NURS8022 Exam 4 Uni of Cincinnati mix of med/hard questions

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Questions and Answers

What is the most common cause of SIADH?

Altered hormone inactivation or degradation

Failure of target cell to respond to its hormone

Excessive production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Ectopic secretion of ADH (correct)

What is the main effect of high levels of ADH in SIADH?

Increased water reabsorption by the kidneys (correct)

Decreased water reabsorption by the kidneys

Increased sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

Decreased sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

What type of hyponatremia is present in SIADH?

Hypervolemic hyponatremia

Euvolemic hypotonic (dilutional) hyponatremia (correct)

Normovolemic hyponatremia

Hypovolemic hyponatremia

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of SIADH?

increased total body water (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the basic pathophysiology of hypopituitarism?

Decreased production of pituitary hormones (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are the typical deficiencies seen in panhypopituitarism?

Decreased production of all pituitary hormones (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the esophageal sphincters?

To prevent air from entering the esophagus during respiration (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones is MOST responsible for enhancing the relaxation of the stomach?

Cholecystokinin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of salivary amylase?

To initiate the digestion of carbohydrates (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors MOST delays gastric emptying?

Fats (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the vagus nerve in relation to the stomach?

To stimulate gastric secretion and motility (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a true statement about the composition of gastric juice?

Potassium levels are lower in gastric secretions than in plasma (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter?

To prevent regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones is MOST responsible for enhancing gastric peristalsis?

Gastrin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the stomach's muscle layers?

To mix the food with the digestive juices (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the taste buds and olfactory nerves in the mouth?

To initiate the secretion of saliva (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the small intestine?

To absorb vitamins, minerals, fats, sugars, carbohydrates, and proteins (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the small intestine absorbs carbohydrates and proteins?

Jejunum (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the colon?

To serve as a reservoir for fecal matter and absorb water and electrolytes (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down starches in carbohydrate digestion?

Amylase (B) Signup and view all the answers

How are amino acids absorbed from the small intestine?

Through active transport with sodium cotransport (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the defecation reflex?

To create the urge to defecate by relaxing the internal anal sphincter (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Vitamin D deficiency (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes mellitus?

Is a type of diabetes that develops during pregnancy (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a component of the metabolic syndrome?

Vitamin D deficiency (A) Signup and view all the answers

In type 2 diabetes mellitus, which of the following is observed in pancreatic alpha cells?

Less responsiveness to glucose inhibition resulting in increased glucagon release (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Autoantibodies are produced against islet cells and other cytoplasmic proteins (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a complication of diabetes mellitus?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Autoimmune destruction of parathyroid glands (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone deficiency leads to a lack of secondary sex characteristics in both males and females?

FSH and LH deficiency (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism that develops autoantibodies towards the thyroid?

Graves' disease (C) Signup and view all the answers

In hypothyroidism, what is the primary cause of central (secondary) hypothyroidism?

Conditions causing pituitary or hypothalamic failure (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary manifestation of hyperparathyroidism?

Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by decreased LOC, hypothermia, hypoventilation, hypotension, and coma?

Myxedema coma (A) Signup and view all the answers

Acromegaly is primarily caused by the hypersecretion of which hormone in adulthood?

GH (B) Signup and view all the answers

Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) can result from excessive stress on patients with:

Hyperthyroidism (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the digestive system is responsible for the initial voluntary phase of swallowing?

Oropharynx (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the salivary glands?

To produce saliva that aids in digestion (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors MOST enhances gastric peristalsis?

Motilin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter)?

To prevent regurgitation of stomach contents back into the esophagus (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key component of the composition of gastric juice?

Potassium (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the vagus nerve in relation to the stomach?

To stimulate gastric secretion and motility (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is MOST responsible for enhancing the relaxation of the stomach?

Cholecystokinin (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the taste buds and olfactory nerves in the mouth?

To stimulate the secretion of saliva (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which factor MOST delays gastric emptying?

Fats (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the stomach's muscle layers?

To store and mix food with digestive juices (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starches in the small intestine?

Amylase (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which nutrient is primarily absorbed in the ileum of the small intestine?

Bile salts and vitamin B12 (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the cecum and appendix in the large intestine?

Connection between the small and large intestines (D) Signup and view all the answers

How are fatty acids and monoglycerides made water-soluble for absorption in the small intestine?

Through emulsification with bile salts (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which part of the small intestine is primarily responsible for the absorption of carbohydrates and proteins?

Jejunum (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the defecation reflex in the colon?

To create the urge to defecate by relaxing the internal anal sphincter (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances is secreted by parietal cells of the stomach?

Hydrochloric acid (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is responsible for breaking down proteins in the stomach?

Pepsin (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of mucus secreted in the stomach?

To protect the mucosal barrier (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

Caffeine (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the strongest stimulation of pepsin secretion?

Acetylcholine via vagal stimulation (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor that inactivates pepsin in the duodenum?

Alkaline environment (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the hepatocytes in the liver?

Synthesize bile and secrete it into the bile canaliculi (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

Producing insulin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of bile salts in the digestive process?

Emulsifying and aiding in the absorption of fats (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the gallbladder?

Storing and concentrating bile between meals (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of pancreatic enzymes in the digestive process?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

How does the liver help regulate blood glucose levels?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of impaired bile production on vitamin K absorption?

Decreased clotting factor synthesis and increased risk of bleeding (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the ileogastric reflex?

Inhibits gastric motility when the ileum is distended (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the Kupffer cells in the liver?

Phagocytize foreign substances and bacteria (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the stellate cells in the liver?

Regulate sinusoidal blood flow and participate in liver fibrosis (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk factor for the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Obesity (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of pain is usually poorly localized, diffuse, and vague, in the context of abdominal pathologies?

Visceral pain (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical presentation of an upper esophageal obstruction?

Discomfort 2-4 seconds after swallowing (D) Signup and view all the answers

In the context of gastrointestinal pathologies, what does frothy and fatty stool indicate?

Problems with fat digestion (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which region of the abdomen is most commonly associated with discomfort from gallbladder or liver disease?

RUQ (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of narrow or ribbon-like stools in the lower GI tract?

Inflammatory bowel disease (C) Signup and view all the answers

What symptom is typically associated with malabsorption syndromes?

Steatorrhea and diarrhea (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which glandular disorder is commonly associated with difficulty beginning swallowing both solids and liquids?

Pancreatic disease (C) Signup and view all the answers

In the context of gastrointestinal bleeding, what does black, tarry stool typically indicate?

Pepto Bismol intake (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary manifestation of an acute bacterial or viral infection affecting the GI tract?

Fever with or without cramping pain (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of gastrin?

To stimulate the secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are responsible for secreting pepsinogen in the stomach?

Chief cells (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the ileocecal valve?

To admit chyme from the ileum into the cecum and prevent its reflux (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of gastric secretion is stimulated by the presence of digested protein in the stomach?

Gastric phase (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are responsible for secreting somatostatin in the stomach?

D cells (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the myenteric plexus in the small intestine?

