Fundamental IT Engineer Exam Guide

• Questions for the Fundamental IT Engineer Examination must be answered as instructed
• The exam is in October 2023
• The exam covers questions Q1 - Q80
• All questions are compulsory
• The examination time is 9:30 - 12:00 (150 minutes)

Instructions for Answering Questions

• Use a pencil to answer questions
• When changing an answer, erase completely and neatly, removing all eraser debris
• Mark examinee information and answers according to instructions
• Answers will not be graded if marked improperly
• Do not mark or write outside prescribed places
• Write your examinee number in the space provided and mark the corresponding space below each digit
• Write your date of birth (in numbers) exactly as printed on the examination admission card and mark the corresponding space below each digit
• Select one answer (a through d) for each question
• Mark answers as shown in the sample question

Symbols Commonly Used in Questions

• AND gate explanation
• NAND gate explanation
• OR gate explanation
• NOR gate explanation
• Exclusive OR (XOR) gate explanation
• Exclusive NOR gate explanation
• Buffer explanation
• NOT gate explanation
• Three-state buffer (or tri-state buffer) explanation
• A small circle or “bubble” on either the input or the output terminal shows inversion or negation of the logic state.

Question Q1

• In a school class, 13 students play basketball, and 19 play football
• 8 students play both sports
• 7 students play neither sport
• The question is, how many students are in the class?

Question Q2

• n is a binary integer represented using two’s complement
• What operations derive the value 7 × n using only bit shifting with addition or subtraction?

Question Q3

• A parking lot has 10 spaces in a row with 7 cars parked in it at random
• What is the probability that the three empty parking spaces are adjacent?

Question Q4

• What is the sum of the binary fractions 1.0101 and 1.0111 expressed in decimal form?

Question Q5

• "×" operator has higher precedence than "+" operator
• Which expression in postfix notation is equivalent to 2+5×3+4 in infix notation?

Question Q6

• Huffman coding is used to compress communication data of five characters A, B, C, D, and E that have different appearance frequencies
• A code table is created
• Which code should be inserted in the blank?
• Character A: 26%, code: 00
• Character B: 25%, code: 01
• Character C: 24%, code: 10
• Character D: 13%
• Character E: 12%, code: 111

Question Q7

• Performing specific stack operations on an empty stack reveals the data from the last READ operation
• PUSH x puts data x in the stack
• POP retrieves data
• READ is used to read the data without removing the original data

Question Q8

• When a new node of value 11 is inserted into this binary search tree, where will it be located?
• Inserted to the left child of 16
• Inserted to the left child of 23
• Inserted to the right child of 3
• Inserted to the right child of 10

Question Q9

• Maximize total price in knapsack with max volume of 7 units. Items cannot be divided
• Item A: Volume = 3, Price = 4
• Item B: Volume = 2, Price = 3
• Item C: Volume = 3, Price = 5
• Item D: Volume = 1, Price = 2
• Item E: Volume = 5, Price = 9
• Maximize total profits

Question Q10

• A suitable description of XML?
• Based on HTML, and expands its functions
• Requires dedicated editor to write XML documents
• Integrates the logical structure and display style of documents
• Enables users to define the attribute information and logical structure of documents by using user's tags

Question Q11

• Determine what CPU register contains the address of the next instruction to be fetched
• Accumulator
• Index Register
• Program Counter
• Instruction Register

Question Q12

• Find the appropriate CPU action for cache memory
• CPU fetches data from ROM during a cache hit
• CPU fetches data from main memory during a cache hit
• CPU fetches data from cache memory during a cache miss
• CPU fetches data from main memory during a cache miss

Question Q13

• Find the computer architecture where one processor executes the same instruction on multiple data
• MIMD
• MISD
• SIMD
• SISD

Question Q14

• ECC is used for memory error detection and correction
• n+2 redundant bits are used for 2^n bit data bus
• What number of redundant bits are required for 128 bit data bus?

