pathogens or infected cells.
    • Develops immunological memory (memory cells).

    Adaptive Immunity: Composition

    • Cellular immunity (T-cells):
      • Eliminates pathogens that have invaded cells (intracellular infection).
    • Humoral immunity (B-cells):
      • Provides antibodies to bind pathogens and their products (extracellular infection).

    Cell Surface Molecules: Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

    • Each cell possesses glycoprotein surface molecules (MHC or HLA).
    • Class I MHC: found on the surface of all nucleated cells; CD8+ cytotoxic T cells recognize antigens associated with MHC class I.
    • Class II MHC: found on the surface of Antigen-presenting cells; CD4+ Helper T cells recognize antigens in association with MHC class II.

    T Cell-Mediated Immune Response: Antigen Recognition

    • T cells develop in bone marrow and mature in the thymus.
    • Naïve T cells move to secondary lymphoid organs.
    • Naïve T cells recognize antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells (e.g., dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells).

    T Cell Activation

    • Signal 1: TCR binds to antigen-MHC combination.
    • Signal 2: Costimulatory molecules (e.g., CD28) bind, activating the T cell.
    • Signal 3: Cytokines from antigen-presenting cells activate the T cell to an effector phenotype.

    Anergy

    • State of immune unresponsiveness.
    • Induced when the TCR is stimulated without a co-stimulatory signal.

    T Cell Proliferation and Differentiation

    • Naive T cells respond to different antigens presented through MHC.
    • Naive T cells proliferate into effector T cells.
    • Effector T cell types: Helper T cells (Th1, Th2, Th17, Tfh), Cytotoxic T cells (Tc), Regulatory T cells (Treg), Memory T cells.

    T-Effector Cells (Helper T Cells)

    • Do not directly kill invading pathogens.
    • Have no phagocytic or cytotoxic activity.
    • Help other immune cells (e.g., by activating the immune response and releasing cytokines).
    • Helper T cells express CD4 receptors that bind peptides displayed by class II MHC molecules.

    Exogenous Antigens

    • Inhaled, ingested, or injected antigens are taken up by antigen-presenting cells (APCs), such as dendritic cells and macrophages.
    • Antigens are degraded into fragments (short peptides).
    • The fragments are displayed with MHC class II molecules.
    • Helper T (CD4+/Th) cells recognize the antigen.
    • CD4+/Th cells release cytokines to stimulate the humoral immune response and antibody production.

    ###Humoral Immunity: B Cells

    • Produced in bone marrow.
    • Involved in humoral immunity.
    • Migrate to secondary lymphoid tissues (lymph nodes, spleen, lymphatic tissue).
    • Activated into plasma cells and memory cells.

    B Cell Activation

    • Activation mechanisms: T-dependent antigen activation, T-independent antigen activation.

    T-Dependent Antigens

    • Requires Th cell help.
    • Most antigens are proteins
    • Activation of B cells by T cells results in plasma and memory cells.

    T-Independent Antigens

    • Direct activation of B cells by antigens.
    • Antigens (e.g., polysaccharides) can cross-link B cell receptors and induce activation without T-cell help.
    • Plasma cells are activated, but no memory cells are generated.

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    Description

    This quiz covers essential concepts from Lecture 4B of PMB201, focusing on serology and its various applications in laboratory medicine. Key topics include the evaluation of antigen-antibody reactions, types of serological reactions, and the principles of the ELISA technique. Test your understanding of these critical immunology topics!

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