To mediate intrinsic motor innervation (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are responsible for secreting histamine in the stomach?

Enterochromaffin-like cells (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the villi in the small intestine?

To facilitate the absorption of nutrients (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the secretion of digestive enzymes from the pancreas?

Cholecystokinin (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the external anal sphincter?

To regulate the voluntary release of feces from the rectum (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of duodenal ulcers?

They are characterized by chronic, persistent pain (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary cause of gastric ulcers?

H. pylori infection leading to increased mucosal permeability (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of ulcer is related to severe illness, neural injury, or systemic trauma?

Stress ulcer (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Abdominal cramping (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gastritis is associated with autoantibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor?

Fundal gastritis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of physiologic reflux?

The regurgitated gastric contents are neutralized and cleared within 1-3 minutes (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by symptoms of reflux disease but no visible mucosal injury?

Nonerosive reflux disease (NERD) (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gastritis is associated with H. pylori infection and NSAID use?

Antral gastritis (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen in the stomach?

Histamine (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone acts to inhibit the secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

Prostaglandins (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of intrinsic factor secreted in the stomach?

Enhancing iron absorption (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which substance acts as a protective barrier against acidic damage in the stomach?

Nitric oxide (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of gastroferrin secreted in the stomach?

Enhancing iron absorption (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which substance is responsible for breaking down food fibers in the stomach?

Pepsin (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN function of the duodenum in the small intestine?

To receive chyme from the stomach and absorb vitamins, minerals, fats, and sugars (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of large protein molecules in the small intestine?

Trypsin and chymotrypsin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN purpose of the micelle formation process in fat digestion and absorption?

To facilitate the passive diffusion of fatty acids and monoglycerides into the intestinal epithelium (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following processes is PRIMARILY responsible for the absorption of amino acids in the small intestine?

Active transport using sodium-dependent carriers (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of the appendix in the large intestine?

To act as a lymphoid organ and play a role in the immune system (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of the defecation reflex in the colon?

To control the voluntary contraction and relaxation of the external anal sphincter (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which nerve allows relaxation of the esophagus during swallowing?

Vagus nerve (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter?

Preventing regurgitation from the stomach (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the composition of saliva that contains substances aiding in carbohydrate digestion?

Potassium, chloride, and salivary a-amylase (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the pancreatic enzymes secreted into the duodenum?

To break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats for digestion (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which cell type in the liver is responsible for the storage and regulation of vitamin A?

Stellate cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the ileogastric reflex in the gastrointestinal tract?

To inhibit gastric motility when the ileum is distended (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells in the liver?

To phagocytose and remove foreign substances and bacteria from the blood (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary function of bile produced by the liver?

To emulsify and facilitate the absorption of fats in the small intestine (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the gallbladder in the digestive system?

To store and concentrate bile between meals for release into the duodenum (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the stellate cells (Ito cells) in the liver?

To store and regulate the levels of vitamin A in the liver (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which the liver helps regulate blood glucose levels?

By releasing glucose during hypoglycemia and taking up glucose during hyperglycemia (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the defecation reflex in the colon?

To relax the internal anal sphincter and allow for the expulsion of stool (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the ileogastric reflex in the gastrointestinal tract?

To inhibit gastric motility when the ileum is distended (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of gastroferrin secreted by the parietal cells in the gastric glands?

Prevention of inflammation and ulceration in the stomach (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of gastric secretion is stimulated by the presence of digested protein in the stomach?

Gastric phase (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the peritoneal cavity?

To provide a space for the movement of abdominal organs (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of the villi in the small intestine?

Regulation of intestinal motility (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the ileocecal valve?

To prevent reflux of chyme from the cecum into the ileum (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach's muscle layers?

Absorption of nutrients from the chyme (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the mucosal plexus in the small intestine?

Innervation of the intestinal smooth muscle (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of the salivary amylase in the mouth?

Breakdown of proteins in the food (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the enterochromaffin-like cells in the gastric glands?

Secretion of histamine (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary function of the ileogastric reflex?

Inhibition of gastric motility (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of visceral pain in the gastrointestinal tract?

It is poorly localized, diffuse, and vague. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following stool characteristics may indicate a lower gastrointestinal bleed?

Bloody stools (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which biochemical mediator, released during the inflammatory response, can stimulate pain nerve endings in the gastrointestinal tract?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which region of the abdomen is typically associated with pain originating from the appendix?

Right lower quadrant (RLQ) (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of an extrinsic mechanical obstruction of the esophagus?

It is caused by structures outside the esophageal lumen pressing inward and narrowing the esophagus. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions can contribute to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) by increasing abdominal pressure?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is a risk factor for the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following stool characteristics may indicate a problem with fat digestion or absorption?

Frothy, fatty stools (steatorrhea) (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) caused by a lower esophageal obstruction?

Discomfort 10-15 seconds after swallowing (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers?

H. pylori infection causing increased acid and pepsin concentrations in the duodenum (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes nonerosive reflux disease (NERD) from other forms of reflux?

Absence of visible mucosal injury despite symptoms of reflux disease (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gastritis is associated with autoimmune mechanisms, involving autoantibodies against parietal cells and intrinsic factor?

Fundal (upper) gastritis, also known as type A gastritis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the development of stress ulcers?

Decreased mucosal blood flow and overstimulation of the vagal nerve (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the clinical manifestations of gastric ulcers is true?

Pain from gastric ulcers tends to occur immediately after eating and is chronic rather than intermittent. (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary defect in the pathogenesis of gastric ulcers caused by H. pylori infection?

Increased mucosal permeability to hydrogen ions (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of ulcer is characterized by the formation of 'curling ulcers' within hours of trauma, hemorrhage, sepsis, or burns?

Stress ulcers, specifically ischemic ulcers (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the clinical manifestations of duodenal ulcers is true?

Chronic, intermittent pain in the epigastric area, relieved by food or antacids, is a common presentation. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is true?

True ulcers extend through the muscularis mucosae and can damage blood vessels, causing hemorrhage or perforation. (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of a gastrinoma, leading to increased gastrin secretion and subsequent hypersecretion of gastric acid?

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of diverticulitis?

Reduced fecal bulk and increased pressure within the colon (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic clinical manifestation of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

Symptoms are relieved with defecation (B) Signup and view all the answers

What are orexins?

Molecules that stimulate eating (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary cause of obesity?

Increase in body fat mass (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestations of diverticulitis?

Cramping pain of the lower abdomen, exacerbated by eating and defecation (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

The cause is unknown (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the clinical manifestations associated with pyloric obstruction?

Impaired gastric emptying and accumulation of undigested food (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary mechanism underlying early dumping syndrome after gastric surgery?

Rapid emptying of chyme into the small intestine due to loss of gastric capacity and feedback control (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of lower gastrointestinal bleeding?

Hemorrhoids (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary physiologic response to significant gastrointestinal bleeding?

Increased peristalsis and diarrhea due to intestinal irritation (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key difference between maldigestion and malabsorption?