Question Q15

• What is the most accurate explanation of grid computing?
• Distributes a computing task to multiple computers on a network to attain computational capacity
• Emulates devices to avoid compatibility issues and improve portability and flexibility of the software
• Requirements are stated as response time and/or on the temporal validity of sensory data
• Sensing devices are connected to a network to provide feedback and control through personal mobile devices

Question Q16

• Determine which RAID configuration uses two parity records on different disk drives, allowing recovery from two simultaneous disk drive failures within the same RAID group
• RAID0
• RAID1
• RAID5
• RAID6

Question Q17

• Determine what happens when a program attempts to access a page mapped in the virtual address space but not located in main memory, assuming the OS supports paging
• Fatal Error
• Page Fault
• Scheduling Error
• Segmentation Fault

Question Q18

• Define Round Robin process scheduling method
• CPU resources allocated to each process based on priority when event occurs
• CPU resources allocated based on processing time, shortest to longest
• CPU resources allocated to first executable process when interrupt is generated
• CPU resources allocated to process needing to start immediately when an interrupt is generated

Question Q19

• Determine the explanation of an archiver as a data management utility
• Compiling multiple files into one or reconstructing the original files for data backup and distribution
• Creating data recording area and management area on a single hard disk
• Protecting data through file protection, safeguarding data from unauthorized use, destruction, and copy protection
• Rearranging a file into contiguous areas on a hard disk where fragmentation has occurred

Question 20

• Choosing which circuit is a sequential circuit that has two stable states?
• Adder Circuit
• Capacitor
• Flip-Flop
• NAND gate

Question 21

• Find the equivalent logic circuit

Question 22

• Power supply unit has 500 watts rated output power and 80% efficiency
• How many watts of minimum input power are there?

Question 23

• Identify a data validation method used to check if an order date is in business day, before or after data entry when order data is entered
• Duplicate Check
• Logical Check
• Format Check
• Sequence Check

Question 24

• Determine which answers represent a process in PCM (Pulse Code Modulation) to capture analog values from audio signals at regular intervals
• Encoding
• Reverse quantization
• Quantization
• Sampling

Question 25

• Determine if the function in DBMS (Database Management System) decides on the schema
• Definition function
• Maintenance function
• Recovery function
• Security function

Question 26

• Determine correct method to remove data redundancy in relational database systems
• Entity-relationship
• Functional dependency
• Hierarchical
• Normalization

Question 27

• Describe the primary role of the SQL query optimizer
• Determines the most efficient way to execute the query
• Minimizes the number of rows in the result set
• Parses a query and improves it for efficient network transmission
• Stores the results of frequently used queries in a cache

Question 28

• Calculating the average score for all subjects per student from a “Score” table and determining students with an average score of at least 80
• Determine what phrase to be grouped by, selecting StudentNumber and Average Score of Score table for an average score of 80 or higher:
• Score (StudentNumber, Subject, Score)
• SELECT StudentNumber, AVG(Score)
• FROM Score
• GROUP BY (BLANK)

Question 29

• Find the file in which values before and after a database update are written and saved as the update history
• Backup file
• Checkpoint file
• Dump file
• Log file

Question 30

• Find what is most appropriate for a router to determine the destination of an incoming packet
• Destination IP address
• Destination MAC address
• Source IP address
• Source MAC address

Question 31

• Which answer represents a feature of a switching hub (layer 2 switch) network device
• It breaks a received packet into smaller pieces (fragments) in the network layer
• It dynamically allocates an IP address for a terminal connected to its LAN port
• It forwards a received packet only to its LAN port connected to a device with the packet's destination MAC address
• It forwards a received packet to all its LAN ports (broadcast)

Question 32

• Choose the protocols that is used to automatically assign an IP address to the PC when a PC connected to a LAN is starting up
• DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)
• DNS (Domain Name System)
• FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
• PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)

Question 33

• Determine which of these choices represents a standard for wireless broadband communication for mobile devices and data terminals
• IEEE 802.11
• LTE (Long-Term Evolution)
• NFC (Near-field communication)
• UWB (Ultra-wideband)

Question 34

• Determine which choice is a multicast IPv4 address
• 10.1.1.1
• 192.0.2.0
• 203.0.113.4
• 224.0.0.5