Maldigestion involves impaired breakdown of food, while malabsorption involves impaired nutrient absorption (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of melena, a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

Dark, tarry stools due to the breakdown of blood (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for promoting the secretion of melanin and lipotropin, resulting in darker skin?

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for regulating the production and secretion of thyroid hormones, as well as promoting iodine uptake and thyroid cell growth?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone plays a crucial role in ovulation, progesterone production in women, and testicular growth and testosterone production in men?

Luteinizing hormone (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is essential for normal tissue growth, maturation, and aging processes, and also affects sleep, nutritional status, stress, and reproductive hormones?

Growth hormone (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for promoting the production of cortisol, androgenic hormones, and aldosterone by stimulating the adrenal cortex/gland?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for follicle maturation, estrogen production in women, and spermatogenesis in men?

Follicle-stimulating hormone (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which gland plays an important role in circadian rhythms and immune regulation?

Pineal gland (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone regulates the metabolic rate of all cells and processes cell growth?

Triiodothyronine (T3) (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells in the pancreas release a hormone that stimulates T cell development in the immune system?

Delta cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of parathyroid hormone in the body?

Increases calcium concentration (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which nervous system stimulates alpha cells of the pancreas to release glucagon?

Sympathetic nervous system (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of somatostatin in carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism?

Prevents excess insulin secretion (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of pancreatic polypeptide released by F cells/PP cells?

Signals satiety and increases gastric acid secretion (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which gland releases hormones that control rates of metabolic processes within the body?

Thyroid gland (A) Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin and amylin?

Parasympathetic nervous system (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone acts as an antagonist to calcitonin and regulates serum calcium levels?

Parathyroid hormone (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common surgical emergency of the abdomen?

Appendicitis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gallstone is primarily composed of calcium bilirubinate polymer?

Black pigmented stones (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of intolerance to fatty foods in cholelithiasis?

Decreased resorption of bile salts from the ileum (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is elevated in acute pancreatitis and remains high?

Lipase (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the characteristic that indicates chronic changes in pancreatitis?

Pancreatic parenchymal fibrosis (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which sign is associated with cholecystitis and indicates abdominal muscle guarding?

Murphy's sign (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of cirrhosis?

Chronic alcohol abuse (B) Signup and view all the answers

What symptom indicates that a stone has lodged in the cystic or common duct in cholelithiasis?

Biliary colic (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which disease is characterized by abnormally high blood pressure in the portal venous system?

Portal hypertension (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main symptom of hepatic encephalopathy?

Confusion (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hepatitis is commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water?

Hepatitis A (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor for pancreatic cancer?

Alcohol consumption (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition results from severe impairment or necrosis of liver cells?

Acute liver failure (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of portal hypertension?

Splenomegaly (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between maldigestion and malabsorption?

Maldigestion is the failure of the intestinal mucosa to absorb digested nutrients, while malabsorption is the failure of the chemical processes of digestion. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by an inability to breakdown lactose due to a congenital defect in the lactase gene?

Lactase deficiency (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of bile salt deficiency in relation to nutrient absorption?

Fatty stools, diarrhea, and loss of fat-soluble vitamins (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which vitamin deficiency can lead to symptoms such as night blindness?

Vitamin A (D) Signup and view all the answers

In which condition does the failure of the chemical processes of digestion occur?

Pancreatic insufficiency (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of malabsorption that results in weight loss?

Pancreatic insufficiency (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of diverticular disease?

Herniations of mucosa through muscle layers of the colon wall (B) Signup and view all the answers

"Cobblestone" appearance due to skip lesions and transverse inflammatory fissures are characteristic of which gastrointestinal disorder?

Crohn's disease (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of anorexin is typically associated with a pear-shaped body type?

Peripheral anorexin (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of obstruction leading to appendicitis?

Inflammatory process (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gallstone is primarily composed of calcium bilirubinate polymer from hyperbilirubinemia?

Black pigmented stones (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most specific lab test for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?

Elevated lipase (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN function of the defecation reflex in the colon?

To relax the internal anal sphincter (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of gallstone is typically associated with bacterial infection of the bile ducts?

Brown stones (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of bile salts in the digestive process?

To emulsify fats (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is MOST responsible for enhancing gastric peristalsis?

Motilin (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of the ileocecal valve?

To prevent the backflow of colonic contents into the small intestine (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells in the pancreas release a hormone that stimulates T cell development in the immune system?

Islet cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism underlying diverticulitis?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical manifestation of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

Symptoms interfering with sleep (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary molecule responsible for stimulating eating behavior?

Orexins (hypocretins) (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a common complication of diverticulitis?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the clinical manifestations associated with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

Unknown, but may be related to any of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of obesity?

BMI greater than 30 kg/m² (C) Signup and view all the answers

In pyloric obstruction, what is the cardinal sign that occurs several hours after eating?

Nausea and vomiting containing undigested food but no bile (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary cause of early dumping syndrome after gastric surgery?

Rapid emptying of chyme into the small intestine due to loss of gastric capacity and emptying control (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most likely cause of melena (dark, tarry stools)?

Bleeding from the esophagus or stomach due to peptic ulcers (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary physiologic response to significant gastrointestinal bleeding?

Increased peristalsis leading to diarrhea and dehydration (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which bile salts aid in nutrient absorption?

Emulsification of fats, increasing their surface area for enzymatic digestion (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary function of the myenteric plexus in the small intestine?

Regulation of intestinal motility and peristalsis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary function of somatostatin secreted by the pancreatic delta cells?

Regulate carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN role of the parasympathetic nervous system in regulating pancreatic function?

Stimulates beta cells to release insulin and secretion of pancreatic juice (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones secreted by the pancreatic islet cells is PRIMARILY responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?

Insulin (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of the thymus gland in the body's immune system?

Releases thymosin that stimulates T cell development (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of the pineal gland in regulating the body's circadian rhythms?

Secretes melatonin (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN mechanism by which the thyroid gland is regulated?

Negative feedback from high levels of thyroid hormones (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of calcitonin secreted by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?

Inhibit osteoclast activity and lower serum calcium levels (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN function of the parathyroid hormone (PTH) secreted by the parathyroid glands?

Increase serum calcium levels (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN function of the pancreatic polypeptide (PP) secreted by the F/PP cells of the pancreatic islets?

Increase gastric acid secretion (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN function of the sympathetic nervous system in regulating pancreatic function?

Stimulates alpha cells to release glucagon (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for promoting the secretion of melanin and lipotropin, leading to darker skin pigmentation?

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone plays a role in both ovulation and progesterone production in women, as well as testicular growth and testosterone production in men?

Luteinizing hormone (LH) (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland is essential for normal tissue growth and maturation, and also affects aging, sleep, nutritional status, stress, and reproductive hormones?

Growth hormone (GH) (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland is responsible for increasing the production and secretion of thyroid hormones, as well as promoting the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of thymocytes?

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland targets the granulosa cells in women and the Sertoli cells in men, regulating follicle maturation, estrogen production, and spermatogenesis, respectively?

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland is responsible for increasing steroidogenesis, leading to the production of cortisol, androgenic hormones, and aldosterone?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following clinical manifestations is NOT typically associated with pancreatic cancer?

Weight gain (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the leading cause of acute liver failure characterized by severe impairment or necrosis of liver cells?

Acetaminophen overdose (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of alcoholic liver disease?

Alcoholic pancreatitis (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the accumulation of toxins and disruptions in neurotransmission leading to clinical manifestations like confusion and coma?

Hepatic encephalopathy (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT mentioned as a potential cause of jaundice?

Alcoholic cirrhosis (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following types of hepatitis is transmitted through a different route compared to the others mentioned?

Hepatitis E (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following gastrointestinal cancers is NOT mentioned in the text?

Pancreatic carcinoma (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the hypothalamic-pituitary axis is correct?

All of the above. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of portal hypertension mentioned in the text?

Liver failure (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the composition of gastric juice is FALSE?

It contains bile salts. (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by the inability to absorb glutens from wheat, barley, rye, and oats due to an inborn error of metabolism?

Celiac disease (D) Signup and view all the answers

In malabsorption conditions involving bile salt deficiency, which vitamin deficiency can lead to prolonged prothrombin time, purpura, and petechiae?

Vitamin K (D) Signup and view all the answers

In the context of intestinal obstruction, what does the term 'skip lesions' refer to?

Lesions that alternate between affected and unaffected segments (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by herniations of the mucosal layer through the muscle layers of the colon wall?

Diverticular disease (C) Signup and view all the answers

In the context of intestinal obstruction, what type of vomit is indicative of an obstruction in the proximal small intestine?

Bile-stained fluid (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by massive dilation of the large bowel in critically ill patients and immobilized older adults, without a mechanical obstruction?

Ogilvie syndrome (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme deficiency is commonly associated with pancreatitis, pancreatic carcinoma, pancreatic resection, and cystic fibrosis, leading to fat maldigestion?

Lipase (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation is associated with lactase deficiency, where lactose is not properly broken down?

Gas, cramping pain, and osmotic diarrhea (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by continuous lesions limited to the mucosal layer of the colon, without skipping segments?

Ulcerative colitis (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of Crohn's disease?

Diarrhea with blood and mucus, weight loss, and right lower quadrant tenderness (C) Signup and view all the answers

What type of hyponatremia is present in SIADH?

Euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones is typically deficient in panhypopituitarism?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical manifestation of SIADH?

Euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN cause of hypopituitarism?

Ischemia and infarction of the pituitary gland (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main clinical manifestation of acromegaly?

Excessive growth of the extremities (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of gigantism?

Excessive growth of the long bones (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of insulin?

To regulate blood glucose levels (B) Signup and view all the answers

Where is insulin synthesized and secreted from?

The pancreatic beta cells (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of glucagon?

To increase blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which zone of the adrenal cortex is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone?

Zona glomerulosa (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the catecholamines secreted by the adrenal medulla?

To induce the 'fight-or-flight' response (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the pancreas is responsible for suppressing glucagon secretion and delaying nutrient absorption after meals?

Amylin (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the mineralocorticoid hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex?

To cause sodium retention and potassium/hydrogen loss (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucocorticoids?

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the glucocorticoid hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex?

To increase blood glucose levels and protein breakdown (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla is responsible for the 'fight-or-flight' response?

Epinephrine (adrenaline) (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of diabetes is characterized by a relative lack of vitamin D, genetic predisposition, and destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to a loss of insulin production?

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (A) Signup and view all the answers

What occurs in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes due to abnormal functions of alpha and beta cells resulting in hyperglycemia and a relative excess of glucagon?

Lack of insulin and amylin (B) Signup and view all the answers

In type 2 diabetes mellitus, what contributes to increased hepatic production of glucose, further worsening hyperglycemia?

Pancreatic alpha cells being less responsive to glucose inhibition (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is decreased in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, contributing to the pathophysiology of the diseases?

Amylin (D) Signup and view all the answers

What are common risk factors for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Family history, metabolic syndrome (A) Signup and view all the answers

In which type of diabetes does glycose intolerance occur during pregnancy, increasing the risk for developing type 2 diabetes?

Gestational diabetes (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of giantism?

Growth hormone hypersecretion in childhood and adolescence (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of acromegaly?

Growth hormone hypersecretion in adulthood due to pituitary adenoma (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of Graves' disease?

Autoimmune reaction against the thyroid gland (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Graves' disease?

Exophthalmos (protruding eyeballs) (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of primary hypothyroidism?

Inability of the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hypothyroidism?

Constipation (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

Parathyroid adenoma (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of primary hyperparathyroidism?

Kidney stones (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?

Polyuria (excessive urination) (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of insulin?

Promotes protein breakdown (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of amylin when co-secreted with insulin?

Delays nutrient uptake (C) Signup and view all the answers

What stimulates the release of glucagon from alpha cells?

Low glucose levels (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone increases blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis?

Glucagon (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which adrenal hormone is responsible for sodium retention and potassium loss?

Aldosterone (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of epinephrine secretion from the adrenal medulla?

Increase blood sugar levels (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol?

ACTH (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of primary hyperthyroidism?

Graves' disease (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN clinical manifestation of acromegaly?

Enlargement of the tongue and facial bones (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of secondary hypothyroidism?

Pituitary or hypothalamic dysfunction (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism?

Thyroid storm (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN risk factor for the development of thyroid cancer?

Exposure to ionizing radiation (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

Parathyroid adenoma (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MAIN clinical manifestation of hypoparathyroidism?

Muscle spasms and convulsions (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common cause of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Obesity and insulin resistance (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN function of the stellate cells (Ito cells) in the liver?

Storage and regulation of vitamin A (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST common cause of SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion)?

Lung cancer (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells leading to insulin deficiency (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key feature of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Insulin resistance and decreased insulin secretion by beta cells (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT associated with an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Hyperthyroidism (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying gestational diabetes mellitus?

Insulin resistance and inadequate insulin secretion (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones is decreased in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Amylin (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common complication associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Excessive production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) leading to water retention (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hyponatremia is characteristic of SIADH?

Euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia (D) Signup and view all the answers

In panhypopituitarism, which hormone deficiency is responsible for the lack of growth in children?

Growth hormone (GH) deficiency (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying acromegaly?

Excessive production of growth hormone (GH) by the pituitary gland (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by excessive growth of the extremities and facial bones due to excessive growth hormone secretion during childhood?

Gigantism (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone deficiency in panhypopituitarism is responsible for the lack of secondary sex characteristics?

FSH and LH deficiency (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the corpus luteum during pregnancy?

To secrete estrogen and progesterone to support the developing fetus (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of gonadotropins and hormones in regulating ovarian function?

They ensure the continuous maturation and release of ova from puberty to menopause (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of LH (luteinizing hormone) in the ovarian cycle?

LH causes the release of the mature ovum from the ovary (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of estrogen in the ovarian cycle?

Estrogen regulates the maturation and release of ova from the ovary (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary trigger for the menstrual cycle if the ovum is not fertilized?