Question 35

• Embedding a malicious java script code to a victim’s web browser from a vulnerable website
• Which answer is a method for the attack?
• Cross-site request forgery
• Cross-site scripting
• OGNL injection
• SQL injection

Question 36

• Mr. A encrypts a message to Mr. B to only be decrypted by Mr. B, using asymmetric key encryption
• What private key decrypts the message?
• A third party’s
• Both Mr. A’s and Mr. B’s
• Only Mr. A’s
• Only Mr. B’s

Question 37

• What attack method uses trial-and-error to obtain confidential information, such as a user password or personal identification number (PIN)?
• Brute force
• Denial of service
• Man-in-the-middle
• Sniffing

Question 38

• Choose the correct combination of properties to ensure that information sent and received with a digital signature via the Internet is from the signer and has not been altered or tampered with during transmission
• Atomicity and consistency
• Authenticity and integrity
• Availability and confidentiality
• Durability and isolation

Question 39

• Select the phrase that is an example of a behavior of a key logger
• It interrupts the communication between two parties and then collects and falsifies the information being exchanged
• When Internet banking is used, it collects the password entered by the user
• When the user browses movies on a web browser, it arbitrarily displays unintended advertisements for the user
• When the web browser is started, it arbitrarily displays a tool bar that the user has not installed

Question 40

• Select the phrase that represents a role of a PKI certification authority as a reliable third party
• Adding a digital signature to an e-mail body as requested by a user
• Enabling the synchronization of time by returning an accurate time to a user’s request
• Issuing a digital certificate that certifies the private key of a user or server
• Issuing a digital certificate that certifies the public key of a user or server

Question 41

• An application on a client accesses data in a database on a server via database connection programs. Which measure would prevent leakage of commands and execution results transmitted between the application and database?
• Changing the port initial value used by programs when communicating to database
• Encrypting the communication between database connection programs
• Restricting the IP addresses of the clients so only required clients can access
• Setting a password to starting/stopping the DB connection program on the server

Question 42

• Companies allow mobile workforce to access the corporate network securely over the Internet using insecure channels:
• Determine the technology for this purpose: DMZ, SNMP, VOIP, VPN
• DMZ (DeMilitarized Zone)
• SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
• VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol)
• VPN (Virtual Private Network)

Question 43

• Which method tries to infiltrate computer or network systems to find security flaws?
• Penetration test
• Regression Test
• Software inspection
• Walk-through

Question 44

• Which key is contained in website's SSL/TLS certificate?
• The encrypted private-key of the website
• The encrypted public-key of the website
• The unencrypted private-key of the website
• The unencrypted public-key of the website

Question 45

• Determine the correct option that describes a decision table as a design technique in system development
• Represents the combined output of different conditions and corresponding actions
• Represents different components shown in rectangles and their connecting lines
• Represents the flow of controls
• Represents the flow of data

Question 46

• Low level module is substituted for integration test of software that is composed hierarchically
• Which substitute test module is needed?
• Driver
• Emulator
• Simulator
• Stub

Question 47

• Which answer identifies the correct feature associated with polymorphism?
• Developers can incrementally define classes by reusing previously defined classes
• Only information needed to use a software module is released to the module user
• Processes and data are combined into a single object
• The same message can be interpreted differently by different classes of objects

Question 48

• What needs to be approved by the customer when external design of a system is completed?
• Physical database specification
• Program flowchart
• Screen layout
• System development plan

Question 49

• Give the description of an extreme programming (XP) practice
• Test cases created after code confirmed and can be integrated
• Integration of code and testing are continuously repeated
• Code is not refactored after tests until next iteration
• Customer responsible for unit test specifications

Question 50

• Which modeling tool is used to create a design document with E-R diagrams/representations from definition information in an active database?
• Concurrent engineering
• Forward engineering
• Reverse engineering
• Social engineering

Question 51

• Ten(10) members of a project team hold meetings with each other
  • Meetings are held one-on-one
  • Each member holds one meeting with every other member
• If two(2) members are to be added to the team, how many additional meetings will be held compared to if there were ten members?