The degeneration of the corpus luteum and the subsequent drop in progesterone levels (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of precocious puberty in 5% of cases?

Disruption of the HPG axis (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between primary and secondary dysmenorrhea?

Primary dysmenorrhea occurs during the first 48 hours of menstruation, while secondary dysmenorrhea can occur at any time (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the GPR54 receptor in the GnRH axis?

It acts as the gatekeeper for activating the GnRH axis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which form of precocious puberty involves the development of only one secondary sex characteristic?

Partial precocious puberty (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary pathological mechanism underlying primary dysmenorrhea?

Excess prostaglandin production in the endometrium (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between primary and secondary amenorrhea?

Primary amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation by age 16, while secondary amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation for 3 or more months in a woman who previously had regular cycles (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the thickened endometrium during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?

Estrogen (D) Signup and view all the answers

What induces ovulation by causing the granulosa layer to produce progesterone?

Luteinizing Hormone (LH) (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which male reproductive organ is responsible for producing fructose as a source of energy for sperm?

Prostate Gland (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of Leydig cells in the testes?

Produce androgens, chiefly testosterone (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which structure in the penis contains the opening of the urethra?

Glans (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the follicular or proliferative phase in the menstrual cycle?

Causes endometrium to proliferate (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which cells are responsible for promoting spermatogenesis in males?

Sertoli cells (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy in females?

Progesterone (A) Signup and view all the answers

What hormone inhibits pituitary FSH secretion in males?

Inhibin (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary hormone responsible for virilization in males?

Dihydrotestosterone (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which female sex hormone is the most potent and plentiful?

Estradiol (B) Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the ovaries during perimenopause?

They increase estrogen production (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which male sex hormone is primarily produced in the Leydig cells of the testes?

Testosterone (D) Signup and view all the answers

'Thyrotoxic crisis' or 'thyroid storm' can result from excessive stress on patients with what condition?

Hyperthyroidism (A) Signup and view all the answers

'Androgens' are mainly associated with which sex?

Male (A) Signup and view all the answers

At what age does menopause typically occur?

51.4 years old (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?

Chlamydia and gonorrhea (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of Bartholin cyst?

Inflammation and obstruction of the Bartholin gland ducts (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of cystocele?

Trauma from childbirth (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of ovarian cyst is more likely to be associated with malignancy?

The more solid (less fluid-filled) a follicular cyst is, the more likely it is to be malignant (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary symptom associated with uterine leiomyomas (fibroids)?

Abnormal uterine bleeding (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of adenomyosis?

It involves the presence of endometrial glands and stroma within the myometrium (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of endometriosis?

Retrograde menstruation (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of endometriosis?

Dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation) (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the vaginal pH in preventing vaginal infections?

It provides an acidic environment that inhibits the growth of pathogens (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors can lead to changes in vaginal pH and increase the risk of vaginal infections?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes primary amenorrhea from secondary amenorrhea?

The absence of menstruation by a specific age (C) Signup and view all the answers

In which compartment is the disorder likely to be located if a woman experiences a disruption in the function of the anterior pituitary?

Compartment III (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the key feature that differentiates dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) from other menstrual disorders?

Association with anovulatory cycles (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone imbalance is commonly associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?

Insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia (A) Signup and view all the answers

What physiological event triggers the onset of physiologic perimenopause or pathologically premature ovulatory failure?

Hypomenorrhea followed by missed periods (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor contributing to follicular failure and persistent lack of ovulation in women with PCOS?

Increased androgen secretion (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of recurrent UTI in men?

Chronic bacterial UTI (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of prostadynia, a type of nonbacterial prostate inflammation?

Reflux of sterile urine into the ejaculatory ducts (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for prostate cancer mentioned in the text?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical manifestation of chronic bacterial prostatitis in men?

Frequency and urgency of urination (A) Signup and view all the answers

How does chronic bacterial prostatitis in men typically affect the prostate gland?

The prostate becomes irregularly shaped and firm (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cancer in American men according to the text?

Prostate cancer (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?

Infection with high-risk HPV (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of urethral stricture?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between phimosis and paraphimosis?

Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin, while paraphimosis is the inability to replace the foreskin (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of Peyronie's disease?

Fibrosis of the corpus cavernosa (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of varicocele?

Both a and b (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of a hydrocele?

Accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of cryptorchidism?

Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of orchitis?

Viral infection (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk factor for penile cancer?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is a complication of epididymitis?

Hydrocele (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of orchitis?

Mumps (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with urethral compression?

Prostatitis (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most curable type of cancer?

Testicular cancer (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which infection causes inflammation of the epididymis?

Sexually transmitted infection (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the cause of cryptorchidism?

Genetic predisposition (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor for testicular cancer?

Cryptorchidism (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the corpus luteum during pregnancy?

To secrete progesterone to support the endometrium (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone is primarily responsible for triggering ovulation?

Luteinizing hormone (LH) (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of estrogen during the menstrual cycle?

To thicken and prepare the uterine lining for implantation (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the menstrual cycle phases?

To regulate the ovarian and uterine changes throughout the reproductive years (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of ovarian dysfunction and infertility?

Any disorder that disrupts the hormonal process (D) Signup and view all the answers

What causes the endometrium to proliferate during the menstrual cycle?

Estrogen production by the follicle (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by the thickened endometrium developing blood vessels and secretory glands?

Secretory phase (A) Signup and view all the answers

What happens if there is no implantation during the menstrual cycle?

Menses begins (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which male reproductive organ curves over the posterior portion of each testis and is where sperm matures?

Epididymis (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the seminal vesicles in male reproductive physiology?

Produce fructose for sperm energy (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which gland secretes a thin, milky fluid with an alkaline pH to help sperm survive in the female reproductive tract?

Prostate gland (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease?

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the main cause of Bartholin gland cyst formation?

Bacterial infection (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of a cystocele?

Trauma during childbirth (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common symptom associated with uterine leiomyomas (fibroids)?

Abnormal uterine bleeding (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the primary cause of adenomyosis?

Unknown (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of ovarian cyst is more likely to be associated with malignancy?

Dermoid cyst (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which follicular cysts develop?

Failure of the dominant follicle to rupture (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most common cause of vaginal prolapse?

Trauma during childbirth (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary clinical manifestation of a ruptured corpus luteum cyst?

Hemorrhage (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of endometriosis?

Retrograde menstruation (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which risk factor is NOT associated with prostate cancer?

Low fiber diet (B) Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by prostatic inflammation without bacterial infection?

Prostatodynia (D) Signup and view all the answers

What leads to the firmness and irregularity in shape of the prostate due to repeated infections?

Fibrosis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which symptom is characteristic of prostatodynia?

Perineal discomfort (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterium is commonly found in chronic bacterial UTIs in men?

E. coli (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common type of recurrent UTI in men?

'Prostadynia' (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes precocious puberty?

Precocious puberty can be classified as complete, mixed, or partial based on the development of secondary sex characteristics. (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism underlying primary dysmenorrhea?

Excess endometrial prostaglandin production and enhanced by progesterone (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes secondary amenorrhea?

Secondary amenorrhea is the absence of menses for more than 3 months in a woman with previously regular cycles. (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is NOT mentioned as a possible cause of delayed puberty in 5% of cases?

Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the GPR54 receptor mentioned in the text?

Acting as a gatekeeper for the activation of the GnRH axis (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between LH, FSH, and GnRH in the context of delayed puberty?

LH and FSH secretion is regulated by GnRH secretion from the hypothalamus, which controls gonad function. (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the main complication associated with untreated cryptorchidism?

Infertility and increased risk of testicular cancer (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN cause of acute orchitis?

Mumps virus (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary treatment for testicular torsion?

Surgical detorsion within 4-6 hours (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN risk factor for the development of testicular cancer?

History of cryptorchidism (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the lower urinary tract symptoms associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

Compression of the urethra by the enlarged prostate (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of malaise, fever, and urinary symptoms?

Acute bacterial prostatitis (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) develops?

Increased sensitivity to circulating androgens, particularly dihydrotestosterone (DHT) (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of chronic prostatitis?

Frequent, urgent, and painful urination (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary risk factor for the development of prostate cancer?

Advancing age (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MAIN complication associated with epididymitis?

Infertility (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the Sertoli cells during spermatogenesis?

Providing nutrients and hormonal signals to developing sperm (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about inhibin is correct?

It is secreted by the Sertoli cells and inhibits FSH secretion (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in male sexual development?

Stimulating the development of external male genitalia and virilization (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following hormones plays a crucial role in regulating testosterone biosynthesis in the Leydig cells?

Luteinizing hormone (LH) (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the irregular menstrual cycles and hormonal fluctuations observed during perimenopause?

Erratic and high levels of estrogen production by the ovaries (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following changes is NOT typically observed in men as they age?

Increased sperm count and improved sperm motility (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of prolactin in the male reproductive system?

Maintaining the biosynthesis of testosterone in the Leydig cells (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a characteristic of the changes observed in the female urogenital tract during menopause?

Shortening, narrowing, and decreased elasticity of the vagina (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the effects of aging on the male reproductive system is correct?

Some seminiferous tubules may degenerate and become fibrotic (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of the increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures observed in postmenopausal women?

Decreased calcium absorption due to reduced estrogen levels (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea?

Pregnancy (B) Signup and view all the answers

In dysfunctional uterine bleeding, what is the main cause of heavy or irregular bleeding?

Ovarian dysfunction (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which compartment is associated with disorders of the CNS or hypothalamic factors?

Compartment IV (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the hallmark feature of polycystic ovarian syndrome?

Hirsutism (A) Signup and view all the answers

In PCOS, what role does insulin play in androgen secretion?

Promotes androgen secretion (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone imbalance leads to persistent lack of ovulation in PCOS?

Persistent increase in LH levels (A) Signup and view all the answers

What hormonal changes contribute to the emotional symptoms of premenstrual syndrome?

Fluctuating estrogen levels (D) Signup and view all the answers

What type of physical changes in the menstrual cycle lead to premenstrual syndrome?

Fluctuating hormone levels in the luteal phase (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary outcome of high insulin levels on androgen secretion in PCOS?

Enhanced conversion of circulating androgens to estrogen (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common cause of endometriosis?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

In cervical cancer, what is the necessary precursor to cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and invasive cervical carcinoma?

Infection with high-risk HPV (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cancers is considered the most common in the pelvic region of women?

Endometrial cancer (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of urethritis in males?

Sexually transmitted infections (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a common symptom of urethral stricture?

All of the above (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between phimosis and paraphimosis?

Phimosis involves inability to retract the foreskin, while paraphimosis involves inability to replace the foreskin (A) Signup and view all the answers

In Peyronie's disease, what is the primary cause of the lateral curvature of the penis during erection?

Fibrous plaques in the erectile tissue of the corpus cavernosa (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding penile cancer is true?

It primarily involves squamous cell carcinomas (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is characterized by a painless diverticulum of the epididymis containing milky fluid with sperm?

Spermatocele (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the common cause of lower genital tract infection in women?

Trichomonas vaginalis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which organism causes pediculosis pubis?

Phthirus pubis (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation is typically rare in Trichomonas vaginalis infection?

Rectal bleeding (D) Signup and view all the answers

How is pediculosis pubis primarily transmitted?

Intimate sexual contact (D) Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Trichomonas vaginalis infection in men from that in women?

In men, dysuria is the main symptom. (A) Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes proliferative breast lesions with atypia from those without atypia?

Abnormal cell structures (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of breast lesion involves abnormal cell proliferation but without signs of malignancy?

Proliferative without atypia (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a common risk factor for male breast cancer based on the text?

Gynecomastia (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by a mite burrowing under the skin?

Scabies (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which bacterial infection can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and disseminated infection?

Gonorrhea (A) Signup and view all the answers

What is a characteristic symptom associated with genital herpes?

Painless ulcers on genitals (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which viral infection is associated with various cancers?

HPV (D) Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes benign breast lesions from malignant breast lesions?

Cell proliferation (B) Signup and view all the answers

What differentiates proliferative breast lesions without atypia from those with atypical hyperplasia?

Presence of atypia (C) Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes viral HPV from genital herpes?

Associated cancers (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which parasite causes a lower genital tract infection characterized by adherence to squamous epithelial cells and copious frothy malodorous discharge?

Trichomonas vaginalis (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the common term for Pediculosis pubis, a condition caused by Phthirus pubis transmitted via sexual contact or infested linens?

Crabs (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical manifestation is rarely seen in men infected with Trichomonas vaginalis but is associated with the condition in women?

Small red marks called strawberry spots (C) Signup and view all the answers

What is the life cycle duration of the crab louse, Phthirus pubis, causing Pediculosis pubis?

20-25 days (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes the allergic sensitization and secondary infections that can result from scratching in Pediculosis pubis?

Folliculitis (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of breast lesion has the highest risk of developing into breast cancer?

Proliferative breast lesions with atypia (D) Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common risk factor for the development of male breast cancer?

Gynecomastia (D) Signup and view all the answers

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and can lead to complications like pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Gonorrhea (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by severe systemic manifestations, including cardiovascular and neurological complications?

Tertiary syphilis (A) Signup and view all the answers

Which sexually transmitted infection is associated with the development of genital warts and various types of cancer?

Human papillomavirus (HPV) (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a benign skin infection caused by the Molluscum contagiosum virus, resulting in the formation of contagious lesions?

Molluscum contagiosum (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite and is characterized by the burrowing of the mite under the skin?

Scabies (C) Signup and view all the answers

Which type of breast cancer is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal cells within the milk ducts, without invasion into the surrounding breast tissue?

Ductal carcinoma in situ (B) Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary physiological function of the enterochromaffin-like cells in the gastric glands?

Secretion of histamine (B) Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla is responsible for the 'fight-or-flight' response?