Question 52

• Determining the quality condition in a test process that analyzes (test items vs cumulative bugs)
• Graph showing the point that quality is becoming stable

Question 53

• The minimum number of staff members required for the system is what? (95 days)
• Design and testing = 8 times the days as coding
• Input processing = 20 and person days coding is 1
• Output processing = 10 and person days coding is 3
• Calculation processing = 5 and person days coding is 9

Question 54

• Critical path of the project activities

Question 55

• Determine which policy is appropriate for creating an SLA
• A compensation as a penalty for every item that has a service level
• A service level for every item that can be taken into consideration
• A service level that is maintained into the future without any changes
• A service level under the cost and needs of a service provider and its customers

Question 56

• Determine the appropriate characteristic of the “big bang” or all-at-once migration method that is a system migration method
• Additional operational costs are incurred because of parallel operations.
• An additional application is required for connecting the old and new systems.
• The old and new systems operate in parallel, and migration to the new system is performed at a particular point of time.
• The problems that occur during migration to the new system have a big impact.

Question 57

• Determine which of these represents In IT service management, where a problem management activity is performed proactively
• Analyzing the occurrence trend of incidents, proposing measures that prevent incidents
• Classifying problems and setting response priority
• Evaluating the effectiveness of a resolution
• Monitoring incidents that reoccur later

Question 58

• Identify a method that restores the system to its initial state and restarts when a system failure occurs, without preprocessing a copy
• Referred to as initial program load
• Cold start
• Rollforward
• Rollback
• Warm start

Q59

• Determine which phrase describes an audit work paper
• A compilation of the information security promissory letter that is presented to the audited department when the auditor implements an audit
• A compilation of the standards and guidelines used by the auditor for implementing an audit
• A document that must be disclosed along with the audit report to prove that the auditor has fulfilled their obligations
• An execution record of the auditing procedure by an auditor, and it forms the basis of the audit opinion

Q60

• Choose the phrase that provides an appropriate description for a system audit team
• The audit team is the members of the information systems department in development audits
• System audit teams that report to the person requesting the audit to issue improvement instructions
• Audit teams audit the information system and create audits that are formed by members of the user's department
• Team accepts help from an expert system; the decisions are made by the expert

Q61

• Examining the purchase of two types of IT devices A and B, and the payout period to recover investment within the set payout (annual profit), select a description for an annual profit to A and B
  • A and B have the same annual profit
  • A needs to have twice the profit of B
  • B needs to make 1.5 in profit of A
  • B needs to have twice the profit of A Amount of investment (10,000 yen) Payout period (years) | A and B info

Q62

• What is purpose of Business Process Management (BPM) towards corporate activities?
• Analysis of how resources and information is used
• Conservation and analysis of all customer information
• Improvement of business processes by an ongoing basis (continuous)
• Effective ways to use resources and equipment on hand

Question 63

• Determine whether ERP, SaaS, SCM and XBRL is a scheme where a user creates a connection via the Internet and only uses the necessary functions
• ERP
• SaaS
• SCM
• XBRL

Question 64

• Determine which answer is an appropriate example of utilizing Business Intelligence (BI)
• Analyzing data on a business system to evaluate performance and develop a strategy
• Computerizing daily routine works to ensure fast and swift completion
• Enabling employees to use/manage computerized materials via a network
• Obtaining publications and annual reports to understand finance and goals

Question 65

• RFP is presented to Vendors and they've responded to an RFI, what's the 1st step?
• Instead of an RFP, it's giving evaluation to people who are familiar with the system for ease.
• Establishing a base to work on, setting up guidelines and requirements
• Set up unofficial agreements to get the contract done.
• Prepare vendors that have received an RFI response

Question 66

• A company has products at the peak of profitability and sales, and competitors are developing similar products
• New products must be developed
• Determine the stage of this product life cycle
• Decline stage
• Growth stage
• Introduction stage
• Maturity stage

Question 67

• Understand if benchmarking is used for corporate management
• Understanding the quantitative, qualitative, and operation of companies against the competition
• Reform of quality and restructure using information technology
• Managing the company via company allocation, planning, and improved administration
• Concentrate on profitability, technology