Epinephrine (A) Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

Ovarian Cycle and Menstrual Cycle

Ovarian cycle: continuous from puberty to menopause; after ejecting a mature ovum, the follicle develops into the corpus luteum
Corpus luteum secretes hormones to support pregnancy if the ovum is fertilized; otherwise, it degenerates and triggers the maturation of another follicle

Menstrual Cycle Phases

Follicular phase (days 1-14): FSH stimulates follicle and ovum maturation; estrogen causes endometrium to proliferate
Ovulation (day 14): LH surge triggers ovulation
Luteal phase (days 15-28): corpus luteum develops; estrogen and progesterone maintain the thickened endometrium

Hormones and Gonadotropins

Gonadotropins: FSH, LH, and GnRH regulate the ovarian cycle
Estrogens: primary hormone in females; estradiol, estrone, and estriol are forms of estrogen
Progesterone: hormone of pregnancy; needs LH

Male Reproductive System

Testes: produce gametes (sperm) and sex hormones (testosterone, androgens)
Epididymis: where sperm matures
Vas deferens: stores sperm; duct with muscular layers capable of powerful peristalsis
Penis: consists of glans, prepuce, corpora cavernosa, and urethra
Internal genitalia: conduct sperm and glandular secretions from testes to urethral opening

Spermatogenesis

Spermatogonia: primitive male gametes; undergo continuous mitosis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes
Develop into primary spermatocytes, then secondary spermatocytes, spermatids, and mature sperm

Aging and the Reproductive System

Female: perimenopause, menopause, and ovarian changes
Male: function diminishes with age, but does not cease; testes atrophy and produce less testosterone

Pathophysiology

Endometriosis: presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside the uterus; causes inflammatory reaction
Cervical cancer: arises from cervical epithelium; risk factors include HPV infection
Other female cancers: vaginal, vulvar, endometrial, and ovarian cancer
Male cancers: penile, urethral, and testicular cancer

Urological Disorders

Urethritis: inflammation of the urethra; usually caused by an STI
Urethral stricture: fibrotic narrowing of the urethra; caused by trauma or infection
Phimosis and paraphimosis: inability to retract or replace the foreskin
Peyronie disease: fibrous plaques in the erectile tissue of the corpus cavernosa; causes bent penis
Priapism: prolonged painful penile erection; associated with spinal cord trauma and sickle cell disease

Male Infections and Inflammations

Epididymitis: inflammation of the epididymis; caused by bacterial or viral infection
Orchitis: inflammation of the testes; caused by bacterial or viral infection
Prostatitis: inflammation of the prostate; caused by bacterial or viral infection
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH): enlargement of the prostate gland; causes lower urinary tract symptoms### Prostate Issues
Chronic bacterial prostatitis: recurrent urinary symptoms and persistence of pathogenic bacteria (gram-) in urine or prostatic fluid
Most common recurrent UTI in men
Clinical manifestations: frequency, urgency, dysuria, perineal discomfort, low back pain, sexual dysfunction
Prostate only slightly enlarged or boggy
Fibrosis caused by repeated infections leads to firmness and irregularity in shape

Prostate Cancer

Most common cancer in American males; 3rd most common worldwide
Asymptomatic until advanced stages – symptoms similar to BPH
Risk factors:
- Dietary: high fat, protein, calcium; low fiber
- Hormones: androgen sensitive cancer, anabolic steroid use
- Vasectomy: elevates circulating androgens – immunologic mechanisms involving antisperm antibodies, reduced seminal fluid levels of active metabolite of testosterone in the prostate
- Chronic inflammation
- Familial factors

Puberty

Precocious puberty: sexual maturation before age 6 in black girls; age 7 in white girls; age 9 in boys – most common in girls
Forms:
- Complete: sex appropriate, onset of all pubertal features
- Mixed: not sex appropriate, virilization of a girl or feminization of a boy
- Partial: development of one secondary sex characteristic only, can be in combination
Central precocious puberty is GnRH dependent – HPG axis is working normally but prematurely
Typically caused by neoplasms that secrete hormones

Dysmenorrhea

Patho: result of the effects of excess endometrial prostaglandin production and enhanced by progesterone
Primary dysmenorrhea: painful menstruation associated with prostaglandin release in ovulatory cycles but not pelvic disease
Secondary dysmenorrhea: painful menstruation related to pelvic pathology – can occur any time in the menstrual cycle

GI System

Anatomy: enteric nervous system (extrinsic and intrinsic)
Autonomic (involuntary) and hormonal control [except chewing, swallowing, defecation]
Vagus nerve: stimulates hormones that trigger or inhibit muscular contractions – GI motility; timely secretion of substances that aid in digestion
Salivary glands: controlled by ANS; cholinergic parasympathetic fibers stimulate salivary glands; sympathetic beta-adrenergic stimulation decreases salivary secretion
Esophagus: conducts substances from oropharynx to stomach; upper esophageal sphincter prevents entry of air into the esophagus during respiration; lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter) prevents regurgitation from the stomach
Stomach: hollow muscular organ – stores food, secretes digestive juices, mixes food with juices – propels chyme into duodenum
Innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic
Gastric motility: swallowing causes fundus to relax; gastrin and cholecystokinin enhance relaxation of stomach; gastrin and motilin and low blood glucose enhance peristalsis; sympathetic activity, secretin, cholecystokinin inhibit peristalsis

SIADH

Patho: levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are abnormally high
Causes: ectopic secretion of ADH; after surgery and some cancers
Clinical manifestations: euvolemic hypotonic (dilutional) hyponatremia; total body water: increased; total body sodium: unchanged; extracellular fluid: increased; edema: absent

Hypopituitarism

Patho: failure of the pituitary gland to produce hormones
Deficiencies: growth hormone, prolactin, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH
Basic results of deficiencies: growth hormone deficiency: growth retardation; prolactin deficiency: lactation failure; ACTH deficiency: adrenal insufficiency; TSH deficiency: hypothyroidism; FSH/LH deficiency: hypogonadism

Small Intestine

Duodenum: receives chyme from the stomach through the pyloric valve; absorbs vitamins, minerals, fats, and sugars
Chyme stimulates liver and gallbladder to deliver bile and the pancreas to deliver digestive enzymes and alkaline secretions
Jejunum: absorbs carbs and proteins across intestinal mucosa by active transport into the villus capillaries
Ileum: absorbs bile salts, vitamin B12, and chloride
All nutrients are absorbed in the small intestines as well as 85% of the water and fluid intake

Colon

Cecum pouch connects the large intestine to the small intestine which is where the appendix is
Serves as a reservoir for fecal mass and absorbs water and electrolytes – no nutrient absorption
Feces (excrement) enters sigmoid colon – consists of food residue, unabsorbed GI secretions, shed epithelial cells, bacteria### Diabetes Mellitus
Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by high blood sugar levels resulting from defects in insulin production, insulin action, or both
Categories:
- Type 1: autoimmune, environmental and genetic factors trigger cell-mediated destruction of beta cells
- Type 2: insulin resistance and decreased insulin secretion by beta cells
- Gestational: any degree of glucose intolerance with the onset or first recognition occurring during pregnancy
Clinical manifestations:
- Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, fatigue
- Fatigue, pruritis, recurrent infections, visual changes, neuropathy
Risk factors:
- Age, obesity, HTN, physical inactivity, family history, metabolic syndrome
Complications:
- Hypoglycemia, DKA, HHNKS, Somogye effect, dawn phenomenon

Pituitary Gland Disorders

Hypopituitarism:
- Definition: decreased production of one or more pituitary hormones
- Causes: pituitary tumor, radiation, trauma, infection, inflammation
- Clinical manifestations: varied, depending on which hormone is deficient
Hyperpituitarism:
- Definition: excessive production of one or more pituitary hormones
- Causes: pituitary tumor, genetic mutation
- Clinical manifestations: acromegaly, gigantism

Thyroid Gland Disorders

Hyperthyroidism:
- Definition: excessive production of thyroid hormones
- Causes: Graves' disease, toxic multinodular goiter, toxic adenoma
- Clinical manifestations: weight loss, heat intolerance, fatigue, diarrhea, tremors
Hypothyroidism:
- Definition: decreased production of thyroid hormones
- Causes: Hashimoto's thyroiditis, iodine deficiency
- Clinical manifestations: fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, constipation
Thyroid cancer:
- Most common endocrine malignancy
- Risk factors: ionizing radiation, iodine deficiency
- Clinical manifestations: changes in voice and swallowing, difficulty breathing

Parathyroid Gland Disorders

Hyperparathyroidism:
- Definition: excessive production of parathyroid hormone
- Causes: parathyroid adenoma, hyperplasia, cancer
- Clinical manifestations: hypercalcemia, kidney stones, bone disease
Hypoparathyroidism:
- Definition: decreased production of parathyroid hormone
- Causes: parathyroid damage, autoimmune disorders
- Clinical manifestations: hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, tetany

Reproductive Endocrinology

Amenorrhea:
- Definition: absence of menstruation
- Categories: primary, secondary
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding:
- Definition: heavy or irregular bleeding in the absence of disease
- Causes: anovulation, progesterone deficiency, estrogen excess
Polycystic ovarian syndrome:
- Definition: oligo-ovulation or anovulation and elevated levels of androgens
- Causes: insulin resistance, genetic factors
- Clinical manifestations: infertility, menstrual bleeding disorders, hirsutism, acne

Other Endocrine Disorders

PMS:
- Definition: cyclic physical, psychological, or behavioral changes that impair interpersonal relationships or interfere with usual daily activities
- Patho: abnormal tissue response to normal changes of the menstrual cycle
PID:
- Definition: inflammation of the upper genital tract
- Causes: bacterial infection, IUD use
- Clinical manifestations: pelvic pain, fever, abnormal vaginal discharge

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Prepare for your exam on gastrointestinal physiology with this study guide covering the anatomy of the GI system, enteric nervous system, autonomic and hormonal control, vagus nerve, and muscular contractions. Test your knowledge on digestive system functions and controls.

NURS8022 Exam 4 Uni of Cincinnati mix of med/hard questions

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Questions and Answers

What is the most common cause of SIADH?

What is the main effect of high levels of ADH in SIADH?

What type of hyponatremia is present in SIADH?

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of SIADH?

What is the basic pathophysiology of hypopituitarism?

What are the typical deficiencies seen in panhypopituitarism?

What is the primary function of the esophageal sphincters?

Which of the following hormones is MOST responsible for enhancing the relaxation of the stomach?

What is the main function of salivary amylase?

Which of the following factors MOST delays gastric emptying?

What is the main function of the vagus nerve in relation to the stomach?

Which of the following is a true statement about the composition of gastric juice?

What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter?

Which of the following hormones is MOST responsible for enhancing gastric peristalsis?

What is the main function of the stomach's muscle layers?

What is the primary function of the taste buds and olfactory nerves in the mouth?

What is the primary function of the small intestine?

Which part of the small intestine absorbs carbohydrates and proteins?

What is the primary function of the colon?

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down starches in carbohydrate digestion?

How are amino acids absorbed from the small intestine?

What is the role of the defecation reflex?

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Which of the following is a characteristic of gestational diabetes mellitus?

Which of the following is NOT a component of the metabolic syndrome?

In type 2 diabetes mellitus, which of the following is observed in pancreatic alpha cells?

Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Which of the following is a complication of diabetes mellitus?

What is the primary cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Which hormone deficiency leads to a lack of secondary sex characteristics in both males and females?

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism that develops autoantibodies towards the thyroid?

In hypothyroidism, what is the primary cause of central (secondary) hypothyroidism?

What is the primary manifestation of hyperparathyroidism?

Which condition is characterized by decreased LOC, hypothermia, hypoventilation, hypotension, and coma?

Acromegaly is primarily caused by the hypersecretion of which hormone in adulthood?

Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) can result from excessive stress on patients with:

Which component of the digestive system is responsible for the initial voluntary phase of swallowing?

What is the primary function of the salivary glands?

Which of the following factors MOST enhances gastric peristalsis?

What is the primary function of the lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter)?

Which of the following is a key component of the composition of gastric juice?

What is the primary function of the vagus nerve in relation to the stomach?

Which hormone is MOST responsible for enhancing the relaxation of the stomach?

What is the primary function of the taste buds and olfactory nerves in the mouth?

Which factor MOST delays gastric emptying?

What is the primary function of the stomach's muscle layers?

Which enzyme is primarily responsible for breaking down starches in the small intestine?

Which nutrient is primarily absorbed in the ileum of the small intestine?

What is the primary function of the cecum and appendix in the large intestine?

How are fatty acids and monoglycerides made water-soluble for absorption in the small intestine?

Which part of the small intestine is primarily responsible for the absorption of carbohydrates and proteins?

What is the primary function of the defecation reflex in the colon?

Which of the following substances is secreted by parietal cells of the stomach?

Which of the following is responsible for breaking down proteins in the stomach?

What is the primary function of mucus secreted in the stomach?

Which of the following substances stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid in the stomach?

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the strongest stimulation of pepsin secretion?

What is the primary factor that inactivates pepsin in the duodenum?

What is the main function of the hepatocytes in the liver?

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

What is the main role of bile salts in the digestive process?

What is the main function of the gallbladder?

What is the main function of pancreatic enzymes in the digestive process?

How does the liver help regulate blood glucose levels?

What is the main consequence of impaired bile production on vitamin K absorption?

What is the main function of the ileogastric reflex?

What is the main function of the Kupffer cells in the liver?

What is the main function of the stellate cells in the liver?

What is the primary risk factor for the development of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Which type of pain is usually poorly localized, diffuse, and vague, in the context of abdominal pathologies?

What is the typical presentation of an upper esophageal obstruction?

In the context of gastrointestinal pathologies, what does frothy and fatty stool indicate?

Which region of the abdomen is most commonly associated with discomfort from gallbladder or liver disease?

What is the primary cause of narrow or ribbon-like stools in the lower GI tract?

What symptom is typically associated with malabsorption syndromes?

Which glandular disorder is commonly associated with difficulty beginning swallowing both solids and liquids?